Section 1, Chapter 4 - accounting and reporting for specific asset and liability transactions Flashcards

1
Q

What does cash include?

A
  • Cash on hand
  • Cash in transit
  • Cash on deposit with financial institutions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are most investments reported?

A

The statement of net position or balance sheet, fair market value 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s the notes to the financial statements say about investments?

A

It should summarize the investments by typing such as:
- United States government securities
- repurchase agreements
- Equity securities
- Fixed securities

Briefly describe their deposit or investment policies related to custodial credit risk, concentration of credit risk, interest rate risk, or foreign currency risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of investments should not be aggregated into a single investment type?

A

Dissimilar investments, such as US treasury, bills, and US treasury strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are note disclosures for cash and investments required to describe?

A

The restrictions on their use and legal and contractual provisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does GASB Codification Section C20, Cash Deposits with Financial Institutions do?

A

It specifies the note disclosure related to cash deposits with financial institutions

The disclosures are intended to benefit financial statement users to assess the risks, a government entity, and investing public funds. Professional judgment is required to determine the level of detail to provide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should disclosures on cash deposits take in to consideration?

A
  • Whether they apply to the primary government, including its blended component units, and for governmental and business type activities
  • risk exposures at the fund level.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should risk exposures be disclosed?

A

Whenever the risk exposures are specifically greater than the deposit and investment risk of the primary government, they should be disclosed.

Example: although a government entities, total investments may not be exposed to concentration risk, if the government entity has a capital project fund that has all of its investments in one issue of corporate bonds,, the funds exposure to a concentration of credit risk should be disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If required, what should exposure risk disclosures include?

A
  • legal or contractual provisions for deposits
  • Deposits as of the balance sheet date and during the period

Significant violations during the period of legal or contractual, provisions for deposits, and actions taken into address violations should be disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a custodial credit risk?

A

For deposits, it is the risk that in the event of failure of a depository financial institution, a government will not be able to recover deposits, or will not be able to recover collateral securities are in the position of an outside party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When are deposits exposed to custodial risk?

A

If they are not covered by the depository insurance, and the deposits are:
- uncollateralized
- Collateralized with securities held by the pledging financial institution
- collateralized with securities held by the pledging financial institutions, trust department or agent, but not in the depositor- governments name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a government has deposits, exposed to custodial risk at the end of the period, what should it disclose?

A
  • The amount of these bank balances
  • The fact that the balances are uninsured
  • Whether the balances are exposed, be on either (previous card)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What GASP codification contains the most accounting and financial reporting standards support investments?

A

Modification section I50

Specific guidance, for types of investments is contained in the following sections:
- D40 derivative instruments
- I55 reverse re-purchase agreements
- I60 investments - securities lending
- I70 irrevocable split interest agreements
- In5 investment pools (external)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are note disclosures for investments similar to notes for cash deposits?

A

The underlying principles of restrictions, legal or contractual provisions, risk and separation of disclosures for the primary government, separated from the disclosures for the component units, apply to investments

However, statutory requirements for investments are usually more complex than provisions for cash deposits. Therefore, the paragraph outlining the legal and contractual provisions should include per requirements for investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How should investment disclosures be organized?

A

By investment type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should risk disclosures be made for?

A

The primary government and its component units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should disclosures be made when the funds have taken together fiduciary fund types or the deposit and investment risks of the primary government for the governmental and business type activities??

A

The disclosures should then be provided at that level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the determination of which disclosures to make for component units??

A

Professional judgment is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Disclosures are required for specific categories of risk. When are investments exposed to custodial risk?

A

When the securities are uninsured and not registered in the name of the government and are held by either:
- the counterparty
- the counterparty’s trust department or agent, but not in the government’s name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Investment securities exposed to custodial risk at the end of the period should be disclosed. What should the disclosures include?

A
  • The type
  • Amount
  • how the investments are held
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What method can be used so governments can disclose information about the interest rate risk?

A
  • segmented time distribution
  • Specific identification
  • Weighted average maturity
  • Duration or simulation model
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When our disclosures about the concentrations of credit risk required?

A

When investments represent 5% or more of total investments. Except for those issued or explicitly guaranteed by the US government, investments in mutual funds, and external investment pools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should investments exposed to foreign currency risk be disclosed?

A

Using the US dollar balances organized by currency denomination, and if applicable, investment type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can disclosures for cash deposits and investments be combined in a single disclosure?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are most investments required to be valuated at on the statement of that position or balance sheet?

A

Fair value

Required by GASB Stmt No. 31, Accounting and Financial Reporting for Certain Investments and for External Investment Pools; GASB Stmt No. 72, Fair Value Measurement and Application; and other authoritative literature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can investments in mutual funds and in private equity, or in private credit funds be reported?

A

They may be reported at net asset value

However, governmental entities, other than external investment pools, generally are permitted to report non-participating investment contracts, and certain money market investments at amortized costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How should all investment income, including changes in the fair value of investments be reported?

A

As revenue in the operating statement

The statement also requires specific disclosures about investments, including the fair value of the investments at year end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Disclosures have been added by GASB 72, fair value measurement and application. Depending upon the type of government, making the disclosure, the additional notes may be streamlined or complex complex entities including post, employment, benefit, plans, disclosures, similar to for profit, entities, segregating investments into what 3 levels of hierarchy?

A
  1. Level one inputs are quoted prices (unadjusted) in active markets for identical, assets or liabilities. These may be publicly traded securities, such as stocks and similar financial instruments.
  2. Level two inputs or inputs other than quoted prices, included within level one are observable for the asset or liability, either directly or indirectly. These may be swap contracts and certain certificates of deposit.
  3. Level three inputs are unobservable inputs such as management, assumption of the default rate, among underline mortgages of a mortgage security. Examples may be commercial real estate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can disclosures for cash deposits and investments be combined in a single note disclosure?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a derivative instrument?

A

A financial instrument or other contract that has all of the following characteristics:
1. Settlement factors.
2. Leverage.
3. Net Settlement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are settlement factors?

A

One or more reference rates, and one or more notional amounts or payment, provisions or both. These terms determine the amount of the settlement or settlements, and in some cases whether a settlement is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a reference rate?

A

A specified interest rate, security rate, commodity price, foreign exchange rate, index of prices or rates, and other variable.

It may be a price or rate of an asset or liability, but it is not an asset or liability itself, and maybe any variable that has observable changes or otherwise objectively verifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some common reference rates?

A
  • structured overnight financing rates (SOFR)
  • The securities interest and financing market association (SIFMA) swap index
  • AAA general obligations index published by municipal market data
  • Commodity pricing point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is notional amount?

A

The number of currency units, shares, bushels, pounds or other units specified in the derivative instrument

The notional amount and reference rate our key factors of a derivative instruments settlement payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is leverage required?

A

Leverage requires no initial net investment, or a smaller initial investment then would be required for other types of contracts that would be expected. Do I have more response to changes in market factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is leverage achieved?

A

By either a small or no initial net investment to allows for the derivative instrument to have changing cash flow or fair values that replicate an instrument that normally would require a much larger investment

For example, an interest rate swap would require no initial net investment. The swap value, however, will change if the holder of the swap has made in initial investment in for example of fixed rate instrument with a principal amount, equal to swaps notional value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is a net settlement readily settled?

A

By means outside the contract or provides for delivery of an asset and put in the recipient in a position, not substantially different from the net settlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When does a financial instrument or other contract meet the settlement characteristics?

A

If it’s settlement provisions allow for cash settlement or a settlement that is like cash such as a delivery of a US treasury bill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where should derivative instruments be reported?

A

On the statement of net position or balance sheet

The classification depends on whether they represent assets or liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How should derivative instruments be valued?

A

Fair market value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is the fair market value of a derivative measured?

A

By the market price if there is an active market for the derivative instrument

If market rate is not available, a forecast of expecting cash flow may be used, provided that the expected cash flows are discounted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should governments provide a summary of their derivative instruments?

A

During the reporting period and balances at the end of the reporting period, in the notes to the financial statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How should information disclosed to be organized?

A

By governmental activities, business type activities, and fiduciary activities

The information should be divided into the following categories:
- hedging Derivative instruments (distinguishing between fair value hedges and cash flow hedges)
- investment derivative instruments

Within each category, derivative instruments should be aggregated by type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What information should be presented in the summary?

A
  • notional amount
  • changes in fair value during the reporting period and the classification in the financial statements where those changes in fair value are reported.
  • Fair values as of the end of the reporting period and the classification in the financial statements, where those fair values are reported. Derivative instrument values are based on other than quoted market prices, methods and significant assumptions used to estimate those fair values should be disclosed
  • fair Values of derivative instruments reclassified from a hedging derivative instrument to an investment derivative instrument. They also should be disclosure of the deferral amount that was reported within instrument revenue upon reclassification.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does hedging accounting require?

A

The changes in fair value of hedging derivative instruments be reported as either deferred inflows or deferred outflows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What note disclosure requirements should be presented for all hedging derivative instruments?

A
  1. objectives. - governments should disclose their objectives for entering into those instruments, context needed to understand those objectives, the strategies of achieving those objectives, and the types of derivative instruments entered into
  2. Terms. - significant terms, including notional amount, reference rates, embedded options, the date with the hedging instrument was entered into, and when it was scheduled to terminate or mature, the amount of cash paid or received, if any, afford, contract, or swap was under contract
  3. Risks - for hedging instruments, governments disclose, if applicable, they’re exposure to the following risks that could give rise to monetary loss: credit risk, interest rate risk, basis risk, termination risk, roll over risk, market access risk, or foreign currency risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What should governments disclose for investment derivatives?

A

Their exposure to credit risk, interest, rate risk, foreign currency risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are securities lending transactions?

A

Transactions where governmental entities transfer their securities to broker dealers and other entities return of the collateral for the same securities in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What Is required to be reported on the statement for securities lending transactions?

A

Governmental entities are required to report securities lent (the underlining securities) as assets in their balance sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How should cash received from securities lending transactions be reported?

A

As collateral on securities lending transactions and investments made with that cash should be reported as assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When should securities receive as collateral be reported as an asset?

A

Only if the governmental entity can pledge or sell them without a borrower default

Liabilities. Resulting from these transactions should be reported in the balance sheet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Should securities lending transactions collateralized by letters of credit, or by securities that the government entity does not have the ability to pledge or sell unless the borrower defaults be reported as assets or liabilities?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is impact on reporting cash and investments on the measurement focus and basis of accounting used?

A

There is no impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How should investments of each fund that participates an internal investment pool report its share?

A

As a component unit

Note disclosures should distinguish between the primary government and discreetly presented component units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When are accounts receivable established?

A

When a state or local government has a claim to cash or other assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

For resources reported in governmental funds, what is the difference in recognizing receivables between the accrual basis of accounting and the modified accrual basis of accounting?

A

There is no difference

The modification to the basis of accounting relates only to the recognition of revenue for the associated receivable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When does an exchange transaction occur?

A

When each party receives and gives up something of value, and the value is presumed to be equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When do exchange transactions occur in the government?

A

When there is a charge for a service and often when there is a fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When is revenue recognized for an exchange?

A

At the time of the exchange unless payment is not made at the time of the exchange.

If payment is not made at the time the exchange takes place, a receivable is established and revenue is recognized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is an exchange like transaction?

A

Transaction when the value may not be equal, and the direct benefits may not be exclusively for the parties to the transaction. However the characteristics of the transaction are strong enough to justify treating the transaction as an exchange for accounting purposes. Therefore the difference between an exchange, and an exchange like transaction as a matter of degree

For example, the government charges a fee associated with a license or permit to do something in exchange for something of value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the difference in recognizing a receivable and revenue for an exchange and exchange like transaction?

A

There is no difference in recognizing receivable and revenue between an exchange and an exchange like transaction. However, governments must ensure they do not classify an exchange-like transaction as a non-exchange transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Governments have a number of transactions that do not involve an exchange. What are four ways a non-exchange class transaction can be classified?

A
  1. Derived tax revenue transactions.
  2. Imposed non-exchange revenue transactions.
  3. Government mandated non-exchange transactions.
  4. Voluntary non-exchange transactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where do you derived tax revenue transactions result from?

A

The governments ability to impose taxes

The tax is imposed on an exchange transaction

For example, a sales tax is imposed at the time a sale takes place. The amount of taxed depends on the amount of the sale. An income tax is imposed when an individual exchanges labor for wages, or otherwise earns income. Gasoline taxes are imposed on each gallon of fuel that is sold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Many derived tax revenue transactions are taxpayer assessed. What does this mean?

A

Employers withhold federal and state, income taxes and file returns at the appropriate time. Merchants collect sales tax and file returns at appropriate times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When does the government recognize derived tax revenue transactions?

A

They would recognize a receivable and revenue when the underline exchange takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are imposed non-exchange revenue transactions?

A

When governments impose attacks based on something other than an exchange. Resources are required to be transmitted to the government be on an act committed, or omitted by the provider.

For example, a property tax is assessed on property owned by the provider. Another example is a fine being levied when the provider fails to adhere to a legal requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

For imposed non-exchange revenue transactions, when is a receivable and revenue recognized?

A

In the period when the government has an enforceable legal claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When does an enforceable legal claim occur for property taxes?

A

When the government places the lien on the property, which is usually called “the lien date”

Other governments may use a different term for that event, such as that assessment or levy date. if this is prior to the start of the fiscal year, a deferred inflow of financial resources would be recognized. A revenue would be recognized at the start of the fiscal year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When does an enforceable legal claim occur for fines?

A

When the period to contest the claim expires, or, if contested, when the court rules in favor of the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When does a government mandated non-exchange transaction occur?

A

When are government one level, including the federal government, provides resources to a government at another level, and requires the government to use the resources for purposes established by the provider. The provider established purpose restrictions and may also establish time restrictions. For a transaction to occur, the recipient must meet the providers requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When is a receivable and revenue recognized for government mandated non-exchange transactions?

A

A receivable and revenue are recognized by the recipient government when it meets all the eligibility requirements established by the provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When does the provider of a government mandated non-exchange transaction recognize a liability?

A

When the recipient government meets the eligibility requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the eligibility requirements of a recipient government for government mandated non-exchange transactions?

A
  1. Recipient and secondary recipient, if applicable, must meet characteristics specified by the provider. For example, to receive a law enforcement grant, the recipient must be law enforcement agency
  2. Time requirements specified by the provider must be met. For example a federal grant may allow spending to take place from October 1 to September 30. Any spending prior these days would not be eligible. Therefore, revenue should not be reported before the period begins
  3. The provider specifies the resources will be available only on a reimbursement basis, also known as “expenditure driven grant”
  4. The provider may specify contingencies that must be met such as the recipient must match the funds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are voluntary non-exchange transactions?

A

When two or more parties will enter into an agreement either through legislation or by contract. The transactions are not imposed by the provider to the recipient. However, there may be eligibility requirements have to be met by the recipient.

Examples include entitlements, shared revenues, and donations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When are receivables and revenues recognized for voluntary non-exchange transactions?

A

When the recipient meets all eligibility requirements

A payable is recognized by the provider when the recipient meets all eligibility requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Does the government have the authority to make loans available to individuals and organizations?

A

Yes some governments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should governments do prior to making loans available to individuals and organizations?

A

Evaluate the collectibility of the loan, and establish allowances based on experience

For example, small business loans have a high default rate. The allowance should be established to allow for the probability of default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How should receivables be reported?

A

Net of allowances and discounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does GASP statement 38, certain financial statement note disclosures, require for disclosure of receivables?

A

Components of significant receivables must be disclosed in the notes of the financial statements, if they are aggregated on the face of the financial statements

For example, if the government reports “ taxes receivable” on the face of the statements which is made up of property tax, sales tax, income tax and other taxes, the notes should provide disaggregated disclosures regarding receivables from property taxes, sales taxes, income taxes, and other

Governments should also disclose any significant receivables that are not expected to be collected within one year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Governments have activity that takes place among funds. How can the activity be classified?

A
  1. Reciprocal.
  2. Non-reciprocal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a reciprocal activity?

A

An exchange transaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the two types of reciprocal transactions?

A
  1. Interfund loans.
  2. Interfund services provided and used.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the two types of non-reciprocal activity?

A
  1. Interfund transfers
  2. Interfund reimbursements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Of the four types of reciprocal and non-reciprocal activities, what is the only type to involve assets and liabilities?

A

Interfund loans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which type of loans affect the balance sheet or statement of net position?

A

Only loans between funds affect the balance sheet or statement of net position of the respective funds. There is no impact on the operating statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does the fund making the interfund loan record?

What does the fund receiving the interfund loan record?

A

Making: Records an asset—due from other funds

Receiving: records a liability— due to other funds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A fund often doesn’t have sufficient cash to meet its obligations. This is particularly true of grant funds awaiting reimbursement from the grantor agency. How should this be recorded?

A

If a government has an internal investment pool, then a negative cash balance should not be reported. Instead alone should be made from another fund to bring the balance to zero and a “due from” and “due to” should be recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

If an interfund repayment is not expected within a reasonable period, what should be recorded?

A

The transaction should be reported as a transfer between funds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are governments required to disclose about interfund activity?

A

They are required to disclose the loans between funds in the notes to the financial statements. The details about the paying funds and receiving funds and the amount involved should be presented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the two methods for reporting inventory?

A
  1. Consumption method.
  2. Purchase method.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are inventories most associated with?

A

Proprietary funds and business-type activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the consumption method?

A

Governments maintain goods in inventory until requested by the customer. In this instance, the inventory is an asset until it is used

For example, a government provides office supplies to other departments and maintains a supply inventory. The activity is accounted for as an internal service fund. Office supplies are assets until orders are filled. At that time, an expense is recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the purchases method?

A

Governmental funds often do not maintain an inventory. Instead, when goods are purchased, an expenditure is recorded.

However, there is an exception for governmental funds. They can elect to use the consumption method for reporting the value of inventory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the reporting requirements for governmental funds even if the purchases method is used?

A

The amount of inventory is required to be reported if there are significant goods on hand

For example, governments in the colder climates may have supplies of salt on hand. The value at December 31 could be significant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

For the consumption method, what is done in inventory purchases were made during the current fiscal year?

A

The expenditure would be reduced and an inventory account established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The value of salt on hand at December 31 was $200,000 and was considered significant. The purchase had been made during the past three months. What would the journal entry be to report accumulated inventory for salt?

A

DR: inventory $200,000
CR: expenditures— public services $200,000

97
Q

The government should set aside an equal amount of fund balance in the governmental fund, since the asset is not in expendable form and is not available for appropriation. What would the entry be to report non-spendable fund balance for inventory?

A

DR: unassigned fund balance, $200,000
CR: nonspendable fund balance $200,000

98
Q

What should be disclosed for inventory?

A

The method used to value the inventory

99
Q

What is required if the carpet changes the inventory valuation method?

A

It’s required to restate its beginning balances

100
Q

What do governmental funds commonly use for prepaid items?

A

The purchases method

However, GAAP allows the option to use the consumption method. Thus, prepaid items would be reported similarly to inventory items.

101
Q

How are the issuance costs including, but not limited to, insurance cost (net of rebates from refunded old debt, if any), financing costs (such as rating agency fees), and other related costs (such as printing, legal, administrative, and trustee expenditures) treated?

A

They are expensed

102
Q

What should be disclosed for prepaid items?

A

Governments disclose the method used to amortize prepaid items in the notes in the summary of significant accounting principles, if material

103
Q

What do governments need to determine for capital assets?

A

They needed to determine the capitalization level for the capital assets and define the level in a capitalization policy

104
Q

What is the capitalization level used for capital assets?

A

Different capitalization levels may be used for different classes of capital assets

105
Q

What do cattle assets include?

A

The right to use assets related to a lease

106
Q

What funds do not report capital assets?

A

Governmental funds do not report capital assets

Capital assets are reported for governmental activities, business type activities, proprietary funds, and fiduciary funds

107
Q

What are the major classes of capital assets?

A
  1. Land.
  2. Buildings.
  3. Improvements, other than buildings.
  4. Machinery and equipment.
  5. Works of art and historical treasures.
  6. Intangible assets.
  7. Infrastructure.
  8. Construction in progress
108
Q

What does the cost of land include?

A
  • purchase price
  • legal and title fees
  • Surveying fees
  • Appraisal and negotiation fees
  • damage payments
  • site preparation cost
  • demolition of unwanted structures
  • Any other outlays incurred to prepare the land for its intended use
109
Q

What does the classification of buildings include?

A

Permanent structures that house persons, or property and fixtures that are permanently attached to and are part of buildings

110
Q

What is included in the cost of buildings (and improvements other than buildings)?

A
  • Purchase price
  • Contract price or job order cost
  • Fees of architects, attorneys, appraisers, and financial advisors
  • Damage payments
  • Cost of attached fixtures
  • Insurance
  • Any other outlays required to prepare, or improve the building for its intend to use
111
Q

What do improvements other than buildings include?

A

Improvements made to enhance land, such as grading, paving, sidewalks, permanent playground equipment, and other outlays required to bring the improvements to their intended use

112
Q

How should works of art and historical treasures be capitalized?

A

They should be capitalized at historical cost to the government or fair value when donated

However, governments are not required to capitalize collections if they are held for a public exhibition, education or research, rather than financial gain; protected, cared for, preserved, and kept unencumbered; and subject to a policy that requires proceeds from sales of collection, items to be used to acquire new items for the collection

113
Q

What are some characteristics of intangible assets?

A
  • it lacks physical substance, such as a right of way easement
  • Is non-financial in nature (not a monetary form, or represents neither a claim nor right to assets in monetary form)
  • has an initial useful life extending beyond a single reporting period
114
Q

What are infrastructure assets?

A

Long lived capital assets that normally are stationary and nature, and could be preserved for significantly greater number of years than most capital assets

Examples include: roads, bridges, tunnels, drainage systems, water and sewer systems, dams, and lighting systems

115
Q

What is construction in progress classification?

A

A temporary capitalization of direct labor and materials, equipment, and incremental overhead cost of a construction project

When the project is completed, these costs are classified to one of the other major asset classes

116
Q

What do additions to assets do?

A

Extend the life or expand the capacity of capital assets

117
Q

What determines which transactions should be capitalized, and which should be treated as maintenance or repairs when it comes to additions and preservation?

A

The governments capitalization policy determines this

118
Q

What is capitalized when the transaction not only restores the asset to its original condition, but also results in it betterment?

A

The excess amount over what is required to restore the assets

119
Q

What does preservation apply to?

A

Applies to infrastructure and applies to costs, incurred to restore infrastructure to its original condition

For example, 10 lane miles of road are constructed. The original 2 Lane Rd. is replaced by a new two lane road.

120
Q

When are preservation costs capitalized? When are they expensed?

A

If the government does not use the modified approach for infrastructure assets then preservation costs are capitalized

If the government uses the modified approach, then the preservation costs are expensed

121
Q

When should an intangible asset be recognized in a statement of net position?

A

Only if it is identifiable

122
Q

What conditions must be met for an intangible asset to be considered identifiable?

A
  1. The asset is separate. It is capable of being separated or divided from the government and sold, transferred, licensed, rented or exchanged, either individually or together with a related contract, lease, asset, or liability
  2. The asset arises from contractual or other legal rights, regardless of whether those rights are transferable, or separate from the entity, or from other rights and obligations
123
Q

Intangible assets are not commonly held for income or profit. What are they considered if they are?

A

They are considered investments

124
Q

Are leases, and Goodwill considered intangible assets?

A

No

125
Q

What are some examples of intangible assets?

A
  • Easements for powerlines
  • Waterlines and sewer lines
  • Right of way
  • copyrights
  • conservation easements
  • water rights
  • Operating licenses for utilities and radio stations
126
Q

When are intangible assets considered internally generated?

A

When they are created or produced by the government, or an entity contracted by the government

Or if they are acquired from a third-party, but require more than minimal incremental effort on the part of the government to begin to achieve their expected level of service capacity

127
Q

Outlays incurred, related to the development of an internally generated intangible asset, should be capitalized, only if what of the following occur?

A
  1. Determination of the specific object of the project, and the nature of the service capacity that is expected to be provided by the intangible asset upon completion of the project.
  2. Demonstration of the technical or technological feasibility for completing the project so that the intangible asset will provide its expected service capacity
  3. Demonstration of the current intention, ability and presence of effort to complete, or, in the case of a multi year project, continue development of the intangible asset.
128
Q

Only outlets incurred, after meeting the above criteria, should be capitalized. Outlet incurred prior to meeting those criteria should be expensed. The criteria is only met if what occurs?

A
  1. The activities in the preliminary project stage are completed.
  2. Management implicitly or explicitly authorizes and commits to funding, at least currently in the case of a multi project, the software project.
129
Q

When is computer software considered internally generated?

A
  • If it is developed by the government’s personnel or by a third-party contractor on behalf of the government
  • commercially available software purchased or licensed by the government and modified using more than minimal incremental effort before being put into operation
130
Q

What stages are involved in developing installing internally generated computer software?

A
  1. Preliminary project stage.
  2. Application development stage.
  3. Post implementation/operation.
131
Q

What are the activities in the preliminary project stage?

A
  • Conceptual formulation and evaluation of alternatives
  • determination of the existence of needed technology
  • Final selection of alternatives for the development of the software
132
Q

What are the activities in the application development stage?

A

-Design of the chosen path, including:
- Software configuration and software interfaces
- Coding
- Installation to hardware
- Testing, including parallel processing phase

133
Q

What activities does the post implementation/operating stage include?

A

Application training, and software maintenance

134
Q

Which stage does data conversion fall into?

A

Data conversion should be considered inactivity of the application development stage, only to the extent that is determined to be necessary to make the computer software operational

Otherwise, data conversions should be considered an activity of the post implementation/operation stage

135
Q

What should be done to outlays associated with activities in the preliminaries project stage?

A

They should be expensed as incurred

136
Q

What should be done to outlays related to activities in the application development stage?

A

They should be capitalized

137
Q

What should be done to outlays associated with activities in the post implementation/operation stage?

A

They should be expensed as incurred

138
Q

Outlays associated with an internally generated modification of computer software already in operation should be capitalized if the modification results in what?

A
  • An increase in the functionality of the computer software
  • An increase in the efficiency of the computer software
  • An extension of the useful life of the software
139
Q

What should the useful life of an intangible asset arising from contractual or other legal rights not exceed?

A

they should not exceed the period to which the service capacity of the asset is limited by contractual, or legal, provisions

Renewal periods related to such rights may be considered in determining the useful life of the intangible asset. If there is evidence, the government will seek and be able to achieve renewal, and that anticipated outlets to be incurred, as part of achieving the renewal, or no, in relation to the level of service capacity, expected to be obtained through the renewal

140
Q

When should an intangible asset be considered to have an indefinite useful life?

A

If there are no legal, contractual, regulatory, technological, or other factors, that limit the useful life of the asset

A permanent right of way easement is an example of an intangible asset that should be considered to have an indefinite useful life

141
Q

How should outlay associated with intangible assets be reported when incurred in financial statements, prepared using the current financial resources measurement focus?

A

As an expenditure

142
Q

When is the capital asset considered impaired?

A

When it service utility has declined significantly and unexpectedly

An example of this is a building, destroyed by fire, tornado damage, or hurricane, environmental and technical factors, or a change in the manner or use of a capital asset, such as closing of a building by a school board

143
Q

How should impaired capital assets that will no longer be used to be reported?

A

At the lower of carrying value or fair market value

144
Q

What are the methods for measuring impairment?

A
  1. Restoration cost approach.
  2. Service units approach.
  3. Deflated depreciated replacement cost approach.
145
Q

What is done for impairment under the restoration cost approach?

A

The amount of the impairment is derived from the estimated cost to restore the utility of the capital asset. The estimated restoration cost can be converted to historical cost, either by restating the estimated restoration cost using an appropriate cost index or by applying a ratio of estimated restoration cost over estimated replacement cost to the carrying amount of the asset.

146
Q

What does the service unit approach do?

A

It isolates the historical cost of the capital asset that cannot be used due to the impairment event or changes in circumstances. The amount of the impairment is determined by evaluating the service provided by the asset before and after the event or change in circumstances.

147
Q

What does the deflated depreciated replacement cost approach do?

A

It replicates the historical cost of the service produced. The current cost for an asset to replace the current level of service is estimated. This estimated current cost is depreciated to reflect the fact that the capital asset is not new, and, then, is deflated to convert it to historical cost dollars.

148
Q

How should impairment of assets with physical damage generally be measured?

A

They should generally be measured using a restoration cost approach

149
Q

When should the service units approach be used?

A

For impairments from environmental or technological factors or obsolescence

150
Q

How are changes in Manor or duration of use generally measured?

A

Using either the deflated depreciated replacement, cost approach or the service units approach

These approaches will identify the portion of cost that is to be written off

151
Q

What should be done to descriptions and amounts that are not apparent from the phase of the financial statements?

A

They should be disclosed in the notes

152
Q

What should any insurance recovery associated with the asset be netted with?

A

The impairment loss

153
Q

How should restoration or replacement of the asset using insurance recoveries be reported?

A

It should be reported as a separate transaction

Disclosure of insurance recoveries is required, if it is not apparent from the face of the financial statements

154
Q

What disclosures are required for capital assets?

A
  • capitalization policies for capital assets should be disclosed in the summary of significant accounting policies
  • Schedule changes in capital assets should be disclosed
  • depreciable and non-depreciable capital assets should be presented separately
  • Information about major classes of assets should be included
155
Q

How are governmental and business type activities, governmental and propriety funds, and certain resource inflows that are not earned recorded?

A

As advances

156
Q

The grantor agency provides funding to a government prior to the start of the grant period. How would the transaction to record advanced grant revenue received be recorded?

A

DR cash
CR: advances— grants

157
Q

Governmental funds report revenues that are not available. For example, a property taxpayer has not made payment by the end of the fiscal year. How would the government initially record property taxes as?

A

DR: accounts receivable
CR: revenue— property taxes

158
Q

If the availability period for revenue is 60 days and payment has not been made within that period. What journal injury would be needed to report property tax revenue that is not available?

A

DR: revenue— property taxes
CR: deferred inflow of resources— property taxes

159
Q

When are resources recognized?

A

In the period of the taxpayer pays the liability

160
Q

When are governments required to disclose the availability period?

A

For governmental revenues

161
Q

Are advances the same as deferred inflows and outflows of resources?

A

No

162
Q

What period do deferred inflows and outflows of resource relate to?

A

The future period not the current period

163
Q

When are deferrals of inflows and outflows recognized?

A

Governments do not recognize referrals, other than when required by those statements

GASB pronouncements

164
Q

What are some deferred outflows of resources that are recognized by GASB?

A
  1. Changes in fair value of hedging derivative instruments.
  2. Resources provided in government mandated non-exchange or voluntary non-exchange transactions before time requirements are met, but after all eligibility requirements are met
  3. Certain changes in net pension liabilities, or assets.
  4. Certain changes in net OPEB liabilities or assets.
  5. Asset retirement obligations.
  6. Certain bond refunding transactions
  7. Government operators relating to a public private or public public partnership.
165
Q

What are some deferred inflows of resources that are recognized by GASB?

A
  1. Changes in fair value of hedging derivative instruments.
  2. Resources received in government mandated non-exchange or voluntary non-exchange transactions before time requirements are met, but after all eligibility requirements are met
  3. Certain changes in net pension liabilities, or assets.
  4. Certain changes in net OPEB liabilities or assets.
  5. A government’s interest in some irrevocable split interest agreements.
  6. Contracts where a government is a lessor.
  7. Certain bond refunding transactions
  8. Transferor governments receiving installment payments, and other payments relating to a public-private or public-public partnership
166
Q

What are compensated absences?

A

Significant long-term liabilities

167
Q

When should a liability for vacation leave and compensated absences with similar characteristics, attribute to service, already rendered be accrued?

A

It should be accrued as employees earn the rights to the benefits, if it is probable that the employer will compensate the employee for the benefits

For example, if an employee is entitled to be paid for all accumulated vacation leave at the time of termination, and it is probable that the employer will compensate the employee for the benefits, a liability for the value of the accrued vacation time should be recognized at the end of the fiscal period.

168
Q

When should compensated absences related to future services, or that are contingent upon a specific event, outside of the control of the employer and the employee be accounted for?

A

In the period those services are rendered or in the period those events take place

For example, an employees use of sickleave is typically outside the control of the employer. Therefore, accumulated sickleave balances that can only be used when an employee is ill, will not result in the employer reporting a liability

169
Q

Employers will often pay for accumulated sickleave upon retirement. How is the liability determined?

A

The employer must first determine how many employees are likely to retire. Then, the employer must determine the hours of sickleave to be compensated. The hours are then multiplied by the employees’ pay rate to determine the liability

170
Q

What do governmental funds report for compensated absences?

A

They report the portion of the liability that will be liquidated by using expendable available financial resources in the appropriate governmental fund. Thus, an employee who has retired on the last day of the fiscal year would be entitled to be paid for accumulated vacation leave as of the retirement date. Although the actual payment may not be made until later in the new fiscal year, the amount would be reported in the fund as a liability.

171
Q

How do you governmental and business type activities and proprietary funds report compensated absences?

A

They report the entire liability for compensated absences as a long-term obligation

172
Q

How is the liability determined when governments allow employees to use vacation leave as soon as they have an available balance?

A

They multiply the accumulated hours times the employees rate of pay, including salary-related benefits

173
Q

If an employee has 10 hours of accumulated balance at the end of the year. The employees pay rate is $10 per hour. Salary related benefits are 15% of the employees rate of pay. What would the liability for this employee be?

A

$10 times 10 hours = $100 (the value of vacation leave)
$100 times 15% = $15 (salary related payments)
$100 plus $15 = $115 (the vacation liability)

174
Q

How is the liability determined if the employer has a policy that leave cannot be used or paid until until the employee has worked six months or one year?

A

The employer would have to estimate the number of employees on the payroll at the end of the year, who are expected to terminate employment before reaching six months or one year of employment. That amount would be subtracted from the total value of the benefit to determine liability that is to be reported.

175
Q

Many employers pay unused sickleave only upon retirement, and may pay at it at a reduced rate, such as one hour of pay for four hours of accumulated leave. How is the liability determined?

A

The employer would be required to estimate the employees who will eventually retire, and the value of their sickleave. The final estimate involves the determination of the liability for employees that will terminate within one year. The amount due within one year is required to be reported separately from the portion considered to be long-term for governmental activities, business activities and proprietary funds

176
Q

What are termination benefits? What did they include?

A

Benefits provided by employers to employees as an inducement to hasten the termination of services, or because of voluntary early termination (voluntary termination benefits) or as a consequence of the involuntary early termination (involuntary termination benefits)

They include early retirement, incentives, severance, benefits, and other termination related benefits

177
Q

Are termination benefits different from salaries and benefits, including post employment benefits?

A

Yes

178
Q

How should the employer determine whether the nature of the benefit arrangement to provide benefits in exchange for the early termination of services (a termination benefit) or to provide benefits in exchange for employee services (a pension benefit)?

A

Professional judgment should be applied considering factors, including:
- The employers intent
- The way in which the employees generally view the benefits
- Whether the benefit is conditioned termination of employment prior to normal retirement age
- The length of time for which the benefits have been made available

179
Q

How should employer measure the cost of healthcare related termination benefits, including healthcare, continuation under COBRA?

A

By calculating the discounted present value of expected future benefit payments that considers the projection of benefits, the healthcare cost trend rate, and the discount rate

180
Q

How should an employer measure the cost of germination benefits that are not healthcare related?

A
  1. If the benefit terms establish an obligation to pay specific amounts on fixed or determinable dates, the cost of non-healthcare related termination benefits should be calculated at the discounted present value of expected future benefit payments, including an assumption regarding changes and future cost levels during the period covered by the employers commitment to provide the benefits
  2. The benefit terms do not establish an obligation to pay specific amounts on a fixed order determinable deeds, the cost of the non-healthcare related benefits should be calculated as either 1) the discounted present value of the expected future benefit payments, including assumption regarding changes and future cost levels during the period covered by the employers commitment to provide the benefits or 2) the undiscounted total of estimated future benefit payments at current cost levels
181
Q

When should an employer recognize a liability and expense for voluntary termination benefits?

A

When the employees accept the offer, and the amounts can be estimated

Measurement of the liability should be updated, and any incremental liability and expense should be recognized at the end of the subsequent reporting periods

182
Q

What does a plan of involuntary termination benefits include?

A
  1. Identifies, at a minimum, the number of employees to be terminated, the job, classifications or functions that will be affected and their locations, and when the terminations are expected to occur.
  2. Establishes the terms of the termination benefits in sufficient detail to enable employees to determine the type and amount of benefits they will receive if they are involuntarily terminated.
183
Q

What does a plan of involuntary termination benefits include?

A
  1. Identifies, at the minimum, the number of employees to be terminated, the job, classifications or functions that will be affected and their locations, and when the terminations are expected to occur.
  2. Establishes the terms of the termination benefits in sufficient detail to enable employees to determine the type and amount of benefits they will receive if they are involuntarily terminated.
184
Q

When should an employer recognize both liability and expense for involuntary termination benefits?

A

When the plan of termination has been approved by those with the authority to commit the employer to the plan, the plan has been communicated to the employees, and the amounts can be estimated

Measurement of the liability should be updated, and any incremental liability and expense should be recognized as of the end of the subsequent reporting periods

185
Q

If a plan of involuntary termination requires the employee to render future service to receive termination benefits, when would all liability and expense for the portion of involuntary termination benefits be recognized?

A

A liability and expense for the portion of involuntary termination benefits that will be provided. Only after completion of future service should be recognized ratably over the future service period 

186
Q

In governmental fund statements (modified, accrual basis, financial statements), when should liabilities and expenditures for termination benefits, be recognized?

A

They should be recognized, if available, financial resources will be used to liquidate the liabilities

187
Q

What note disclosures are required for termination benefits?

A
  • The employer should disclose in the notes, a description of the termination benefit arrangements in the period in which the employer becomes obligated for termination benefits, and in any additional periods in which employees are required to render future services to receive involuntary termination benefits
  • In the period in which they employer becomes obligated for termination benefits, the cost of benefits should be disclosed if that information is not otherwise identifiable from information displayed on the face of the financial statements
  • The employer should disclose the significant methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities in all periods in which determination benefits are reported
  • The employers to disclose if a termination benefit meets the recognition criteria and is not recognized because the expected benefits are not estimable
188
Q

What funds does GAAP allow to account for risk financing activities?

A

The general fund or an internal service fund

189
Q

Why do some governments prefer to use an internal service fund over a general fund for risk financing activities?

A
  • They believe the transaction detail is more flexible if the information is outside the general fund
  • They believe it is easier to analyze the financial condition of the risk financing activities if the transactions are segregated from the general fund
  • Risk financing will probably cover activities or employees in funds other than the general fund
190
Q

The internal service fee may use any basis it considers appropriate to charge other funds of the entity. What conditions must be met?

A
  1. The total charge of the internal service fund to other funds for the period is calculated in accordance with claim recognition principles.
  2. The total charge by the internal service fund to other funds is based on an actuarial method or historical cost information and adjusted over a reasonable period of time so that internal service revenues and expenses are approximately equal.
  3. The total charge by the internal service fund to other funds may also include a reasonable provision for expected future catastrophic losses.
191
Q

An internal service fund may generate surplus is that are reserved for future, catastrophic losses, or errors in estimates for current claims. If the general fund is used, when should claim expenditures and liabilities be recognized?

A

Only to the extent that they are payable with current financial resources

192
Q

An internal service fund may generate surplus is that are reserved for future, catastrophic losses, or errors in estimates for current claims. If the general fund pays for claims for all funds,, when should claim expenditures and liabilities be recognized?

A

The government may use any method. It chooses to allocate expenditures to other funds.

However, if the total amount charged to other funds exceeds the total expenditures, the excess should be reported as transfers

193
Q

Government entities often purchase insurance to cover some portion of losses. The reporting will vary depending on the type of coverage purchased. what general principles apply to this type of risk financing?

A
  1. Report insurance premiums as expenditures/expenses.
  2. Analyze the potential for additional premiums or loss expenditures, and report adjustments or contingencies, as appropriate.
  3. Consider the level of risk transferred to the issuer to determine the disclosure or display, necessary for contingencies associated with additional losses.
194
Q

What does the act of providing or offering insurance coverage create even though services for third-party, may be combined with the entities risk financing activities?

A

A public entity risk pool is often created

195
Q

For entities other than pools, what should happen to estimated recoveries on settled claims?

A

They should be deducted from the liability for unpaid claims

196
Q

If the entity is a predominant participant, where should the activity be reported? Where should it be reported if they are not a predominant participant?

A

In the general fund or an internal service fund

If the entity is not the predominant participant, the fund is a public entity risk pool, and is reported as an enterprise fund

197
Q

How should claim servicing functions report amounts collected from other participants?

A

As a net asset or liability using the accrual basis of accounting

198
Q

What statement are claims servicing revenue, and administrative costs included on?

A

The operating statement

199
Q

What is a pollution remediation obligation?

A

An obligation to address the current, or potential detrimental effects of existing pollution by participating in pollution remediation activities

For example, obligations to clean up spills of hazardous waste or substances, and obligations to remove contamination, such as asbestos, our pollution remediation obligations

200
Q

What do pollution remediation obligations include?

A
  1. Pre-cleanup activities, such as the performance of site, assessment, site investigation, and corrective measures feasibility study, and the design of a remediation plan
  2. Clean up activities, such as neutralization, containment, or removal and disposal of pollutants
  3. External government oversight and enforcement related activities, such as work performed by an environmental regulatory authority, dealing with the site and chargeable to the government.
  4. Operation and maintenance of the remedy, including required monitoring of the remediation effort (post remediation monitoring)
201
Q

What do pollution remediation obligations not include?

A

Pollution, prevention, or control obligations, with respect to current operations, such as obligations to install smoke stack, scrubbers, treat effluent or use environmental friendly products

202
Q

What do pollution remediation outlays include?

A

All direct outlays attributable to pollution remediation activities, and may include estimated direct outlays

203
Q

When are outlays related to natural resource damage included as part of the pollution, remediation effort?

A

Only if incurred as part of the pollution, remediation effort

204
Q

What outlay are not part of performing pollution remediation, and should not be included?

A
  • Fines
  • Penalties
  • Toxic torts
  • Product and process safety outlays
  • Litigation support associated with potential recoveries
  • Outlays borne by society at large rather than a specific government
205
Q

How are outlays for operation and maintenance of remedial action, including post remediation, monitoring, required by a remedial action plan, for pollution remediation?

A

They are part of pollution remediation rather than a separate future service obligation

Post remediation estimates should consider that such outlays are not likely to extend indefinitely

206
Q

What does the framework for recognition and measurement of liabilities incorporate for pollution remediation activities?

A
  • obligating events
  • Recognition benchmarks
  • Measurement
  • Capitalization of pollution, remediation outlays
  • Display
  • Disclosures
207
Q

When a government knows, or reasonably believes, a site is polluted, the government should determine whether one or more components of a pollution remediation obligation are recognizable as a liability when what events occur?

A
  • The government is compelled to take remediation action, because pollution creates an eminent endangerment to public health or welfare of the environment, leaving it little or no discretion to avoid remediation action
  • The government is in violation of a pollution prevention related permit or license
  • The government is named or evidence indicates it will be named by a regulator as a responsible party, or potentially responsible party for remediation, or as a government responsible for sharing costs
  • The government is named, or evidence indicates it will be named, in a lawsuit to compel the government to participate in remediation
  • The government commences, or legally obligates itself to commence, cleanup, activities or monitoring, or operation and maintenance of the remediation effort
208
Q

When should pollution remediation liabilities be recognized?

A

As the ranges of their components become reasonably estimable

209
Q

In some cases, the government may have insufficient information to reasonably estimate the ranges of all components of its liability. What should the government do to recognize pollution remediation liabilities?

A

The government should recognize pollution, remediation liabilities as the range of each component of the liability becomes reasonably estimable

In other cases, a government will be able to reasonably estimate a range of all components if it’s liability early in the process because the site situation is common in, or is similar to, situations at other states, which the government has experience

210
Q

At minimum, the estimates of a pollution remediation liability should be evaluated at what benchmarks?

A
  • receipt of an administrative order
  • Participation in the site assessment or investigation
  • Completion of a corrective measures feasibility study
  • Issuance of an authorization to proceed
  • Remediation design and implementation, and including operation and maintenance, and post remediation monitoring
211
Q

What is an administrative order?

A

A government receives an administrative order compelling it to take a response action at a site or risk penalties.

The ability to estimate outlays resulting from administrative orders, vary with factors, such as site complexity, and the nature and extent of the work to be performed

212
Q

What occurs at the participation in the site assessment, or investigation benchmark??

A

At this stage, the government has been identified as a responsible party, and has agreed to pay all, or part, of a study that will investigate the extent of the environmental impact of the release, or threatened release, of pollutants, and to identify site remediation alternatives.

The total outlays associated with the site assessment or investigation, generally, is estimable within a reasonable range. As as the site investigation proceeds, the governments estimate of its shares, and the site investigation can be refined.

213
Q

When is the corrective measures feasibility study considered substantially complete.?

A

No later than the point, at which the responsible party recommends a proposed course of action to the regulatory authority

All components of the liability should be recognized by this time, even if uncertainties remain

214
Q

What occurs at the issuance of an authorization to proceed?

A

At this point, regulatory authority has issued its determination specifying a preferred remedy. The governments estimate can be refined based based on the specified remedy and a preliminary allocation of the total remediation outlays

215
Q

What does GASB state that a liability arises from?

A

A contractual obligation to pay cash (or other assets that may be used in of cash) in one or more payments to settle an amount that is fixed at the date that the contractual obligation is established

216
Q

What does debt not include?

A

Leases, except for contracts reported as a financed purchase of the underlying asset or accounts payable.

A government should separate information and debt disclosures regarding direct borrowings and direct placements of debt from other debt

217
Q

What are notes?

A
  • Short term of financing instruments
  • Usually one year or less
218
Q

What is are tax anticipation notes?

A

Governments rely on property taxes and may need funds for cash flow purposes. Since property taxes are often only received twice a year, a government may have a cash flow problem.

Therefore, the government would issue a TAN redeemable after the property taxes are received

Notes can also be issued in anticipation of grants or other revenues

219
Q

What is the most common use of notes?

A

The financing of capital projects

220
Q

What is a bond anticipation note?

A

Used to provide cash to undertake a project prior to selling eventual long-term debt

It would not be unusual to issue several notes since some projects require long periods to complete. The government would roll over the note, taking out a new note, and paying off the old one plus interest with part of the proceeds. When the project is near completion or completed, the government would issue a bond

221
Q

What is used to retire bond anticipation notes?

A

From proceeds of a long-term financing source when the bonds are issued

As a result, they have characteristics of long-term obligations their first reported as short term obligations, and then reported as long-term obligations when the legal steps have been taken to refinance the BAN and the ability to consummate the refinancing is demonstrated

222
Q

What are bonds?

A

long-term debt instruments

223
Q

What are some of the legal provisions restricting the length of time for a bond to mature?

A

no longer than the life of the asset being constructed or purchased

224
Q

What are general obligation bonds?

A

The whole faith and credit of the government is available to pay bondholders

Taxes, and most other revenues are essentially pledged to pay dead services

225
Q

What are revenue bonds?

A

Limited obligations

Holders of the bond typically can only rely on the revenue stream generated by the enterprise for the repayment of the debt

226
Q

What are certificates of participation?

A

When a government may not be able to, or desire to issue general obligation debt for the project

The government contacts several financial institutions(bank, and insurance companies) and a pool is formed. Each participant in the pool receives a certificate of participation. The is financed by using the resources in the pool, and the resulting facilities is leased to the government. Each participant receives the share of the service based on the participation in the pool.

227
Q

Why do governments issue refunding bonds?

A

To take advantage of declines in interest rates

For example, in the past the government may have issued bonds with an interest rate of 8% Because of the declines in long-term rates, bonds can now be issued with the rate of 5%. The proceeds of the new issue used to call the 8% bonds with 5% bonds. As a result, the government realizes substantial savings and interest.

228
Q

What can government do if they cannot call the entire order issue because of covenant restrictions?

A

Advance refunding bonds may be issued

The proceeds are placed in escrow to buy other securities. Earnings are used to service the original bonds until the call date is reached.

229
Q

What are the alternatives of selling in a competitive or negotiated sale in the open market?

A

Governments can agree to direct borrowings or direct placements

230
Q

What is the purpose of direct borrowings and direct placements?

A

To, lesson issuance and administrative costs

However, these transactions have been in risk due to cross colorization with more general forms of debt. The financial situation in the commonwealth of Puerto Rico is a prime example of what can happen to a government is instruments are used.

231
Q

What are direct borrow wings?

A

When a government enters into a loan agreement with an investor, typically a mutual fund or hedge fund

232
Q

What are direct placements?

A

When a government issues a debt security directly to an investor, typically a mutual fund or hedge fund

233
Q

What is a lease?

A

A contract that can phase control of the right to use another entities non-financial asset (underlying asset) as specified in the contract for a period of time in an exchange or exchange like transaction

234
Q

What must be done for a contract to be effective?

A

Government must have control of the right to use the underlining asset for the contract to be effective

Evidence of control includes the right to determine the nature and manner of use of the asset in accordance with the contract

235
Q

What are embedded leases?

A

Contracts that fit the definition of a lease, but do not contain the word rent or lease

236
Q

What do GAAP lease provisions not apply to?

A
  • contracts transfer ownership
  • leases of intangible assets
  • Leases of biological assets (trees, plants, timber)
  • Contracts that meet the definition of a service concession arrangement
  • Leases in which the underline asset is financed with outstanding conduit, unless both of the underlying asset of the conduit debt are reported by the lesser
  • Supply contracts, such as power purchase agreements
237
Q

What is short-term lease?

A

A lease at the commencement of lease term has a maximum possible term under the lease contract of 12 months or less including any options to extend. Regardless of the probability of being exercised.

238
Q

What is the max possible term for a lease that is cancelable by either the lessee or the lessor such as a rolling month to month lease or a year to year lease?

A

Noncancelable period including any notice periods

239
Q

How are short-term leases reported?

A

Lessor: receivable, and a deferred inflow of resources, as ownership of the underlying asset remains with the government less or

Lessees: all liability, and a right to use an asset for the discounted present value of the payments is to be made during the lease term.