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TILT > SC SHIAT > Flashcards

SC SHIAT Flashcards

1
Q

In the INAV page, how many satellites need to be in state 05?

A

5

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2
Q

What is an RMU?

A

Removable Memory Unit

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3
Q

The GPS uses satellite information and internal computers to provide:

A
  • date
  • time
  • lat/long
  • altitude
  • velocity
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4
Q

The letter “G” in (ie.) GxIx will be green unless:

A
  • the GPS has failed
  • the data is invalid
  • the GPS solution is degraded
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5
Q

The INSs provide:

A
  • linear and angular accelerations and velocities
  • lat/long
  • position coordinates
  • attitude (pitch, roll, yaw)
  • heading (magnetic and true)
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6
Q

The INSs provide it’s data plus GPS-aided navigation solutions to the:

A
  • mission computers for navigation
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7
Q

The INSs will begin to drift over time if it is not being updated by:

A
  • GPS
  • TACAN
  • FLIR
  • Overfly update
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8
Q

Each INS has a designed drift rate of no more than:

A

0.8 nm/hr

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9
Q

GPS updates the INS every:

A

1 second

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10
Q

When does HYD RES LOW come on?

A

20% low from snapshot taken upon rotors turning

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11
Q

When does HYD X LEAK come on?

A
  • HYD 1/2 : 30/40 cu
  • HYD 3 : 45 cu
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12
Q

When does HYD X FAIL

A
  • HYD 1/2 : 50 cu
  • HYD 3 : 60 cu
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13
Q

When do the TCVs fully open?

A

27deg

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14
Q

When does HYD HEATER ACTIVE post?

A

7deg

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15
Q

What can you NOT do until HYD HEATER ACTIVE clears for 60 seconds?

A
  • FCS check
  • FCS PFBIT
  • Engine start
  • BFWS
  • ARRP
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16
Q

Normal HYD pressure range:

A

4600-5250 psi

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17
Q

HYD 3 UTILITIES and limitations:

A
  • Cargo Winch - Not installed
  • Cargo Ramp/Door - Max ramp loading 1750lbs; Max pallatized load on ramp for ground ops movement 5000lbs; Max speed with ramp open 260KCAS
  • RPU - High speed indexing within 10deg
  • Rotor brake - 20 secs @ 100% Nr; 12 secs @ 40% Nr
  • EAPS - ON <60 KCAS; OFF >70 KCAS
  • Engine Starter - Drops at 57% Ng; Motors ENG to 26% Ng
  • Wheel brakes - Light <60KGS; Hard <20KGS
  • Wing Stow/Lock Pins - 57deg
  • L/G - <46k lbs 720 fpm; >46k lbs 600 fpm; 140/150 KCAS
  • ARRP - 104in; 3mins, <30sec
  • NWS - 70deg deflection; 20secs WOW, Ramped 61-84deg
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18
Q

What is mounted to the HYD 1 pump?

A
  • FCV
  • Starter
  • EAPS
  • FCM
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19
Q

Operation of the remote switching valve provides __________ when the local isolation valve is closed.

A

No. 3 system power to the opposite side swashplate actuators

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20
Q

The remote switching valve provides No. 3 system power to the _________ on the conversion actuator when a single ______ is failed if the pilot selects Nacelle B/U Enable.

A

backup HPDU; HPDU (Hydraulic Power Drive Unit)

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21
Q

What provides pressure to the ECS?

A

SDC (Shaft Driven Compressor)

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22
Q

The SDC provides a low pressurized compressed air at ___ psi for what components?

A

40 psi for:

  • aircraft air conditioning
  • over-pressurization
  • OBOGS/OBIGGS
  • Pneumatic wing de-icing
  • provides airflow for particle scavenging for the avionics cooling system
23
Q

What is the ECU and where is it located?

A

Environmental Control Unit
- located in left aft sponson

24
Q

What does the Emergency Vent Fan do?

A

Supplies ambient air from the left sponson for cockpit and cabin ventilation

25
Q

How many oxygen supply locations are there and where are they?

A

7 :
- 3 in the cockpit
- 4 in the cabin

26
Q

What is the OBOGS and what does it produce?

A

On Board Oxygen Generating System - produces oxygen enriched air for crew breathing

27
Q

What is the OBIGGS and what does it do?

A

On Board Inert Gas Generator - produces nitrogen enriched air for fuel tank inerting

28
Q

An emergency oxygen bottle, located in the _______, provides about _____mins of oxygen for an emergency descent in case of OBOGS failure.

A

cabin overhead near the ramp;
5 minutes

29
Q

Exceeding ______ mins of flight following loss of TAGB oil pressure is not recommended.

A

30 mins

30
Q

The emergency oxygen system is designed to provide approzimately ______ mins of ______% oxygen.

A

5 mins; 100%

31
Q

Stall warning is disabled above _____ nacelle, although the wing can still stall.

A

35 deg

32
Q

For normal stalls at moderate gross weights and deceleration rates of less than 5 knots per second, stall warning is triggered ______ to ______ knots prior to stall break.

A

6 to 9 knots

33
Q

Torque splits greater than ______ % may result in less than 100% AEO power available.

A

10 %

34
Q

What is the ADS comprised of and where does it send data to?

A
  • 3 air data units
  • 4 combined pitot/static tubes

Sends data to to its corresponding FCC.

35
Q

What do the FCCs do with the ADS data?

A

All three FCCs provide the IAS a pressure altitude and correct the IAS signals to CAS.

36
Q

The AFCS interfaces with the PFCS to:

A
  • enhance basic control functions
  • provide improved handling qualities
37
Q

What AFCS functions will be disabled when the AFCS is selected off via the flight control panel button?

A
  • vertical dampening
  • pitch, roll, and yaw attitude stabilization
  • attitude hold when the stick is displaced <0.1 in from the trim reference
  • AFCS trim backdrive functions
  • heading hold
38
Q

What AFCS functions will remain active even when the AFCS is selected off (as long as no pertinent failures are present)?

A
  • SLL functions
  • pitch, roll, and yaw rate dampening
  • turn coordination at airspeeds above 50 KCAS
39
Q

Flight with MGT <831 deg is limited to ______mins.
Flight with MGT >831 deg is limited to ______mins.

A

30 mins
10 mins

40
Q

Service Ceiling = _____ FPM climb capability

A

100 FPM

41
Q

What is the name of the CV22 engine and how much shaft horsepower does it produce?

A

AE 1170C-Liberty turboshaft engine
6150 shaft horsepower

42
Q

What kind of compressor is in the gas generator assembly?

A

14-stage, axial-flow compressor

43
Q

Allowing the engine to attain thermal stability by a ____ min cool down to MGT <____deg minimized the possibility of ______

A

2mins ; <537deg
thermal lockup

44
Q

Thermal lock up is identified by:

A
  • an inability to turn the compressor rotor by hand, or
  • to achieve an Ng increase when cranking the engine
45
Q

Inputs from engine sensors to the engine control system provide:

A
  1. T2 (dual element sensor mounted to the left side of the air inlet housing)
  2. P2 (two air pressure transducers , one mounted on the front of the air inlet housing and one mounted on the rear)
  3. MGT (14 turbine interstage thermocouples mounted on the power turbine case)
  4. Ng (two speed pickups mounted on the top and bottom right side of the accessory drive gearbox)
  5. Np (dual coil speed pickup mounted on the power turbine sump cover)
  6. Qe (two sensors mounted on the torquemeter housing)
  7. Wf (fuel mass flow sensor mounted on the oil conditioning unit)
  8. CVG POS (FPMU)
46
Q

FADEC initiates an Engine shutdown when:

A
  • ECL aft of start
  • Ng/Np overspeed
  • no lightoff detection on engine start
  • stagnated start or flameout on engine start
  • failure to relight on flameout detection
  • failure of second FADEC (dual FADEC incapable) and Ng speed <53%
  • MGT >779deg during a start
47
Q

Each FADEC B has a tempurature switch that will turn off aircraft electrical power to FADEC B when the aircraft is ______ and the case surface temperature exceeds ___deg.

A

WOW ; 80deg

48
Q

_______ provides the aircrew the capability to deactivate FADEC B’s temperature switch

A

FADEC B OVERRIDE switch (to the INTRPT position)

49
Q

The engine ______ provides electrical power to the FADECs when the engine Ng speed is above _____%.

A

PMA
40%

50
Q

Primary functions of the FPMU:

A
  • generate and control the fuel pressure and the fuel delivery rate to the engine fuel nozzles
  • control the CVG actuator
51
Q

The air vent solenoid valve is energized open at ___%Ng and is electrically closed at ~___% Ng.

A

2.5% Ng ;
~25% Ng

52
Q

How many exciters are there, where are they, and how much VAC operating power do they receive (from where)?

A

2 exciters
mounted on top of the air inlet housing
supplied 20-40 VAC from the gearbox mounted PMA

53
Q

IDLE Ng:

A

59-75% Ng

TILT (28 decks)

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