MQF Flashcards
A _______ will cause a red “X” to be displayed behind the indicator for the invalid data, and the numerical data in the text box will remain readable, but the data should be considered inaccurate.
A degraded AIU or
Non-reporting AIU
When no redundancy remains, the affected surface is displayed in ____
Yellow
All of the following are major sections of the engine except
DC Generator
The torque assembly, located on the front of the engine output power, measures engine output power in terms of torque, provides the front of the engine mount, and provides a secondary ______ measurement
Np
Each engine is controlled by a dual-redundant electronic control system. This control system is comprised of ______
FADECs and FPMUs
Allowing the engine to attain thermal stability prior to normal shutdown minimizes the possibility of thermal lockup as well as reducing hot section coking. For these reasons, the normal shut down procedure includes _____ minute cool down to a stable MGT less than ______ degrees C at flight idle or below
2 Minutes
537 degrees C
FADEC in control designation is alternated between the 2 FADECs based upon which FADEC was ______ after the previous power up
In control
If any FADEC fails, certain FCC processed FADEC information will be disabled. Once the FADEC failure is clear or FADEC B override switch is initiated, pressing the ____ will reestablish the normal FADEC processing
PFCS Fail Reset
DUe to engines “gulping” oil at start up, the yellow region of each gauge is deplayed as green for the first _____ minutes of ______ operation to allow engine oil to reach equilibrium
15 minutes
Weight off Wheels
L/R ENG OIL LEVEL LOW: If extended flight is required, consider _____ to conserve oil until approach and landing
Shutting down the effected engine
If FADEC BU POWER OFF (L/R) posts immedietly upon Weight on Wheels, there is a 50 degree C MGT split between the engines, fuel flow indicating any value higher than the other engine, with the FADEC B override switch in NORM, could be indications of a ______
Bleed air leak and
Fractured COANDA tube
when airspeed is greater than_____ KCAS or nacelle angle is less than ______ degree , interim power automatically reverts to armed mode ( indicated a green “INT” annunciator on the MFDs)
60 KCAS
70 degree nacelle
The ECL in start signals the ____ to initiate start logic, which opens the start control valve supplying hydraulic fluid to the starter
FCCs
If a relight is not detected, and Ng drops below _____ %, the FADEC will initiate a controlled engine shutdown
54% Ng
Control of EAPS is provided through the CMS. while in auto mode, EAPS on < ______ kts, off >70kts, if no ice is detected
60
The INTERIM POWER switch allows for selection of interim power up to _____ and ____
117 % Qm
103.8 Nr
The _____ is used to deflect hot exhaust away from the fuselage when the aircraft is on the ground. Exhaust is deflected by the release of engine ____ through the COANDA momentum jet and nozzle tube, which are part of the inboard and outboard cooling panel assemblies, respectively
COANDA Exhaust Deflector System;
bleed air
Failure of either ____ could result in an avionics overheat condition
Exhaust deflector
The _____ provides automatic back-up lubrication to either PRGB in the event of a primary lubrication system failure
Emergency Lube System (ELS)
Emergency lube system activates any time primary lubrication pressure drops below _____ psi and deactivates if pressure fluctuates back to _____ psi or more
30 psi
35 psi
When Nr is ____ or greater, the interconnecting driveshaft’s power the MWGB and the APU is disengaged
84% Nr
The ___ synchronizes the proprotor system
ICDS
When the rotor brake is applied, the ECLs are limited from movement past the ______ position.
Crank
All ______ sensors ( engines and gearboxes) and the ELS are inoperative with a failed DSIU
Debris
In cases where a feathering flapping or rotor load caution or advisory is active, the FFR will be displayed below _____ nacelle. However, if the aircraft enters a regime that drives the AOA )percent to stall warning) gauge into the yellow or red region, the ____ will de-clutter and be replaced by the AOA
35 degrees , FFR
The APU fuel burn rate is approximately 300 pph from the _____ tank
Right
APU EMERG RUN/ENGAGE allows the ECU to override a direct BIT fault except_____.
Turbine overspeed/underspeed
With a FMU 1 or 2 failed , the fuel quantity in the affected feed tank will display ____ lbs and remain green until the fuel llevel uncovers the low level sensor
526
During single engine operation, commanding TPUMP BOOST ON and selecting cross transfer valve to ____ will mitigate the uneven fuel burn to minimize any lateral CG offset
OPEN
Two_____ pumps ( one located at thge inlet of each feed tank ) operates continuously during fuel system operation to transfer fuel from the sponson transfer tanks to the feed tanks. the pumps are automatically controlled by the FMUs and are the primary means of transferring fuel.
Suction lift
Two ____ will also operate during gravity refueling and refuel manifold purge
Sponson boost pumps
The ____ tank is the first tank utilized during the fuel burn sequence
Aft sponson
Fuel is dumped to reduce aircraft gross weight at a rate of approximately _____ lbs per minute.
800
Each VFG contains a separate 420 VA Permanent Magnetic Generator (PMG) winding dedicated to supplying power to ______.
FCC 1 and FCC 2
if an imminent overtilt condition is sensed by the ____, then all three dual hydraulic failure conditions (HYD 1/2 FAIL, HYD 1/3 FAIL, and HYD 2/3 FAIL ) will be posted simultaneously to alert aircrew/ maintainers the swashplate overtilt protection was activated and that all hydraulic systems have been shut down
FCS
The electrical system is monitored by ______.
MCs
The No.1 CFG is driven by ____.
The MWGB
In the case of a CFG failure, the failed generator is disconnected and its bus is cross-tied to the bus of the operating ______.
CFG
In the case of a VFG failure, the environmental bus normally supplied by the failed VFG will be switched to the corresponding _____ bus
CFG
In flight, at 80% charge, the battery provides ______ minutes of emergency power for flight essential equipment in the event of primary total DC power failure.
20 minutes
The battery switch activates the battery relay control unit to provide ______ minutes of battery power when aircraft is on the ground with no other power source providing power to the aircraft.
5 munites
while in-flight, battery power is automatically provided with _____ a time limit upon loss of AC power.
Out
If the essential/battery bus is being powered by the battery, DC ESS BUS ON BATT caution will be displayed. The battery symbol and text on the electrical status layer will be colored yellow. This caution indicated that there is approximately ______ minutes of power remaining for equipment on the essential/battery bus.
20
During a VFG failure, the remaining VFG will supply anti-ice protection only to the ____.
Engine inlets and the spinner afterbodies
Once the ECLs are positioned to START, the No. 3 hydraulic system pressurizes only the ____. At this point ( ECL movement ), the conversion actuators are hydraulically locked.
Swashplate actuators
The _____ will shuttle the additional fluid gained during ground checkout valve actuation by the No.1 and No.2 systems back into the No.3 system
Fluid Compensation Valve
In the automatic mode (AUTO), the flight control system, through the FCCs, positions the flaperons as a function of _____ throughout the flight envelope.
Airspeed
Although manual flap positions can be selected, ______ exists within the flight control software such that the flap will retract as a function of airspeed and mach number. this is to prevent the flaperon control surface from structural load exceedance
Blowdown limiting
When the nacelles are driven by the primary HPDUs, the nacelles cannot be rotated below _____ by the thumb wheel if weight on wheels or if the upper or lower cabin door is open.
45 degrees
The FCC compares the nacelle positions and limits to their angular difference to _____ degrees, stopping the lead actuator until the slower actuator is within limits.
1.5
Pressing the AFCS RESET or either of the two _____ RESET switches will attempt to reset a failed system malfunction.
PFCS
During high power settings, possible proprotor overtorque may occur with excessive _____ stick inputs
Lateral
The ____ nacelle boundry defines the maximum airspeed at a given nacelle angle where flight is allowed
Upper Conversion Protection
In airplane mode flight above ____ KCAS, the upper covnersion protection boundry prevents the nacelles from moving off the downstop
200
Turn coordination is always active in APLN mode. When not int APLN mode, tuurn coordination will remain active until airspeed is below _____ KCAS and yaw rate is less than ____/ sec.
45 KCAS
1.5 degrees
The landing gear system is equipped with a/an ____ emergency extension system to lower the landing gear in the event of and electrical or hydraulic malfunction.
pneumatic
With a dual ADU failure, or invalid calibrated airspeed, the high sink rate warning system will provide a warning when the rate of descent is greater than _____ ft/min and nacelle angle is greater than ____ for all airspeeds.
800 ft/min
65 degree
Which of the following actions will silence the landing gear warning tone?
Pressing the mute switch
lowering Nacelles below 70 degrees
The ____ will remain illuminated after the WFPS is discharged. The _____ will indicate whether a Wing Fire is extinguished or not, however, it must not be used as the Wing Fire indicator if the Wing Interface Unit (WIU) is disabled.
Fire Suppression Panel Light, MFD annunciator
Setting the ECS temperature to max using the CAC knob may cause the ______ WCA to post.
SDC FAIL
Using OBOGS has a greater potential to cause decompression sickness (bends) then using 100% oxygen in un-pressurized aircraft, flight above ______ feet or multiple crossings of _____ feet
18,000/18,000
Electrical malfunctions of the proprotors IPS may manifest thenmselves as sparks, fumes and/or the PRTR IPS FAIL caution position. Such electrical malfunctions _____ cause burning of the external blade surface.
will
The EELS is controlled by the 2-position EMERG EGRESS switch on the overhead LIGHTING control panel. When the switch is in the ARM position, the exit lights will come on if the signal conditioner senses that Nr falls below ______.
20%
Upon takeoff, the low altitude mode is armed when the gear is retracted, nacelles are greater than 70 degrees and the aircraft exceeds 500 ft/min rate of climb. The landing gear warning will be triggered if rate of climb drops below _____ below 240 ft AGL and all three gear are not down and locked.
200 ft/min for 3 seconds
Four cabin escape hatches are provided. _______ hatches on the left side of the cabin, ____ on the right side aft, and _____ in the aft cabin overhead above the cargo ramp.
2,1,1
Above 240 ft AGL, the high altitude mode is armed and low altitude is disarmed. In high altitude mode, the landing gear warning will be triggered when the aircraft descends below ____ ft AGL, nacelles are greater than ___, and all three gear are not down and locked.
200
70 degrees
If no engine oil pressure is indicated after _____ seconds of starter rotation, abort start and investigate cause.
30 seconds
When operation for more than _____ minutes below 72% Nr is required, bring Nr above 72% for at least 2 minutes prior to additional operation below 72% Nr, and after low speed operation is complete prior to shutdown.
5 minutes
Do not operate engine above ground idle power with the engine oil temp at less than ____. If operational necessity exists, full power is available; however, a loss of bearing life will result.
20 degrees C
VMS should prevent the second engine start until ____ Nr is reached with WOW.
75%
Beep nacelles forward ( no lower than _____) to initiate ground taxi.
75 degrees
Power steering is lost if the nosewheel is outside the +/- _____ deflection limit
75 degree
Maneuvering during VTOL flight with relative winds greater than ____ knots may lead to pitch-up with side slip
20 knots
Placing the aircraft in a direct crosswind condition either by sideward flight or hovering with aircraft not into the prevailing wind may increase the power required to hover by up to ______.
20%
An accurate PAC requires that the engine achieve thermal stability before conducting a PAC. Operate engines a minimum of _____ minutes at MGT > 648 degrees C before conducting PAC.
5
While IMC, nacelle angle movement is not recommended in turned or on glidescope. If nacelle angle changes are required, _____ rate changes are recommended.
low
ILS operations at ____ Nr should be avoided due to disruptions of signal reception
84%
During landing gear extension, it is possible for hydraulic pressure spikes to momentarily react the NGL downlocks while the landing gear control logic is running. Pilot shall allow _____ seconds for landing gear control logic to run after the landing gear handle is selected down.
40
Conducting BFWS operations above _____ kts (including gusts) may damage the Blade Fold Planetary Assembly.
45
Min Power Required/Max Climb airspeed in airplane mode is 80% stall and _____.
140 KCAS
If the risk of a second engine failure is judged to be high, maintain at least ______ KCAS at 84% Nr to allow a smooth transition to the dual engine failure glide profile.
170
If (after engine failure) an engine restart is anticipated, crank engine within ______ of shutdown to reduce the possibility of Ng thermal lock-up.
1 minute
Damage to starter, starter shaft, and/or engine accessory drive gearbox may occur if a start attempt is made with Ng > _____.
29%
With a Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles < 60degrees, at _____ KCAS, expect 3800 to 4000 fpm descent, 4 degrees nose low, and 4.5:1 glide ratio.
170
To prevent PRGB input quill hard clutch engagements ECLs shall not be advanced from START to FLY faster than ____ seconds
3 seconds
Single Engine Failure Profile for CONV mode is defined as ____.
Flaps- AUTO
60 degree nacelle
80-90 KCAS
Quickly coverting to ____ nacelle / _____ KCAS will allow sideslip and assist in opening the pilot/copilot side vent windows to clear smoke from the cockpit.
75 degree/ 90 KCAS
