MQF Flashcards
1
Q
A _______ will cause a red “X” to be displayed behind the indicator for the invalid data, and the numerical data in the text box will remain readable, but the data should be considered inaccurate.
A
A degraded AIU or
Non-reporting AIU
2
Q
When no redundancy remains, the affected surface is displayed in ____
A
Yellow
3
Q
All of the following are major sections of the engine except
A
DC Generator
4
Q
The torque assembly, located on the front of the engine output power, measures engine output power in terms of torque, provides the front of the engine mount, and provides a secondary ______ measurement
A
Np
5
Q
Each engine is controlled by a dual-redundant electronic control system. This control system is comprised of ______
A
FADECs and FPMUs
6
Q
Allowing the engine to attain thermal stability prior to normal shutdown minimizes the possibility of thermal lockup as well as reducing hot section coking. For these reasons, the normal shut down procedure includes _____ minute cool down to a stable MGT less than ______ degrees C at flight idle or below
A
2 Minutes
537 degrees C
7
Q
FADEC in control designation is alternated between the 2 FADECs based upon which FADEC was ______ after the previous power up
A
In control
8
Q
If any FADEC fails, certain FCC processed FADEC information will be disabled. Once the FADEC failure is clear or FADEC B override switch is initiated, pressing the ____ will reestablish the normal FADEC processing
A
PFCS Fail Reset
9
Q
DUe to engines “gulping” oil at start up, the yellow region of each gauge is deplayed as green for the first _____ minutes of ______ operation to allow engine oil to reach equilibrium
A
15 minutes
Weight off Wheels
10
Q
L/R ENG OIL LEVEL LOW: If extended flight is required, consider _____ to conserve oil until approach and landing
A
Shutting down the effected engine
11
Q
If FADEC BU POWER OFF (L/R) posts immedietly upon Weight on Wheels, there is a 50 degree C MGT split between the engines, fuel flow indicating any value higher than the other engine, with the FADEC B override switch in NORM, could be indications of a ______
A
Bleed air leak and
Fractured COANDA tube
12
Q
when airspeed is greater than_____ KCAS or nacelle angle is less than ______ degree , interim power automatically reverts to armed mode ( indicated a green “INT” annunciator on the MFDs)
A
60 KCAS
70 degree nacelle
13
Q
The ECL in start signals the ____ to initiate start logic, which opens the start control valve supplying hydraulic fluid to the starter
A
FCCs
14
Q
If a relight is not detected, and Ng drops below _____ %, the FADEC will initiate a controlled engine shutdown
A
54% Ng
15
Q
Control of EAPS is provided through the CMS. while in auto mode, EAPS on < ______ kts, off >70kts, if no ice is detected
A
60
16
Q
The INTERIM POWER switch allows for selection of interim power up to _____ and ____
A
117 % Qm
103.8 Nr
17
Q
The _____ is used to deflect hot exhaust away from the fuselage when the aircraft is on the ground. Exhaust is deflected by the release of engine ____ through the COANDA momentum jet and nozzle tube, which are part of the inboard and outboard cooling panel assemblies, respectively
A
COANDA Exhaust Deflector System;
bleed air
18
Q
Failure of either ____ could result in an avionics overheat condition
A
Exhaust deflector
19
Q
The _____ provides automatic back-up lubrication to either PRGB in the event of a primary lubrication system failure
A
Emergency Lube System (ELS)
20
Q
Emergency lube system activates any time primary lubrication pressure drops below _____ psi and deactivates if pressure fluctuates back to _____ psi or more
A
30 psi
35 psi
21
Q
When Nr is ____ or greater, the interconnecting driveshaft’s power the MWGB and the APU is disengaged
A
84% Nr
22
Q
The ___ synchronizes the proprotor system
A
ICDS
23
Q
When the rotor brake is applied, the ECLs are limited from movement past the ______ position.
A
Crank
24
Q
All ______ sensors ( engines and gearboxes) and the ELS are inoperative with a failed DSIU
A
Debris
25
In cases where a feathering flapping or rotor load caution or advisory is active, the FFR will be displayed below _____ nacelle. However, if the aircraft enters a regime that drives the AOA )percent to stall warning) gauge into the yellow or red region, the ____ will de-clutter and be replaced by the AOA
35 degrees , FFR
26
The APU fuel burn rate is approximately 300 pph from the _____ tank
Right
27
APU EMERG RUN/ENGAGE allows the ECU to override a direct BIT fault except_____.
Turbine overspeed/underspeed
28
With a FMU 1 or 2 failed , the fuel quantity in the affected feed tank will display ____ lbs and remain green until the fuel llevel uncovers the low level sensor
526
29
During single engine operation, commanding TPUMP BOOST ON and selecting cross transfer valve to ____ will mitigate the uneven fuel burn to minimize any lateral CG offset
OPEN
30
Two_____ pumps ( one located at thge inlet of each feed tank ) operates continuously during fuel system operation to transfer fuel from the sponson transfer tanks to the feed tanks. the pumps are automatically controlled by the FMUs and are the primary means of transferring fuel.
Suction lift
31
Two ____ will also operate during gravity refueling and refuel manifold purge
Sponson boost pumps
32
The ____ tank is the first tank utilized during the fuel burn sequence
Aft sponson
33
Fuel is dumped to reduce aircraft gross weight at a rate of approximately _____ lbs per minute.
800
34
Each VFG contains a separate 420 VA Permanent Magnetic Generator (PMG) winding dedicated to supplying power to ______.
FCC 1 and FCC 2
35
if an imminent overtilt condition is sensed by the ____, then all three dual hydraulic failure conditions (HYD 1/2 FAIL, HYD 1/3 FAIL, and HYD 2/3 FAIL ) will be posted simultaneously to alert aircrew/ maintainers the swashplate overtilt protection was activated and that all hydraulic systems have been shut down
FCS
36
The electrical system is monitored by ______.
MCs
37
The No.1 CFG is driven by ____.
The MWGB
38
In the case of a CFG failure, the failed generator is disconnected and its bus is cross-tied to the bus of the operating ______.
CFG
39
In the case of a VFG failure, the environmental bus normally supplied by the failed VFG will be switched to the corresponding _____ bus
CFG
40
In flight, at 80% charge, the battery provides ______ minutes of emergency power for flight essential equipment in the event of primary total DC power failure.
20 minutes
41
The battery switch activates the battery relay control unit to provide ______ minutes of battery power when aircraft is on the ground with no other power source providing power to the aircraft.
5 munites
42
while in-flight, battery power is automatically provided with _____ a time limit upon loss of AC power.
Out
43
If the essential/battery bus is being powered by the battery, DC ESS BUS ON BATT caution will be displayed. The battery symbol and text on the electrical status layer will be colored yellow. This caution indicated that there is approximately ______ minutes of power remaining for equipment on the essential/battery bus.
20
44
During a VFG failure, the remaining VFG will supply anti-ice protection only to the ____.
Engine inlets and the spinner afterbodies
45
Once the ECLs are positioned to START, the No. 3 hydraulic system pressurizes only the ____. At this point ( ECL movement ), the conversion actuators are hydraulically locked.
Swashplate actuators
46
The _____ will shuttle the additional fluid gained during ground checkout valve actuation by the No.1 and No.2 systems back into the No.3 system
Fluid Compensation Valve
47
In the automatic mode (AUTO), the flight control system, through the FCCs, positions the flaperons as a function of _____ throughout the flight envelope.
Airspeed
48
Although manual flap positions can be selected, ______ exists within the flight control software such that the flap will retract as a function of airspeed and mach number. this is to prevent the flaperon control surface from structural load exceedance
Blowdown limiting
49
When the nacelles are driven by the primary HPDUs, the nacelles cannot be rotated below _____ by the thumb wheel if weight on wheels or if the upper or lower cabin door is open.
45 degrees
50
The FCC compares the nacelle positions and limits to their angular difference to _____ degrees, stopping the lead actuator until the slower actuator is within limits.
1.5
51
Pressing the AFCS RESET or either of the two _____ RESET switches will attempt to reset a failed system malfunction.
PFCS
52
During high power settings, possible proprotor overtorque may occur with excessive _____ stick inputs
Lateral
53
The ____ nacelle boundry defines the maximum airspeed at a given nacelle angle where flight is allowed
Upper Conversion Protection
54
In airplane mode flight above ____ KCAS, the upper covnersion protection boundry prevents the nacelles from moving off the downstop
200
55
Turn coordination is always active in APLN mode. When not int APLN mode, tuurn coordination will remain active until airspeed is below _____ KCAS and yaw rate is less than ____/ sec.
45 KCAS
1.5 degrees
56
The landing gear system is equipped with a/an ____ emergency extension system to lower the landing gear in the event of and electrical or hydraulic malfunction.
pneumatic
57
With a dual ADU failure, or invalid calibrated airspeed, the high sink rate warning system will provide a warning when the rate of descent is greater than _____ ft/min and nacelle angle is greater than ____ for all airspeeds.
800 ft/min
65 degree
58
Which of the following actions will silence the landing gear warning tone?
Pressing the mute switch
lowering Nacelles below 70 degrees
59
The ____ will remain illuminated after the WFPS is discharged. The _____ will indicate whether a Wing Fire is extinguished or not, however, it must not be used as the Wing Fire indicator if the Wing Interface Unit (WIU) is disabled.
Fire Suppression Panel Light, MFD annunciator
60
Setting the ECS temperature to max using the CAC knob may cause the ______ WCA to post.
SDC FAIL
61
Using OBOGS has a greater potential to cause decompression sickness (bends) then using 100% oxygen in un-pressurized aircraft, flight above ______ feet or multiple crossings of _____ feet
18,000/18,000
62
Electrical malfunctions of the proprotors IPS may manifest thenmselves as sparks, fumes and/or the PRTR IPS FAIL caution position. Such electrical malfunctions _____ cause burning of the external blade surface.
will
63
The EELS is controlled by the 2-position EMERG EGRESS switch on the overhead LIGHTING control panel. When the switch is in the ARM position, the exit lights will come on if the signal conditioner senses that Nr falls below ______.
20%
64
Upon takeoff, the low altitude mode is armed when the gear is retracted, nacelles are greater than 70 degrees and the aircraft exceeds 500 ft/min rate of climb. The landing gear warning will be triggered if rate of climb drops below _____ below 240 ft AGL and all three gear are not down and locked.
200 ft/min for 3 seconds
65
Four cabin escape hatches are provided. _______ hatches on the left side of the cabin, ____ on the right side aft, and _____ in the aft cabin overhead above the cargo ramp.
2,1,1
66
Above 240 ft AGL, the high altitude mode is armed and low altitude is disarmed. In high altitude mode, the landing gear warning will be triggered when the aircraft descends below ____ ft AGL, nacelles are greater than ___, and all three gear are not down and locked.
200
70 degrees
67
If no engine oil pressure is indicated after _____ seconds of starter rotation, abort start and investigate cause.
30 seconds
68
When operation for more than _____ minutes below 72% Nr is required, bring Nr above 72% for at least 2 minutes prior to additional operation below 72% Nr, and after low speed operation is complete prior to shutdown.
5 minutes
69
Do not operate engine above ground idle power with the engine oil temp at less than ____. If operational necessity exists, full power is available; however, a loss of bearing life will result.
20 degrees C
70
VMS should prevent the second engine start until ____ Nr is reached with WOW.
75%
71
Beep nacelles forward ( no lower than _____) to initiate ground taxi.
75 degrees
72
Power steering is lost if the nosewheel is outside the +/- _____ deflection limit
75 degree
73
Maneuvering during VTOL flight with relative winds greater than ____ knots may lead to pitch-up with side slip
20 knots
74
Placing the aircraft in a direct crosswind condition either by sideward flight or hovering with aircraft not into the prevailing wind may increase the power required to hover by up to ______.
20%
75
An accurate PAC requires that the engine achieve thermal stability before conducting a PAC. Operate engines a minimum of _____ minutes at MGT > 648 degrees C before conducting PAC.
5
76
While IMC, nacelle angle movement is not recommended in turned or on glidescope. If nacelle angle changes are required, _____ rate changes are recommended.
low
77
ILS operations at ____ Nr should be avoided due to disruptions of signal reception
84%
78
During landing gear extension, it is possible for hydraulic pressure spikes to momentarily react the NGL downlocks while the landing gear control logic is running. Pilot shall allow _____ seconds for landing gear control logic to run after the landing gear handle is selected down.
40
79
Conducting BFWS operations above _____ kts (including gusts) may damage the Blade Fold Planetary Assembly.
45
80
Min Power Required/Max Climb airspeed in airplane mode is 80% stall and _____.
140 KCAS
81
If the risk of a second engine failure is judged to be high, maintain at least ______ KCAS at 84% Nr to allow a smooth transition to the dual engine failure glide profile.
170
82
If (after engine failure) an engine restart is anticipated, crank engine within ______ of shutdown to reduce the possibility of Ng thermal lock-up.
1 minute
83
Damage to starter, starter shaft, and/or engine accessory drive gearbox may occur if a start attempt is made with Ng > _____.
29%
84
With a Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles < 60degrees, at _____ KCAS, expect 3800 to 4000 fpm descent, 4 degrees nose low, and 4.5:1 glide ratio.
170
85
To prevent PRGB input quill hard clutch engagements ECLs shall not be advanced from START to FLY faster than ____ seconds
3 seconds
86
Single Engine Failure Profile for CONV mode is defined as ____.
Flaps- AUTO
60 degree nacelle
80-90 KCAS
87
Quickly coverting to ____ nacelle / _____ KCAS will allow sideslip and assist in opening the pilot/copilot side vent windows to clear smoke from the cockpit.
75 degree/ 90 KCAS
88
Torque splits greater than _____ may result in less than100% all engines operation power available.
10%
89
Operations between _____ and _____ degrees nacelle may result in destructive heat buildup in the elastromeric bearing.
10/75 degrees
90
Attempt not to exceed _____ seconds in CONV/VTOL (100% Nr), and use inimum TLC required for flight/landing. Minimize TLC and directional control inputs and use of interim power in VTOL or CONV
90
91
30 minutes of PRGB operation with only ELS lubrication is predicated on minimum engine torque on the affected side (up to ____ in APLN and ____ in VTOL/CONV).
29% / 62%
92
A non-resettable PFCS FAIL/RESET caution is one which: ____.
Retuns immediately after a reset is attempted
Occurs 3 or more times during a single flight.
93
During Critical Conversion Actuator Fault, B/U HPDUs can provide the normal maximum conversion rate of 8 degrees per second during 1 g flight. Expect ______ nacelle conversion rate in maneuvering flight using B/U HPDUs.
reduced
94
With ADS 1/2 oe 1/3 or 2/3 FAIL, interim power is still available, but is solely dependent on nacelle angle. At airspeeds greater than _____ KCAS potential for design limit load exceedance exists if interim power remains engaged.
60
95
The emergency oxygen system is designed to provide approximately _____ minutes of 100% oxygen for crew of 4. If more than 4 aircrew members are on the oxygen system, as little as approximately _____ minutes of emergency oxygen available.
3; 1.5
96
If landing gear must be lowered using the landing gear emergency down switch, allow _____ seconds for extension
20
97
In the event of a loss of oil pressure on the MWGB, the _____ may fail within minutes
No. 1 CFG
98
For L/R NAC BLOWER FAIL caution, CONV/VTOL mode operations should not exceed _____ minutes starting from the time that the nacelles first come off the downstops
3
99
If both environmental buses are failed and mission auxiliary tanks are empty or not installed; available fuel in feed tanks will supply engines for no more than _____ minutes leading to engine fuel starvation and subsequent dual engine flameout
15
100
During an ELEVATOR FAIL, pitch authority is reduced in VTOL and CONV. Expect strong power-to-pitch coupling. Avoid descent with very low power setting (below _____ engine torque).
30
101
Upon annunciation of FEED TANK LOW, approximately _____ minutes of flight time remains before the associated feed tank reaches ______ lbs. Going below this level may result in an engine flame out.
9; 300
102
When landing with a fluid leak, a ______ landing avoid the use of aft nacelle is recommended to minimize ingestion of fluid into engines and wheel brakes.
run-on
103
If a FUEL TRAPPED Caution posts, the FUEL STAT layer will indicate the last known fuel quantity in the _____ tank. The total USABLE FUEL quantity will decrease by the amount of fuel trapped.
Red
104
Engine oil levels should be verified upon shutdown by checking the GRDP. If the service light is illuminated, engine oil servicing should occur within _____ minutes of engine shutdown.
30
105
Wait 15 seconds before each attempted APU restart. If APU fails to start after _____ attempts, APU starter motor shall be allowed to cool for _____ minutes before attempted restart.
3; 55
106
Delay takeoff until gearbox oil temperatures reach ____.
20 degrees C
107
The searchlights shall not be motorized to/from the extended position above _____ KCAS.
200
108
APLN mode: flight at 84% Nr is limited to ____ KCAS or _____ Mach; whichever is less.
280; 0.48
109
For flight at 84% Nr, altitude is limited to ____.
25,000 ft DA
110
Flight at 100% Nr is limited to _____ KCAS or 0.46 Mach; whichever is less.
220
111
Hard braking above ____ KGS may cause structural damage to the carbon brake disks resulting in loss of braking in the affected wheel braking or binding in the brake causing skidding in the affected wheel brake.
20
112
Maximum airspeed for extension/retraction of the landing gear is _____ KCAS.
140
113
Max airspeed for the operation with landing gear extended is ____ KCAS.
150
114
Maximum speed with the ramp open is ____ KCAS
260
115
Maximum ramp loading is _____lbs. Movement of loaded ramp in flight is prohibited.
1750lbs
116
Maximum touchdown rate for gross weight > 46,000 lbs is ____fpm.
600
117
Maximum touchdown rate for gross weight
720
118
Maximum out of trim condition for maneuvering is _____ ball out.
one
119
In a hover, max turn rate is ______/second.
30 degrees
120
Ground engine startup/shutdown with winds in excess of _____ knots is prohibited.
45
121
VTOL max gross weight is ____ lbs.
52,600
122
STOL max gross weight is ____ lbs.
60,500
123
Flying under conditions of severe turbulence should be avoided. if severe turbulence is encountered or anticipated, max airspeed is limited to ____ KCAS and Mast Torque is limited at 100% Nr ____ Qm and 84% Nr _____ Qm.
220:
124
LVA approches shall be planned to limit operations below ____ feet AGL and ____ KGS to _____ seconds or less
50 ft; 15 KGS/ 35 seconds
125
VSLED and the right and left Proprotor Normal/ Nacelle Blower vibration sensors ____ be operational for all flights.
must
126
All thru-flight checklist items are indicated by a/an ____ and must be accomplished during an intermediate stop.
Astrisk
127
_____ steps will be accomplished at the conclusion of extended loiter operations.
Italicized
128
The GPS Figure of merit (FOM) is located in the upper-left corner off the VSD, PFD, and HVR display as the letter 'G' followed by a number (FOM value). The FOM values range from ____ (best) to _____ (worst) and each number corresponds to a range of Estimated Horizontal Error (EHE).
1;9
129
If the GPS has failed, the data is invalid, or the GPS solution is degraded, the letter "G" will be ____.
yellow
130
____ refers to the pitch-up tendency of the aircraft when the empennage and horizontal tail are directly downwind of a proprotor.
Pitch-up with sideslip
131
Stall warning is disabled above _____ degrees nacelle, although the wing can still stall
35
132
If the engine has had multiple cranks and has not been run to power settings above ground idle, do not service engine oil until the engine has run with the ECL in FLY with Nr greater than 75% for at least _____ munites.
10
133
Elevator authority (or deflection limit) is reduced during high-speed dives. Recovery may need to be initiated up to _____ ft prior to desired altitude.
2,000
134
The Fuel Dump operation will be automatically terminated approximately ______ seconds after indicated USABLE FUEL reaches approximately _____lbs.
60 seconds
1700lbs
135
DRIVETRAIN, DEGRADED, IN FLIGHT. In severe HCE events, the TM shaft may deform or shear. Shear of the TM shaft will result in engine over-speed and shutdown as commanded by the ____.
FADEC
136
L/R TAGB PRESS LOST. The specification for the TAGB requires _____ minutes of AEO operation without oil pressure. Failure of the TAGB may occur without secondary indications and could lead to damage to a variety of critical components after ____ minutes AEO operation without oil pressure.
30 minutes
137
The performance data assumes the anti-ice/deice systems are ______.
deactivated
138
Ice that forms on the engine inlets, cockpit side windows, or underside of the wing is indicative of _____icing.
severe
139
Recommended icing entry and operating airspeed is _____ KCAS.
200
140
If OAT is below +4 degrees C and a MIPC has failed, engine anti-ice will turn on even if previously set to OFF. This may reduce the available engine torque by _____. If additional torque is needed, pilots can manually select anti-ice to OFF.
5% to 10%
141
Making turns below ______ KCAS will require pedal input as AFCS will attempt to maintain heading and could lead to uncoordinated flight, pitch-up with sideslip, and rapid loss of vertical control.
50
142
For normal rolling takeoff initiate rotation as recommended airspeed by smoothly applying aft longitudinal stick to capture 10 degree pitch attitude in ~ ______ seconds.
2
143
Landing performance is based upon applying moderate brake pressure at or below _____Kts ground speed, periodically completely releasing and reapp;ying moderate brake pressure (pump the brakes) every 3-5 seconds.
60
144
during landing, select nose wheel steering on below ______ kts ground speed at pilot discretion.
40
145
Landing performance is based upon gradually applying hard brake pressure from _____ kts ground speed until aircraft comes to a complete stop.
20
146
The non-flying pilot will make which of the following advisory calls to the flying pilot as follows during descent.
-Transition level
-one thousand feet above assigned altitude
-one thousand feet above initial approach fix or holding altitude
ALL OF THE ABOVE
147
which of the following advisory calls will be made by the non-flying pilot to the flying pilot during non-precision approaches?
-one hundred feet above procedure turn altitude and final approach fix altitude
-"minimums" at MDA
"runway in sight" called when sufficient visual reference with the runway environment is established and the aircraft is in a safe position to land
ALL OF THE ABOVE
148
Continue is called at _____ if only the approach light is in sight and a determination cannot yet be made that the aircraft is in a position for a safe landing.
DH/DA
149
Any crewmember observing unannounced heading deviations greater than _____, airspeed deviations of _____ knots, altitude deviations of _____ feet during approach or 300 feet while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems will immediately advise the pilot flying.
10,10,100
150
in the NAS do not exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) below 10,000 ft MSL. exception: MAJCOMs may approve operation exceeding this speed below 10,000 ft. MSL in certain cases.
250
151
FDP for tactical events is ____ hours. The PIC may extend crew duty day by up to _____ hours for tactical events for a maximum of _____ hours.
12, 2,14
152
NAS VFR cloud clearance minimums for class C and Class D airspace are _____.
500ft below, 1,000 ft above , and 2,000 ft horizontal
153
int the NAS and PIC will not allow their aircraft exceed ____ KIAS at or below 2,500 ft AGL within _____ NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized or required by ATC or required by the aircraft T.O.
200; 4
154
In the NAS, the PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____knots in the airspace underlying Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area.
200
155
Attitude mode (FCS ATT) provides increased bank angle stability in heading hold conditions ______ KCAS.
Less than 45-50
156
In the absence of more restrictive criteria the following minimum weather criteria (ceiling/visibility) applying during Night (Unaided) operations: ______.
1500/ 3 SM
157
Comply with AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3, _____ weather minimums and procedures unless local or theater specific weather minimums are more restrictive.
Helicopter
158
When it is necessary to protect the crew and aircraft from a situation not covered by this manual, the _____ has ultimate authority and responsibility for the course of action taken.
Pilot in Command
159
VSLED and the right and left ____vibration sensors must be operational for all flights.
Proprotor Normal/ Nacelle Blower
160
The aircraft should not be flown with more than one ____ failure as this would remove any redundancy in the aircraft attitude indicating system and flight control system.
Inertial Navigation System (INS)
161
The wing feed tanks are _____ self-sealing.
100%
162
Do not exceed the maximum slope angle of ____ degrees
9
163
The fuel tanks are of a flexible-type construction and are designed to provide self-sealing protection against _____ AP ballistic impacts.
.50 cal
164
A ____lb capacity, variable speed (0 to _____+ FPM) electric rescue hoist is mounted in the aircraft tail empennage structure above the aft cargo ramp door.
600; 250
165
JASS performance data sent to the RADAR will default to ___ fixed climb capability during single engine failure situations. actual aircraft performance capability may be lower, resulting in OBST/LO ALT warnings or impact with obstacles if TF cues are followed.
4 degrees
166
If a failure in the fuel system causes the ___ sponson fuel to become trapped,no flight operations should be attempted which involve employment of cargo or troops from the ramp.
aft
167
Cargo roller rail strength is _____lbs per linear foot with the cargo on both left and right rails.
1,000
168
Max airspeed for hoist operations is ____ KCAS.
60
169
EMCOM Emissions Option _____ is the desired standard for TAAR.
2
170
Which of the following radio calls is permitted during EMCOM 2 TAAR operations?
"Breakaway"
171
Maximum closure speed for contact on a tanker drogue is ____ KCAS
5
172
The minimum visibility for a visual RV is ____.
3 NM
173
A _____ join-up is when the primary tankers establish spacing, prior to the ARIP, between themselves that is equal to the briefed spacing between receiver elements.
Method 2
174
The only RV in which the reciever maneuvers the aircraft to affect the RV and join-up: ______RV.
ECHO
175
In VTOL/CONV formation flight, minimum seperation is _____ cockpit-to-cockpit and ____or step-up.
250ft; 25ft
176
In formation, avoid the _____ side of lead aircraft for takeoffs and landings.
downwind
177
The maximum groundspeed for the rescue strop is ____ knots with a load and _____ knots empty.
60/50
178
The L/R FWD FAIL or L/R AFT RWR FAIL caution will be displayed if the corresponding _____ or ____ fails.
Receive Antenna; Amplifier-Converter
179
The _____ is a fully integrated system capable of providing passive detection and active electronic countermeasures against airborne and ground based RF threats
SIRFC
180
SIRFC operated as an RF jammer, a Radar Warning Receiver, and the ____ bus controller.
EW 1553
181
RWR Display With NORMAL selected, the ____ highest priority threats shall be displayed on the DEWD. When PRIORITY is selected, the _____ highest priority threats are displayed on the DEWD.
10; 5
182
The _____ CMDS is an active chaff/flare dispenser system, and interfaces to the MCs indirectly through SIRFC.
AN/ALE-47
183
The ____ system is a 2-color infrared threat detection and jamming system. The system has the capability to defeat a wide range if IR missiles using the IR jamming turrets.
ATW
184
The ____ is a multinational, UHF SATCOM terminal used to receive near real-time surveillance data broadcast.
IBR
185
The ____ switch allows the operator to inhibit expendables from being dispensed as a result of an input from SIRFC.
RWR
186
The ______ light illuminates when the CMDS is ready to dispense either from an operator initiated dispense command or a system initiated dispense.
READY
187
Due to inaccuracies of the _____ data and algorithms employed, the crew should not rely on HAT alone for terrain avoidance.
RDTED
188
At the discretion of the squadron commander, crew compliment may be 2 pilots and 1 Flight Engineer. Do not reduce crew compliment if actual _____ are anticipated.
LVAs
189
In the absence of more restrictive criteria, the following minimum weather criteria (ceiling/visibility) apply during Airplane (APLN) (<60 Nacelle):______
1,000/3 SM
190
NVG low-level operations require sufficient illumination to safely identify terrain and hazards commensurate with aircraft _____.
Speed and Altitude
191
Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA) is an altitude that will provide positive terrain clearance in IMC during situations that require the interruption of low-level operations. To compute MSA for each leg or leg segment, add ____ to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle within 3 NM of route centerline or planned flight path, and round up to the next 100-foot increments.
500 ft (or the planned set clearance for TF operation)
192
A highly experianced pilot selected by the unit commander or mission commander will the survey during the _____. The pilot will conduct a visual search of the proposed route or area at the lowest applicable altitude down to a minimum altitude of _____ft AGL in CONV mode or ______ft AGL in APLN mode.
Day, 50, 100
193
COnduct all APLN mode operations at or above ______ ft AGL and CONV/VTOL mode operations above ______ft AGL, except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, landing ,operational missions, training flights in approved surveyed areas or routes, approved excercise missions, or while conducting a route survey under day VMC.
500, 300
194
Conduct low-level sorties in mountainous terrain no lower than _____ft MOdified contour or _____ft set clearance Plane (SCP) in airplane mode, 100ft in CONV mode.
200, 200
195
In non-mountainous flat to rolling terrain or over water or where there is a valid mission requirement, crews may descend to no lower than _____ ft AGL in APLN and ______ft in CONV. Limit the time at minimum altitudes to the duration required for mission accomplishment.
100, 50
196
Aided (NVGs and/or TF systems) is the only approved method for conducting night operations below _____.
MSA
197
During low-level operations, set the radar altimeter to no lower than _____% of intended low-level altitude.
80
198
Power required for terminal operations training during an approach, with a clear escape route, is _____.
OGE
199
Power required for terminal operations training during an approach, with a restricted escape route or potential LVA is.
OGE +5
200
The _____ is responsible for ensuring that all crew members are aware of the length of the ropes. Failure to do so may result in serious injury to deploying personnel or damage to the aircraft.
Aircraft Commander
201
For Offset TOT operations, as a general rule set the system TOT to ____ earlier than the required "wheels on deck" time for a linear, 3 NM Decel Point (DP)
00:01:30
202
The _____ tactical take off the best climb and acceleration departure profile combination resulting in the least amount of time in the low-visibility takeoff.
80
203
The preferred method of inserting and extracting ground forces with the CV-22 is ____.
Airland
204
For the fast rope operations a maximum of ____ personnel on the ramp with ____ personnel on the fastrope or 600 lbs on the rescue hoist is permitted.
3; 3
205
The most effective means of flying the vertical cue, which will result in the optimal crossing over all types of terrain, is maintain the cue _____ the FPV circle with minor deviations above and below the center of the circle .
inside
206
The immediate-action maneuver is defined as near-simultaneous full application of the TCL, a roll to wings level, and _____ degrees nose up pitch beginning a climb to MSA while cross-checking E2 or TA/CM.
20
207
MMR. If _____ is selected, the system will switch to a TF scan automatically.
CM
208
Ensure personnel within the cabin remain evenly spaced ______ to ______ in (approximately arm length) throughout the cabin forward of the ramp hinge.
24 to 27
209
The receiver(s) and tanker(s) are to monitor the Primary and Secondary AAR frequencies and is to have electronic RV equipment emitting (a minimum of) ______ minutes prior to ARCT.
10 minutes
210
For a cross-under, move to the outside of the tanker wingtip, 100 ft aft of the horizontal stabilizer and decrease altitude to a minimum of _____ below the tanker.
50 ft
211
If TF bank angle limits are exceeded for ______ second(s), the TF FAIL warning is issued.
2
212
The MMR requires a minimum of _______ climb angle capacity for terrain following flight.
3.3 degrees
213
If current MMR climb capability is 4.4 degrees or less a/an _____ advisory is displayed.
ACFT CLIMB LIMIT
214
As lead, it is important to not maximum perfprm the aircraft so that the other aircraft in the formation have an excess performance margin with which to maneuver with respect to Lead. In general lead should not :
Exceed 95% Qm in cruise/climb
215
When power is available IAW AFMAN 11-2cv-22 Vol 3, standard formation departure from prepared or unprepared surfaces should be via a(an) ______ 80- nacelle takeoff.
simultaneous
216
Tactical Climb. Lead will maintain ______ mast torque or maximum contentious power (whichever is less) and _____KCAS.
95%, 170
217
The PINCH is used to decrease formation spacing. flight lead initiated with "OSPREY 13 FLIGHT, PINCH" Each aircraft turns ____ degrees into formation. flight lead will call "RESUME" when desired spacing is achieved and each aircraft turns back to original heading.
30 to 45 degrees
218
The _____ call allows the formation to cross sides while continuing on course.
SHACKLE
219
Weapons TIGHT is defined as _______.
Fire only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW current rules of engagement
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