SBAs and explanations 9 Flashcards

1
Q

An 8-year-old girl visits her GP, with her mother, 4 weeks after being prescribed antibiotics for a sore throat. Her urine has become tea-coloured and she has been feeling nauseous with a headache. Urinalysis reveals proteinuria and haematuria and her blood pressure is 137/72mmHg. A diagnosis of post-infectious glomerulonephritis is suspected. Which organism is most likely responsible?

A Streptococcus agalactiae
B Streptococcus pyogenes
C Escherichia coli
D Diphtheria
E Bordetella pertussis
A

Streptococcus pyogenes.

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2
Q

Which of the following drugs is not used in the long-term management of chronic
heart failure?

A Indomethacin
B Carvedilol
C Spironolactone D Candesartan
E Digoxin

A

Indomethacin.

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3
Q

A 32-year-old man has been suffering from worsening shortness of breath over the past 5 months. He used to be very physically active, but, recently, he has become breathless whilst doing relatively low intensity tasks such as walking to the bus stop. He has also developed a chronic cough, productive of clear sputum. He regularly visits the hospital to monitor his liver function because of a ‘liver disease’ that he has had since he was a child. He has never smoked and does not drink alcohol. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A COPD
B Autoimmune hepatitis
C alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
D Haemochromatosis
E Wilson’s disease
A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency.

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4
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents with a 2-month history of jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. She has a history of ulcerative colitis. LFTs and serology are requested:
ALP : 390 iU/L (30-150) AST : 40 iU/L (5-35) ALT : 40 iU/L (5-35) GGT : 150 iU/L (7-32) pANCA : Positive
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Haemochromatosis
B Primary biliary cirrhosis
C Primary sclerosing cholangitis
D Autoimmune hepatitis
E Wilson’s disease
A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis.

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5
Q

An 89-year-old woman is brought into A+E after she suddenly became very disorientated and was unable to recognise her own son. On examination, she is blind
in the left half of her visual field. An ischaemic stroke is suspected. Which artery is most likely to be involved?

A Right anterior cerebral artery
B Right posterior cerebral artery
C Left posterior cerebral artery
D Right middle cerebral artery
E Left middle cerebral artery
A

Right posterior cerebral artery.

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6
Q

Which of the following conditions is strongly associated with Giant Cell Arteritis?

A Takayasu’s aortitis
B Myalgic encephalomyelitis
C Fibromyalgia
D Polymyalgia rheumatic
E Polymyositis
A

Polymyalgia rheumatica.

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7
Q

A 58-year-old woman presents with a scaly rash around her right nipple. She says that the rash has been there for the last 3 weeks. On examination, there is a crusty rash around her right nipple and palpation reveals a firm lump just below the areola that appears to be tethered to surrounding tissues. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Intraductal papilloma
B Phyllodes tumour
C Paget’s disease of the breast 
D Breast abscess 
E Fibroadenoma
A

Paget’s disease of the breast.

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8
Q

A 43-year-old businesswoman has had a TIA. Soon after landing in the UK from a business trip to Australia, she suddenly became unable to move her right arm. She began slurring her speech, the right side of her face started drooping and she temporarily lost vision in her right eye. She adds that she experienced some pain in her right leg as she was disembarking the plane, however, she assumed it was a muscle strain from wearing high-heels for several days. What underlying defect is most likely to have caused her TIA?

A Atrial fibrillation
B Atrial septal defect
C Carotid atherosclerosis
D Infective endocarditis
E Prosthetic heart valve
A

Atrial septal defect.

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a recognised cause of acute pancreatitis?

A Hyperlipidaemia
B Hypothermia
C Hypocalcaemia D Mumps
E Azathioprine

A

Hypocalcaemia.

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10
Q

A 34-year-old man is brought to A+E having collapsed in a shopping mall. He did not lose consciousness but mentioned that he felt dizzy and could feel his ‘heart racing’. He has a past medical history of asthma. His ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with no visible P waves. Vagal manoeuvres failed to terminate the tachycardia. What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

A Verapamil
B Amiodarone
C Adenosine
D Bisoprolol
E Flecainide
A

Verapamil.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a cause of primary amenorrhoea?

A Prolactinoma
B Pregnancy
C Haemochromatosis
D Polycystic ovarian syndrome
E Turner syndrome
A

Turner’s syndrome.

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12
Q

In which part of the nephron does bendroflumethiazide have its effect?

A Proximal convoluted tubule
B Descending limb of the loop of Henle
C Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D Distal convoluted tubule
E Collecting duct
A

Distal convoluted tubule.

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13
Q

A 62-year-old heavy smoker is being investigated for lung cancer having presented with a 4-month history of unintentional weight loss, haemoptysis and fatigue. He claims that his voice has become hoarse and a junior doctor adds that he has a textbook ‘bovine cough’. In which part of the lung is the tumour most likely to be found?

A Left apex
B Right middle lobe
C Right base
D Left base
E Pleura
A

Left apex.

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14
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the sodium and potassium requirements of a 70 kg man over a 24 hour period?

A 100mmol Na+ and 40-50mmol K+
B 120mmol Na+ and 5-10mmol K+
C 120mmol Na+ and 10-20mmol K+
D 120mmol Na+ and 60-70mmol K+
E 140mmol Na+ and 60-70mmol K+
A

140mmol Na+ and 60-70mmol K+.

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15
Q

A 27-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of an episode of painful loss of vision that lasted 1 day and resolved spontaneously. 6 months ago, she lost sensation across the lateral half of her left leg which also resolved spontaneously. Which of the following would you expect to see in her diagnostic work up?

A Bence Jones proteins
B Oligoclonal bands on CSF electrophoresis
C High CSF protein
D Xanthochromia
E Raised ICP
A

Oligoclonal bands on CSF electrophoresis.

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16
Q

Which of the following is an acquired cause of long QT syndrome?

A Romano-Ward syndrome
B Hyponatraemia
C Hyperkalaemia
D Hypomagnesaemia
E Hypercalcaemia
A

Hypomagnesaemia.

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17
Q

A 70-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of polyuria. He has been urinating up to 12 times per day and has also experienced some constipation, abdominal pain and back pain. More recently, he has noticed that his face appears ‘puffier’ than usual and his ankles are swollen. He is on citalopram to treat his depression and takes no other regular medications. Blood tests reveal: ESR = 64 mm/hr (< 22). Urinalysis reveals:
Protein: Positive
Blood: Negative
24 hr urine protein (g): 9.8 (< 3.5) What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Cushing’s syndrome
B Amyloidosis
C Glomerulonephritis
D Malignancy
E Congestive cardiac failure
A

Amyloidosis.

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?

A Staphylococcus aureus
B Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C Enterococcus faecalis
D Escherichia coli
E Klebsiella pneumonia
A

Escherichia coli.

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19
Q

A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with a 1-month history of shortness of breath on exertion. He has also experienced a low-grade fever and a dry cough. He has a past medical history of HIV. A pulse oximeter is attached showing an oxygen saturation of 97% at rest. The patient is then asked to walk up and down the room a few times and his oxygen saturation drops to 88%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Interstitial lung disease
B Pulmonary embolism
C Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
D Mycobacterium avium complex
E Bronchiectasis
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii.

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20
Q

An 88-year-old care home resident is receiving oral clarithromycin to treat a chest infection. She develops profuse watery diarrhoea and her temperature rises to 38.2C. She has vomited three times and is experiencing diffuse abdominal discomfort. A stool sample is positive for Clostridium difficile toxin. Which antibiotic should be given to this patient?

A Co-amoxiclav 
B Penicillin
C Metronidazole 
D Ciprofloxacin 
E Tetracycline
A

Metronidazole.

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21
Q

What is another name for target cells?

A Codocyte
B Dacrocyte 
C Spherocyte 
D Reticulocyte 
E Schistocyte
A

Codocyte.

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22
Q

A 34-year-old man with Marfan’s syndrome, comes to A+E having experienced a sudden tearing chest pain. He adds that the pain seems to move to his back. On examination, an early diastolic murmur is heard over the aortic valve and unequal arm pulses are palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Ruptured aortic aneurysm
B Coarctation of the aorta
C Aortic dissection
D Myocardial infarction
E Tension pneumothorax
A

Aortic dissection.

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23
Q

Which set of spirometry results is most likely to be seen in a patient with COPD?

A FEV1 > 0.8 and FEV1:FVC > 0.7
B FEV1 < 0.8 and FEV1:FVC < 0.7
C FEV1 > 0.8 and FEV1:FVC < 0.7
D FEV1 < 0.8 and FEV1:FVC > 0.7
E Impossible to tell without FVC measurement
A

FEV1 < 0.8 and FEV1:FVC < 0.7.

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24
Q

A 15-year-old boy arrives at A+E with sudden-onset pain and swelling in his scrotum, which began 2 hours ago whilst playing a rugby match. He also starts vomiting and complains of pain in his right iliac fossa. On examination, his right hemiscrotum is red and swollen. What is the most appropriate first step in his management?

A Doppler ultrasound of the testes
B CT Scan
C Exploratory surgery
D Empirical antibiotics
E Abdominal X-ray
A

Exploratory surgery.

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25
Q

Which scoring system is used to determine a patient’s risk of developing
pressure sores?

A GRACE score
B ABCD2 score
C Ranson score
D Waterlow score
E Rockall score
A

Waterlow score.

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26
Q

A 36-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of fatigue, frequent urination and excessive thirst. He also mentions that he has been unable to take part in his weekly 5-a-side football sessions for the past month because his ‘muscles feel weak’. The patient’s notes reveal that, during a previous appointment 6 months ago, his blood pressure was measured at 164/98 mm Hg. He was offered a follow-up appointment to discuss management options, however, he did not attend. The GP measures the patient’s blood pressure again, and it is 172/102 mm Hg. What would you expect to see on the ECG of this patient?

A Tented T waves
B Absent P waves
C ST elevation
D J waves
E U waves
A

U waves.

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27
Q

A 40-year-old man is brought into A+E after he was found lying unconscious on the side of the road with an empty bottle of whisky next to him. Once he regains consciousness, he starts yelling at the ward staff expressing that he thinks he has been kidnapped and is being held hostage. He jumps out of bed, but finds it difficult to walk. He has a wide-based gait and he is taking small steps. Given the most likely diagnosis, what should form part of the immediate management?

A Acamprosate
B Chlorediazepoxide C Thiamine
D Naloxone
E Disulfiram

A

Thiamine.

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?

A Hypothermia
B Tension pneumothorax
C Cardiac tamponade
D Hypokalaemia
E Pleurisy
A

Pleurisy.

29
Q

A 44-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the tip of her right shoulder with an intermittent fever, severe chills and sweats. She has also recently experienced hiccups, breathlessness and a dry cough. On examination, there is tenderness over the 8th to 11th ribs on the right side and dullness to percussion, diminished breath sounds and reduced chest expansion over the lower zone of the right lung. 10 days prior to the onset of symptoms, she had a laparoscopic appendectomy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Acute cholangitis
B Basal pneumonia
C Subphrenic abscess
D Atelectasis
E Liver abscess
A

Subphrenic abscess.

30
Q

Which of the following endocrine conditions can cause hyperprolactinaemia?

A Cushing’s syndrome
B Phaeochromocytoma
C Addison’s disease
D Graves’ disease
E Hypothyroidism
A

Hypothyroidism.

31
Q

Why are NSAIDs contraindicated in chronic heart failure?

A

They can cause sodium and water retention, peripheral vasoconstriction and worsening heart failure.
They are nephrotoxic, which could further decrease the function of the hypoperfused kidneys.

32
Q

How is chronic heart failure managed?

A

Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, spironolactone and digoxin.

33
Q

Why are diuretics used in the management of chronic heart failure?

A

Reduce sodium and fluid absorption, leading to symptomatic relief and a reduced mortality.

34
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors used in the management of chronic heart failure?

A

Prevent adverse cardiac remodelling, and have a positive effect on survival.

35
Q

What is alpha 1 antitrypsin?

A

Serine protease inhibitor produced by the liver, responsible for protecting body tissues from the harmful action of neutrophil elastase (protease produced by neutrophils).

36
Q

What is alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency and how does it present?

A

Inherited condition characterised by the production of much lower levels of A1AT by the liver.
The lungs are therefore vulnerable to damage by neutrophil elastase, leading to emphysema.
A1AT accumulates in the liver, resulting in cirrhosis.
Typically presents with cirrhosis and emphysema at a young age.

37
Q

What is haemochromatosis and how does it present?

A

Disease of iron metabolism presenting with a triad of bronzed skin, hepatomegaly and diabetes mellitus.

38
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the breast?

A

Eczema-like hardening of the skin overlying the nipple, usually secondary to underlying breast cancer.

39
Q

What is intraductal papilloma and how does it present?

A

Benign tumour that forms within the milk ducts of the breast.
Presents as a small breast lump near the nipple, often accompanied by blood-stained nipple discharge.

40
Q

What is a Phyllodes tumour?

A

Rare fibroepithelial breast tumour that grows rapidly and usually presents as a breast lump.

41
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of TIAs?

A

Emboli from atrial fibrillation or carotid atherosclerosis.

42
Q

What is a paradoxical embolism?

A

In a small minority of patients, instead of causing a PE, a DVT can cause a TIA or stroke by passing through a septal defect in the heart, thereby, by-passing the lungs and travelling to the brain.

43
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

A
I GET SMASHED.
Idiopathic.
Gallstones.
Ethanol.
Trauma.
Steroids.
Mumps.
Autoimmune.
Scorpion venom.
Hyperlipidaemia/ Hypothermia/ Hypercalcaemia.
ERCP.
Drugs, e.g. azathioprine, sodium valproate.
44
Q

What is the mode of action of bendroflumethiazide?

A

Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na+/Cl- transporter in the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion.

45
Q

What is the mode of action of loop diuretics like furosemide?

A

Inhibit the Na+/K+/Cl- triple transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

46
Q

What is the mode of action of potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone?

A

Aldosterone antagonists which inhibit aldosterone-mediated sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts.

47
Q

What is the mode of action of amiloride?

A

Amiloride blocks sodium channels within the collecting tubules and has a similar effect to spironolactone.

48
Q

What is the mode of action of osmotic diuretics?

A

Osmotic diuretics are solutes that are freely filtered but poorly reabsorbed, so they remain in the filtrate and exert an osmotic pressure that holds water within the tubules, thereby reducing water reabsorption.

49
Q

What is the mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act on the proximal convoluted tubule to increase bicarbonate excretion, which, in turn, increases sodium excretion.

50
Q

What are the causes of long QT syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia.
Hypomagnesaemia.
Romano-Ward syndrome.
Jervell and Lange-Nielson syndrome.

51
Q

What is Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii is a fungus that causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients (e.g. HIV-positive patients).

52
Q

How does Pneumocystis jirovecii present and how is it diagnosed?

A

It presents with a dry cough, exertional dyspnoea and fever. On examination, the patient is often asked to walk up and down the room, whilst attached to a pulse oximeter, to demonstrate oxygen desaturation on exertion. A chest X-ray may be normal, or it may show bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Diagnosis is confirmed by visualising the organism in a sputum, bronchoalveolar lavage or lung biopsy specimen.

53
Q

How is Pneumocystis jirovecii infection treated?

A

High-dose cotrimoxazole and preventative measures in HIV+ patients when CD4 count drops below 200 x 10^6/L.

54
Q

How does C. difficile infection result in pseudomembranous colitis, and how does this present?

A

Release of toxins by C. difficile leads to extensive inflammation and disruption of the brush border membrane of the colon.
Explosive diarrhoea.

55
Q

How is C. difficile infection treated?

A

Oral metronidazole or vancomycin.

56
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Surgical emergency.
Spermatic cord twists, resulting in venous outflow obstruction which progresses to arterial occlusion and testicular infarction.

57
Q

What is the cremasteric reflex?

A

The cremasteric reflex is a useful test when examining a patient with testicular torsion.
It is elicited by lightly stroking the inner thigh, which normally causes ipsilateral contraction of the cremaster muscle that pulls up the testis.
The cremasteric reflex is absent in testicular torsion.
Although it is not a particularly specific test, the presence of the cremasteric reflex makes testicular torsion very unlikely.

58
Q

In which condition are J waves (Osborn waves) seen on ECG?

A

Hypothermia.

59
Q

What is Conn’s syndrome?

A

An aldosterone-secreting adenoma leads to inappropriately elevated aldosterone levels.
The excessive sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion caused by the high aldosterone leads to hypertension and hypokalaemia.
Hypokalaemia induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which, consequently, leads to polyuria and polydipsia. Muscle weakness is another feature of hypokalaemia.

60
Q

What are the main ECG features of hypokalaemia?

A

U waves, ST depression, flattened T waves and prolonged PR interval.

61
Q

What causes Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Thiamine deficiency leading to biochemical damage to the CNS.

62
Q

What are the clinical features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia (wide-based gait with cerebellar signs), confusion.
Memory loss, hallucinations, abnormal reflexes, weakness, hypothermia and hypotension.

63
Q

How is Wernicke’s encephalopathy treated?

A

Medical emergency.

IV thiamine to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

64
Q

What 2 drugs may be used to treat alcohol dependence?

A

Acamprosate and disulfiram.

65
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A
5Hs and 4Ts.
Hypoxia.
Hypothermia.
Hypovolaemia.
Hypokalaemia
Hyperkalaemia.
Toxic.
Thromboembolic.
Tension pneumothorax.
Tamponade.
66
Q

What is a subphrenic abscess and how does it present?

A

Upper abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder tip with a swinging fever in the days/weeks following abdominal surgery is suggestive of a subphrenic abscess.
These are localised collections of pus, commonly underneath the right or left hemidiaphragm, which usually occur following a breach in the integrity of the peritoneum (e.g. perforated viscus, bowel surgery).
Patients may also complain of malaise, weight loss, nausea, hiccups (due to diaphragmatic irritation by the abscess), a dry cough and shoulder tip pain (referred pain) on the affected side.

67
Q

What are the preferred imaging modalities for subphrenic abscess?

A

Abdominal CT or USS.

68
Q

How can hypothyroidism lead to hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Hypothyroidism stimulates an increase in the production of thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus via a feedback loop.
Although the primary role of TRH is to stimulate TSH release, it also stimulates the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia.

69
Q

What are the causes of hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Pregnancy.
Medications that inhibit dopamine, e.g. antipsychotics.
Hypothyroidism.
Benign pituitary tumours.