SBAs and explanations 10 Flashcards

1
Q

An 18-year-old student is brought to see his GP by his mother. Since returning from university 2 days ago, he has become drowsy and has developed a fever. He has also vomited 3 times. On examination, the patient complains of pain when the GP flexes his hip and extends his knee, and a non-blanching rash is seen on his trunk. What should the GP do next?

A Reassure and discharge
B Administer IV or IM benzylpenicillin and call an ambulance
C Administer IV dexamethasone and call an ambulance
D Prescribe oral benzylpenicillin and arrange a follow up appointment
E Prescribe oral dexamethasone and arrange a follow up appointment

A

Administer IV or IM benzylpenicillin and call an ambulance.

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2
Q

A 24-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a 3-month history of lower abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He often defecates more than 4 times per day and sometimes does not feel completely empty afterwards. On examination, his fingers are clubbed and a large irregular ulcer is found on his left shin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Irritable bowel syndrome
B Gastroenteritis
C Crohn’s disease
D Ulcerative colitis
E Coeliac disease
A

Ulcerative colitis.

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3
Q

Which joint is most commonly affected in gout?

A 1st Metacarpophalangeal joint
B 1st Metatarsophalangeal joint
C 1st Tarsometatarsal joint
D 1st Interphalangeal joint
E Talonavicular joint
A

1st Metatarsophalangeal joint.

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4
Q

A 10-year-old boy is brought to the respiratory clinic by his mother. Since he was very young, he has suffered from recurrent infections and has been hospitalized many times. As he has frequently moved country, a formal diagnosis has never been made. In the past 6 months, he has become increasingly breathless and has experienced a chronic cough, productive of large volumes of purulent sputum. A chest X-ray is performed revealing widespread bronchiectasis, and situs inversus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Cystic fibrosis
B Young’s syndrome
C Kartagener’s syndrome
D Caplan’s syndrome
E alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
A

Kartagener’s syndrome.

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5
Q

Which system is used to stage Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A Ann Arbor
B Gleason
C Dukes’
D Rai and Binet
E Breslow
A

Ann Arbor.

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6
Q

A 63-year-old woman presents with a moist, shallow ulcer just superior to the medial malleolus of her left foot. It is diagnosed as a venous ulcer. Which of the following features is not associated with venous ulcers?

A Varicose veins
B Calloused edges
C Stasis eczema
D Haemosiderin deposition
E Lipodermatosclerosis
A

Calloused edges.

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7
Q

Which of these conditions does not typically cause eye signs?

A Ulcerative colitis
B Crohn’s disease
C Ankylosing spondylitis
D Reactive arthritis
E Cervical spondylosis
A

Cervical spondylosis.

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8
Q
Whilst enjoying a drink in a bar with some friends, a 36-year-old woman feels a sudden sensation of tingling in her ring finger which spreads to the rest of her hand over a couple of seconds. She only feels the sensation in her right hand and she maintains awareness throughout the episode, which lasts less than a minute. What type of seizure is this describing?
A Absence
B Simple partial
C Complex partial
D Myoclonic
E Atonic
A

Simple partial.

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9
Q

An 82-year-old lady has been in hospital for 4 weeks due to a hip fracture that she sustained after falling at home. Due to her immobility, a pressure sore has developed on the heel of her right foot. There is an intact fluid-filled blister measuring 3 inches in diameter. The ulcer is superficial and there is no subcutaneous tissue visible. According to the EPUAP, what grade of severity is this pressure ulcer?

A Grade 1
B Grade 2
C Grade 3
D Grade 4
E Ungradable
A

Grade 2.

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis in the UK?

A Herpes simplex virus
B Syphilis
C EBV
D Varicella zoster virus
E Coxsackie virus
A

Herpes simplex virus.

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11
Q

A 49-year-old bird keeper has become more and more breathless over the last 6 months. She used to be able to easily complete her daily dog walk, however, recently, she has found that she is having to taking more breaks to catch her breath. She has also had a dry cough. Examination reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a chest X-ray shows reticulo-nodular shadowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
B COPD
C Pneumoconiosis
D Aspergillosis
E Asbestosis
A

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis.

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12
Q

A 64-year-old man has been referred for an outpatient appointment with the urology department. Over the past 5 months, he has been urinating around 10-12 times per day. He often takes several minutes to start urinating and his stream is much weaker than it used to be. Once he has finished, he does not feel ‘completely empty’ and finds that he ‘leaks a little bit’ as well. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate gland with a palpable midline sulcus. A diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia is made. He is eager to avoid surgery if possible. Which treatment would be best for him?

A Oxybutynin
B Solifenacin
C Tamsulosin
D Nitrofurantoin 
E Co-trimoxazole
A

Tamsulosin.

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13
Q

A 53-year-old lady has been feeling increasingly short of breath over the past 6 months. She adds that she always feels very tired and has, more recently, experienced a tingling sensation in both hands. Neurological examination reveals a sensory neuropathy affecting only the hands and feet. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A Iron deficiency anaemia
B Anaemia of chronic disease
C Folic acid deficiency
D Vitamin B12 deficiency
E Thalassemia trait
A

Vitamin B12 deficiency.

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14
Q

A 33-year-old female with SLE presents to the fertility clinic complaining of repeated miscarriages. She has been desperately trying to start a family but has
unfortunately suffered 3 miscarriages over the last 7 years. Her past medical history includes an appendicectomy (aged 12) and two DVTs. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following antibodies is associated with this disease?

A Anti-CCP antibody
B Anti-Jo-1 antibody
C Anti-centromere antibody
D Anti-cardiolipin antibody
E Anti-smooth muscle antibody
A

Anti-cardiolipin antibody.

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15
Q

Which of the following is not associated with infective endocarditis?

A Clubbing
B Janeway lesions
C Rose spots
D New pansystolic murmur
E Splinter haemorrhages
A

Rose spots.

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16
Q

A 43-year-old woman presents with a ‘rather embarrassing’ problem. Since the birth of her fourth child, 3 months ago, she has wet herself several times. She has noticed that whenever she laughs or coughs, a little bit of urine leaks out without her control. What is the name of this type of incontinence?

A Functional incontinence
B Stress incontinence
C Urge incontinence
D Overflow incontinence
E Double incontinence
A

Stress incontinence.

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17
Q
A 44-year-old man has been suffering from constant, nagging headaches for the past 2 years. In this time, he has also noticed that his hands and feet appear to have grown as he has changed shoe size 3 times, and had to get his wedding ring cut off. He has been relatively healthy throughout his life except for undergoing surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Cushing’s disease B Acromegaly
C Hypothyroidism
D Gigantism
E Prolactinoma
A

Acromegaly.

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18
Q

Which of the following is used to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis?

A Alvarado score
B Rockall score
C Modified Glasgow score
D Glasgow-Blatchford score
E Child-Pugh score
A

Modified Glasgow score.

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19
Q

A 31-year-old scuba diving instructor, living in the Maldives, had a seizure three days ago. He has no history of epilepsy, however, he has had persistent headaches over the past 5 months. He adds that the headaches are particularly bad when he goes to bed. On examination, a dark, irregular skin lesion is found on the back of his neck. An MRI scan shows multiple lesions across both cerebral hemispheres. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Glioblastoma multiforme
B Metastases
C Neurofibromatosis Type 1
D Acoustic neuroma
E Meningioma
A

Metastases.

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20
Q

Which of the following examination findings is not associated with COPD?

A Use of accessory muscles
B Breathing through pursed lips
C Peripheral cyanosis
D Clubbing
E Bounding pulse
A

Clubbing.

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21
Q

A 56-year-old man comes to A+E with a very swollen glans. He went to the toilet to urinate last night, however, once he had finished, he was unable to replace his foreskin back over his glans. Since then, his glans has gradually become very painful and inflamed. What is the name of this condition?

A Phimosis
B Paraphimosis
C Balanitis
D Priapism
E Peyronie’s disease
A

Paraphimosis.

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22
Q

A 59-year-old man presents to A&E with fatigue and shortness of breath, that gets worse when lying down. He has also been coughing up pink, frothy sputum. An echocardiogram is performed, which shows aortic regurgitation. On closer inspection of the patient’s hands, his nail beds appear to be pulsating. What is the name of this sign?

A de Musset’s sign
B Quincke’s sign
C Traube’s sign
D Corrigan’s sign
E Becker’s sign
A

Quincke’s sign.

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23
Q

A 61-year-old man attends an outpatient clinic appointment complaining of epigastric pain that gets better soon after eating. A urease breath test confirms the presence of H. pylori. A duodenal ulcer is suspected. What is the most appropriate management option?

A 1 week of once daily omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
B 1 week of twice daily omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
C 1 week of once daily ranitidine, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
D 1 week of twice daily ranitidine, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
E 1 week of once daily omeprazole, ranitidine and amoxicillin

A

1 week of twice daily omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin.

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24
Q

Which of the following is a major consequence of folate deficiency in pregnancy?

A Incomplete limb development
B Neural tube defects
C Congenital cardiac abnormalities
D High birth weight
E Cleft palate
A

Neural tube defects.

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25
Q

Which of the following is true about the target population group and frequency of breast cancer screening in the UK?

A Women aged 35-65 every 3 years
B Women aged 40-60 every 3 years
C Women aged 40-70 every 5 years
D Women aged 50-75 every 5 years
E Women aged 50-70 every 3 years
A

Women aged 50-70 every 3 years.

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26
Q

A 46-year-old woman is brought to A+E complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain and a high fever with rigors. On examination, she is jaundiced, febrile and tachycardic. Vital Signs: RR = 24 breaths per minute, HR = 112 bpm, Temp = 38.9°C.
A full blood count is requested:
Hb = 142 g/L (115-160)
WBC = 14.7 x 109/L (4-11)
Platelets = 370 x 109/L (150-400)
She is diagnosed with ascending cholangitis and her disease is managed using ‘The Sepsis Six’ protocol. Which of the following is not part of ‘The Sepsis Six’?

A Give high-flow oxygen
B Take blood smear
C Give IV antibiotics
D Measure urine output
E Measure serum lactate
A

Take blood smear.

27
Q

A 15-year-old girl is brought, by her mother, to see her GP. She is concerned that her daughter has been acting ‘very weird’ over the past few months. Having previously been quite shy and reserved, she has recently had several rude outbursts towards her parents. In addition, her performance at school has deteriorated. On examination, she appears slightly jaundiced. Closer inspection of her eyes using a slit-lamp shows dark rings around her iris. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would you expect to see in the diagnostic work up?

A Low serum caeruloplasmin
B High serum copper
C Low AST
D Low ALP
E High transferrin saturation
A

Low serum caeruloplasmin.

28
Q

A 4-year-old boy, who has recently moved to the UK from Cameroon, has been suffering from frequent infections and breathing difficulties since he was born. His mother tells you that he always has a cough and regularly suffers from chest infections. He has also had some bowel problems – his stools are often loose and irregular. On examination, he appears small for his age, his fingers are clubbed and bilateral coarse crackles are heard on auscultation. Cystic fibrosis is suspected. Which investigation should be requested to confirm the diagnosis?

A Chest X-ray
B Sweat test
C Faecal elastase
D Sputum culture
E Stool culture
A

Sweat test.

29
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for the formation of a DVT?

A Factor V Leiden
B Malignancy
C Nephrotic syndrome
D Antiphospholipid syndrome
E Alcohol
A

Alcohol.

30
Q

A 77-year-old retired ship-builder presents to his GP complaining of a 4-month history of right-sided chest pain, shortness of breath and 4 kg of weight loss. A chest X-ray is requested, which shows an ill-defined mass at the right pleural margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Small cell lung cancer
B Adenocarcinoma
C Mesothelioma
D Squamous cell lung cancer
E Large cell lung cancer
A

Mesothelioma.

31
Q

What is Kartagener’s syndrome?

A

Combination of primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus.

32
Q

What is Caplan’s syndrome?

A

Combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis.

33
Q

What is Young’s syndrome?

A

Combination of bronchiectasis, sinusitis and infertility.

34
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Genetic disorder resulting in defective ciliary action in the respiratory tract.
The defective cilia struggle to clear mucus from the lungs, resulting in current respiratory tract infection and eventually bronchiectasis.
Also suffer from recurrent otitis media.

35
Q

What is situs inversus?

A

Defective cilia in primary ciliary dyskinesia do not provide the guidance for development of organs in their correct locations within the body 50:50 chance of organs developing on the wrong side- situs inversus.

36
Q

What is cervical spondylosis?

A

A degenerative process affecting the cervical vertebrae and intervertebral discs.
Leads to compression of the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots, resulting neck pain and arm pain.

37
Q

What is a grade 1 pressure ulcer?

A

Intact skin with non-blanching erythema.

May be painful or itchy.

38
Q

What is a grade 2 pressure ulcer?

A

Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red wound bed, without slough.
May also present as an intact blister without bruising.

39
Q

What is a grade 3 pressure ulcer?

A

Full thickness skin loss.
Subcutaneous tissue may be visible by bone, tendon and muscle are not.
Slough may be present.
Undermining and tunnelling may occur.

40
Q

What is a grade 4 pressure ulcer?

A

Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon and muscle.
Slough or eschar may be present and undermining and tunnelling usually present.

41
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Herpes simplex virus.

42
Q

What are the causes of encephalitis?

A

Usually viral: HSV, VZV, EBV, Coxsackue virus.

Also syphilis, toxoplasmosis and listeria.

43
Q

What is encephalitis and how does it present?

A

Infection of brain parenchyma that presents with reduced consciousness, focal neurology or seizures on the background of infectious symptoms such as lymphadenopathy and fever.

44
Q

How is benign prostatic hyperplasia treated medically, and what is the mode of action of these drugs?

A

Alpha blockers e.g. tamsulosin, relaxes the smooth muscle around the bladder neck and prostate so reducing the resistance to urinary outflow.
5 alpha reductase inhibitors e.g. finasteride can also be used- inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone and reduces prostate volume.

45
Q

What drugs can be used to treat urinary incontinence?

A

Anticholinergics e.g. oxybutinin and solifenacin.

46
Q

What symptoms does B12 deficiency cause?

A

Anaemia symptoms, e.g. pallor, SOB, fatigue.
Neurological symptoms, e.g. paraesthesia, peripheral neuropathy.
Psychiatric symptoms, e.g. depression, psychosis.

47
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome is a disease that is associated with four main features: thrombophilia (recurrent DVT/PE), livedo reticularis (mottled appearance of the skin), obstetric issues (recurrent miscarriage) and thrombocytopaenia.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can occur on its own, or it can occur in association with SLE.
The main antibodies tested in the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome are lupus anticoagulant and anti-cardiolipin antibodies.

48
Q

What are the 8 criteria of the modified Glasgow score for predicting severity of acute pancreatitis?

A
PANCREAS.
• PaO2 <7.9kPa.
• Age >55yrs. 
• Neutrophilia (WCC >15 x 10^9/L).
• Calcium <2mmol.
• Renal function (urea >16 mmol).
• Enzymes (LDH >600U/L or AST >200U/L).
• Albumin <32g/L.
• Sugar >10mmol.

A score of 3 or more indicates severe pancreatitis.

49
Q

What is the Alvarado score used for?

A

Diagnosis of appendicitis.

50
Q

What is the Glasgow-Blatchford score used for?

A

Assessing whether patients with upper GI bleeds should be managed as outpatients or should receive urgent intervention.

51
Q

What is the Child-Pugh score used for?

A

Predicting prognosis of patients with cirrhosis.

52
Q

What is Quincke’s sign?

A

Visible pulsation on the nail beds, sign of aortic regurgitation.

53
Q

What is de Musset’s sign?

A

Head nodding in time with the pulse, sign of aortic regurgitation.

54
Q

What is Traube’s sign?

A

‘Pistol-shot’ (loud systolic and diastolic sounds) heard over the femoral artery, sign of aortic regurgitation.

55
Q

What is Corrigan’s sign?

A

Visible pulsation in the neck, sign of aortic regurgitation.

56
Q

What is Becker’s sign?

A

Visible pulsation of the pupils and retinal arteries, sign of aortic regurgitation.

57
Q

What is the treatment plan for H. pylori positive gastric/duodenal ulcers?

A

Triple therapy: a 1 week treatment regimen consisting of a PPI, e.g. omeprazole, and 2 antibiotics, e.g. amoxicillin and clarithromycin, or clarithromycin and metronidazole, twice daily.

58
Q

What are the sepsis six?

A

3 in, 3 out.
Give high flow oxygen, give empirical IV antibiotics, give an IV fluid challenge.
Take blood cultures, measure serum lactate and haemoglobin, measure urine output.

59
Q

What disease causes low serum caeruloplasmin and low serum copper?

A

Wilson’s disease.

60
Q

What are the 3 main subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and large cell carcinoma.

61
Q

What are the 3 factors in Virchow’s triad that contribute to the formation of venous thromboses?

A

Stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability.

62
Q

What factors predispose to DVTs through stasis?

A

Immobility, surgery, varicose veins, polycythaemia, venous obstruction (from pregnancy, tumour or obesity).

63
Q

What factors predispose to DVTs through endothelial injury?

A

Smoking, trauma, surgery, vascular catheterisation and hypertension.

64
Q

What factors predispose to DVTs through hypercoagulability?

A

Malignancy, pregnancy, hormone therapy, COCP, nephrotic syndrome, IBD, obesity, factor V Leiden, protein C or S deficiency, and antiphospholipid syndrome.