SBAs and explanations 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia?

A Streptococcus pneumoniae
B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C Haemophilus influenzae
D Legionella pneumophila
E Chlamydophila psittaci
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 19-year-old girl visits her GP after experiencing painful urination over the past week. She has also been urinating more frequently than usual and complains that her urine looks cloudy and smells particularly bad. A urinary tract infection is suspected. Which investigation can definitively confirm the diagnosis?

A Urine dipstick
B CRP
C Blood cultures
D MSU
E U+Es
A

MSU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 31-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of diffuse watery diarrhoea and nausea. He admits to recently eating a BBQ at a friend’s house. How should this patient be managed?

A Bed rest and oral rehydration
B Bed rest, oral rehydration and antibiotics
C Anti-diarrhoeal agents
D Call an ambulance and admit to hospital
E Refer to a gastroenterologist for further investigation

A

Bed rest and oral rehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP after noticing the growth of several small, fleshy tags on his torso. He has also noticed that he has many more ‘birthmarks’ now compared to when he was younger. On examination, there are 8 coffee-coloured, flat
skin lesions (‘birthmarks’) which are about 2-3 cm in diameter. Freckling around both axillae is also noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Tuberous sclerosis
B Neurofibromatosis type 1
C Neurofibromatosis type 2
D Xeroderma pigmentosum
E Dercum disease
A

Neurofibromatosis type 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is an extra-articular feature of ankylosing spondylitis?

A Erythema ab igne
B Subcutaneous nodules
C Apical lung fibrosis
D Mitral regurgitation
E Tophi
A

Apical lung fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 43-year-old man has been involved in a bar fight. He is rushed, unconscious, into A&E with a stab wound to the chest. On examination, his JVP is raised and he is hypotensive (BP : 86/70 mm Hg). Auscultation of his chest reveals very quiet heart sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Acute heart failure 
B Haemopericardium
C Pneumothorax
D Septic shock
E Hypovolaemic shock
A

Haemopericardium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 52-year-old man attends the respiratory clinic complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for 2 months. He has never smoked and has not experienced any shortness of breath or chest pain. Respiratory examination detects no abnormalities. He has a past medical history of hypertension, for which he started treatment 4 months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Asthma
B Interstitial lung disease
C Bronchiectasis
D Drug side-effect
E Atypical pneumonia
A

Drug side-effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 41-year-old female is referred to the dermatology clinic because she has developed multiple purple nodules on her shins. They are tender and have a diameter of 1-2 inches. Erythema nodosum is suspected. Which of the following is not a cause of erythema nodosum?

A Tuberculosis
B Reaction to sulphonamides
C Inflammatory bowel disease
D Ankylosing spondylitis
E Behçet’s disease
A

Ankylosing spondylitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 49-year-old woman is admitted to A+E complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain that began last evening and has not subsided. She admits to eating a lot of fast food and mentions that, in the past, she has experienced a stabbing pain for a couple of hours after eating. The pain during these episodes is less intense than the pain she is currently experiencing, and it tends to be localised around her epigastrium. She drinks no more than 12 units of alcohol per week and has not lost any weight recently. On examination, she is jaundiced and Murphy’s sign is positive. LFTs are requested:
Bilirubin : 45 micromol/L (3-17) AST : 50 iU/L (5-35)
ALT : 45 iU/L (5-35)
ALP : 400 iU/L (30-150)
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Gallstones
B Alcoholic hepatitis
C Viral hepatitis
D Hepatocellular carcinoma
E Gilbert’s syndrome
A

Gallstones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 34-year-old Nigerian man brings his 3-year-old son to A&E. He has been crying and complaining of severe pain in his hands. On examination, his fingers are swollen and warm. The junior doctor suspects a painful crises of sickle cell disease. What is the mode of inheritance of sickle cell disease?

A Autosomal recessive
B Autosomal dominant
C X-linked recessive
D X-linked dominant
E Y-linked
A

Autosomal recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 16-year-old girl is rushed to A+E by her parents. She is unconscious and shaking uncontrollably. Her mother says that she has been fitting for over half an hour. What is the most appropriate first step in the management of this patient?

A IV phenytoin
B IV thiopentone
C IV lorazepam/PR diazepam
D Reassure her parents and let the seizure terminate by itself
E Oral sodium valproate
A

IV lorazepam/PR diazepam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A 61-year-old, with a 40 pack-year smoking history, presents with confusion. He has also had a 3-month history of weight loss and haemoptysis. A blood test shows the following results:
Na+ : 121 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ : 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5)
Ca2+ : 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Addison’s disease
B Hypothyroidism
C Heart failure
D SIADH
E Cirrhosis
A

SIADH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 27-year-old man presents complaining of sharp chest pain. He mentions that he has taken a few days off work recently because of the flu. What would you expect to see on his ECG?

A ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF
B Widespread saddle-shaped ST elevation
C ST depression
D Tented T waves
E Absent P waves
A

Widespread saddle-shaped ST elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why are urinary tract infections more common in women?

A Women have a shorter urethra
B Men have a larger bladder
C Men have a shorter distance between their urethral opening and their anus
D Women are more likely to be catheterised
E Men have longer ureters

A

Women have a shorter urethra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 44-year-old bus driver from the West Indies has suffered from shortness of breath and a dry cough for the last 4 months. He also complains of some ‘sore lumps on his shins’. Closer inspection reveals tender violet nodules on both shins. A chest X-ray is requested, which shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Blood tests are also requested, including U+Es – which parameter would you expect to be raised?

A Sodium
B Potassium 
C Calcium
D pH
E Urea
A

Calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A 35-year-old woman presents to clinic with a 6-month history of watery diarrhoea and abdominal pain that improves after defecation. She admits to defecating 4-5 times per day compared to her normal frequency of once per day. On examination, a papulovesicular rash is seen on both elbows. Which investigation would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?
A Stool sample for MC+S
B Serology for anti-tTG antibodies
C Full blood count
D Blood cultures
E Barium follow-through
A

Serology for anti-tTG antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?

A Breastfeeding 
B Late menarche
C Early menopause 
D Not having children
E Age <50yrs.
A

Not having children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 26-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen left knee. The pain and swelling started 2 days ago, but he didn’t pay much attention to it as he thought it was just a muscle strain. He has also developed a fever over the past 24 hours. On examination, his left knee is red, swollen and extremely painful on passive flexion. Septic arthritis is suspected and a joint aspirate is requested. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes this condition?

A Haemophilus influenza
B Staphylococcus aureus
C Neisseria meningitidis
D Escherichia coli
E Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

Staphylococcus aureus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 44-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of worsening hearing. A full cranial nerves examination is performed. When Weber’s test is performed, she hears the sound louder in her left ear. Then, Rinne’s test is performed and she reports that, in both ears, the sound is loudest when the tuning fork is held in front of the auditory canal rather than when the fork is held against her mastoid processes. Which of the following best describes the patient’s condition?

A Conductive hearing loss in the right ear
B Conductive hearing loss in the left ear
C Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear
D Sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear
E Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following best defines chronic kidney disease?

A GFR < 60 mL/min/1.73m2 for more than 3 months
B GFR < 60 mL/min/1.73m2 for more than 6 months
C GFR < 90 mL/min/1.73m2 for more than 3 months
D GFR < 90 mL/min/1.73m2 for more than 6 months
E Requirement of long-term renal replacement therapy

A

GFR < 60 mL/min/1.73m2 for more than 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 77-year-old man, with a history of ischaemic heart disease, presents to A+E with acute-onset dyspnoea, a wheeze and a cough productive of pink frothy sputum. A diagnosis of acute left ventricular failure, resulting in pulmonary oedema, is made. Which of the following is not part of the immediate management of this patient?

A Administer oxygen
B Lie the patient down
C IV Diamorphine
D GTN infusion
E IV furosemide
A

Lie the patient down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of macrocytic anaemia?

A Iron deficiency
B Vitamin B12 deficiency
C Folate deficiency
D Methotrexate
E Hypothyroidism
A

Iron deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 62-year-old shop owner is brought to A+E, by his daughter, having experienced worsening shortness of breath. His face and arms have also become quite swollen. On examination, he has a plethoric face and his JVP is raised and non-pulsatile. He seems disinterested when the history is taken because he does not trust doctors. His daughter adds that he has been coughing up blood and losing weight for about 6 months, however, he has refused to seek medical attention until his recent worsening of symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Asbestosis
B Congestive cardiac failure
C Polycythaemia
D Superior vena cava syndrome
E Mesothelioma
A

Superior vena cava syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An 82-year-old man is brought to A&E with a severe headache. He complains of an intense aching pain, focused around his right eye, that has rapidly worsened. He has never experienced anything like this before. A nurse informs you that he vomited whilst waiting to be admitted, and has been complaining of nausea since. Closer inspection reveals a red, congested right eye with a cloudy cornea. He complains that his vision has worsened with the onset of this headache and he has started
seeing haloes around all sources of light. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Meningitis
B Subarachnoid haemorrhage
C Acute glaucoma
D Cluster headache
E Migraine
A

Acute glaucoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is associated with left ventricular systolic failure?

A Pulsus alternans
B Pulsus paradoxus
C Water-hammer pulse
D Pulsus parvus et tardus
E Pulsus bisferiens
A

Pulsus alternans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 46-year-old truck driver is accompanied by his wife to see his GP after he fell asleep at the wheel two days ago. He appears to be quite shaken by the ordeal as he recalled having to veer away from oncoming traffic. On further questioning, he says that his sleep hasn’t been disrupted, however, he has been feeling very tired during the day. His wife interjects and mentions that her own sleep has been disturbed because her husband has been ‘snoring ferociously’. When asked about diet and exercise, he admits to eating badly and exercising very little since he started
working as a truck driver 3 years ago. In that time, he has gained a considerable amount of weight.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Narcolepsy
B Cataplexy
C Absence Seizure
D Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
E Central Sleep Apnoea
A

Obstructive sleep apnoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 28-year-old IV drug-user visits his GP practice for an annual check-up. Hepatitis serology is requested and the following results are reported.
HBsAg -
HBeAg -
HBcAb IgM -
HBcAb IgG +
HBsAb +
What is the hepatitis status of this patient?

A Acute infection
B Chronic infection
C Cleared
D Vaccinated
E Susceptible
A

Cleared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 24-year-old student presents at his GP practice with a 2-day history of blood in his urine. Urine dipstick reveals proteinuria and haematuria. On questioning, he mentions that he has been recovering from a sore throat and a cough over the last 4 days. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Minimal change disease
B IgA nephropathy
C Membranous nephropathy
D Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
E Acute tubular necrosis
A

IgA nephropathy.

29
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Cushing’s syndrome?

A Central obesity
B Poor wound healing
C Hypotension
D Striae
E Proximal myopathy
A

Hypotension.

30
Q

A 24-year-old female is brought to A+E having fallen off a stage in a nightclub whilst under the influence of LSD. Her eyes open when the registrar squeezes her trapezius and she makes a few incomprehensible sounds. Her arms flex, wrists clench and legs extend and internally rotate in response to pain. What is her GCS?

A 5 
B 7 
C 8 
D 9 
E 10
A

7.

31
Q

What organisms cause hospital acquired pneumonias?

A

Gram-negative enterobacteriae (e.g. E. coli), S. aureus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Bacterioides and Clostridia.

32
Q

What organisms cause community acquired pneumonias?

A

S. pneumoniae (most common), H. influenzae, M. pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Chlamydia and Legionella.

33
Q

What is the management plan for gastroenteritis?

A

Gastroenteritis is a self-limiting disease that can be managed with bed rest and oral rehydration (to compensate for fluid and electrolyte losses from sweating, diarrhoea and vomiting).
Hospital admission is required if the patient is vomiting and unable to retain oral fluids, has features of shock or is severely dehydrated (manifesting as confusion, weakness, tachycardia and hypotension).
Antibiotics are only prescribed when the causative microorganism is identified by a stool culture.
Anti-diarrhoeal agents are not usually necessary, but can be used for symptomatic relief in adults with mild-moderate disease.

34
Q

What is neurofibromatosis, and the differences between the 2 types?

A

Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant condition resulting in the development of tumours in the nervous system.
Type 1 mainly causes peripheral manifestations such as café-au-lait macules (‘coffee-cloured, flat skin lesions’), axillary freckling, neurocutaneous fibromas, phaeochromocytomas and renal artery stenosis.
Type 2 has mainly central features, such as bilateral vestibular
schwannomas, meningiomas and gliomas.

35
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

A genetic disease resulting in the formation of benign tumours in various organs across the body.
The symptoms depend on the location of the tumours (e.g. brain - seizures; kidneys - haematuria).

36
Q

What is xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

A genetic disorder of DNA repair, which makes patients extremely susceptible to DNA damage by UV radiation and, leading to multiple skin cancers (e.g. melanoma, BCC).

37
Q

What is Dercum disease?

A

Characterised by the presence of several painful lipomas across the body.

38
Q

What are the extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
5 As.
Apical lung fibrosis.
Amyloidosis.
Anterior uveitis.
Achilles tendinitis.
Aortic regurgitation.
39
Q

What is erythema ab igne?

A

Reticulated rash caused by long-term exposure to heat.

Seen in chronic pancreatitis, hypothyroidism, and lymphedema.

40
Q

What are tophi and when do they occur?

A

Deposits of monosodium urate crystals in joints, cartilage and bones.
They occur in gout.

41
Q

What is haemopericardium?

A

Blood accumulates in the pericardial sac, leading to cardiac tamponade (compression of the heart).

42
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s triad: muffled heart sounds, raised JVP and hypotension.

43
Q

How does acute heart failure present?

A

Breathlessness.

Cough productive of frothy pink sputum.

44
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A
Panniculitis (inflammation of subcutaneous fat cells) which causes crops of red or violet dome-shaped nodules to appear on both shins (or occasionally on the thighs).
They are tender and warm on palpation.
Systemic symptoms (such as fever, malaise and arthralgia) may also be present.
45
Q

What are the causes of erythema nodosum?

A
LOST BUSH.
Leprosy, Lymphoma (non-hodgkins), Leukaemia.
Oral contraceptive (and pregnancy).
Sarcoidosis, Sulphonamides (and penicillins).
TB, Toxoplasmosis.
Behçet's disease.
Ulcerative colitis (and Crohn's).
Salmonella (and Yersinia), Strep.
Histoplasmosis.
46
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive condition caused by reduced activity of the enzyme responsible for conjugating bilirubin.
This results in episodes of asymptomatic jaundice, usually triggered by stress, exercise, lack of sleep, fasting and illness.
LFTs tend to be normal, except for a mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin level.

47
Q

What is dactylitis?

A

Painful inflammation of the digits due to vast-occlusive crisis.

48
Q

List some complications of sickle cell disease.

A

Dactylitis.
Autosplenectomy (infarction of the spleen leading to fibrosis and atrophy).
Sequestration crises (responsible for acute chest syndrome and priapism).
Haemolytic crisis (accelerated red cell breakdown).
Aplastic crisis (triggered by parvovirus B19 infection).

49
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

A seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes or repeated seizures without recovery or regain of consciousness in between.
Medical emergency.
Should be treated as soon as a seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.

50
Q

How is status epilepticus managed?

A

Secure patient’s airway and administer high-flow oxygen.
Monitor ECG, BP, pulse oximetry, blood glucose, get IV access.
Benzodiazepine: IV lorazepam or PR diazepam, buccal midazolam in community setting.
Phenytoin infusion if seizure persists after 10 minutes.
IV thiopentone if seizure still does not terminate after another 10 minutes.

51
Q

What hormones does small cell lung cancer produce ectopically, and what complications can they lead to?

A

ACTH and ADH.
Ectopic ACTH would lead to Cushing’s syndrome.
Ectopic ADH would lead to hyponatraemia.

52
Q

What are the causes of hyponatraemia with hypervolaemia?

A

Congestive cardiac failure.
Cirrhosis.
Nephrotic syndrome.

53
Q

What are the causes of hyponatraemia with euvolaemia?

A

Adrenal insufficiency.
SIADH.
Hypothyroidism.

54
Q

What are the causes of hyponatraemia with hypovolaemia?

A

Diarrhoea.
Vomiting.
Diuretics.

55
Q

Why are UTIs more common in women?

A

Women have a shorter distance between their urethral opening and their bladder, meaning that there is a shorter distance for bacteria to travel to reach the bladder and establish an infection.
Women also have a shorter distance between their urethral opening and their anus, which is a source of bacteria that can cause UTIs.

56
Q

How does sarcoidosis cause high serum Ca2+?

A

Granulomatous tissue in sarcoidosis produces ectopic 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which converts 25-hydroxy vitamin D3 to active 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D3 (calcitriol).
This leads to excessive production of calcitriol which leads to a rise in serum Ca2+.

57
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of septic arthritis?

A

S. aureus.
Streptococci.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

58
Q

What is chronic kidney disease and how does it present?

A

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined as >3 months of impaired renal function based on abnormal structure or function, or a GFR <60mL/min/1.73m^2 for >3 months with or without evidence of kidney damage.
Symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, pruritus, fatigue, peripheral oedema, muscle cramps and pulmonary oedema.
These tend to occur once GFR <30.

59
Q

How is acute heart failure managed?

A

1) Sit the patient upright.
2) Administer oxygen.
3) Gain IV access and monitor ECG (treat arrhythmias).
4) IV diamorphine.
5) IV furosemide.
6) GTN spray or infusion.
7) Consider CPAP if condition worsens.

60
Q

What are the main features of superior vena cava syndrome?

A
Dyspnoea.
Orthopnoea.
Swollen face and arms.
Plethora.
Cough.
Engorged neck and facial veins (raised and non-pulsatile JVP).
61
Q

What are the causes of superior vena cava syndrome?

A

Compression of the superior vena cava, most commonly by lung tumours.
Also mediastinal lymphadenopathy and thymomas.

62
Q

What is Pemberton’s test?

A

Used to identify superior vena cava syndrome.
Patient lifts their arms over their head for ~1min, which leads to facial plethora, a raised non-pulsatile JVP and inspiratory stridor.

63
Q

How does acute glaucoma present?

A

It most commonly affects the elderly, and presents with a painful red eye, vomiting, impaired vision and the perception of haloes around lights.

64
Q

How does left ventricular systolic failure cause pulsus alternans?

A

In left ventricular systolic failure, the ejection fraction is low, which causes a reduced stroke volume and an increased end-diastolic volume.
The high end-diastolic volume, following one weak contraction, stretches the ventricular muscle fibres which, by Starling’s law, leads to a stronger subsequent contraction.
This pattern of alternating strong and weak pulses is pulsus alternans.

65
Q

Give 2 causes of pulsus paradoxus.

A

Constrictive pericarditis.

Cardiac tamponade.

66
Q

Which murmur is associated with a water-hammer pulse?

A

Aortic regurgitation.

67
Q

Which murmur is associated with pulsus parvus et tardus?

A

Aortic stenosis.

68
Q

In which patients is pulsus bisferiens seen?

A

HOCM.

Coexisting aortic regurgitation and stenosis.