SBAs and explanations 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of cirrhosis?

A Gynaecomastia
B Asterixis
C Koilonychia
D Hepatic fetor
E Clubbing
A

Koilonychia.

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2
Q

A 67-year-old pensioner, with a 40 pack-year smoking history, visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath that has gradually been getting worse over the past 6 months. He used to be able to walk 500 metres to the shops but now he struggles to make it up the stairs at home. He has also been suffering from a persistent cough productive of clear sputum. Which investigation is required to confirm the diagnosis?

A Spirometry
B Peak Expiratory Flow
C Sputum Culture
D Chest X-Ray
E Bronchoscopy and Biopsy
A

Spirometry.

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3
Q

An 18-year-old man visits the GP having recently returned from a holiday to Thailand. He complains of a 2-day history of watery, bloody diarrhoea and has vomited 6 times. On examination, he is pyrexial with diffuse abdominal tenderness. Which organism is most likely to be causing his symptoms?

A Giardia lamblia
B Vibrio cholera
C Norovirus
D E. coli 0157
E Salmonella
A

E. coli 0157.

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4
Q

A 42-year-old man is brought into A+E by his wife. He is clutching his head and appears to be drowsy and distressed. Though a clear history is difficult to ascertain, he mentions that he has an ‘absolutely devastating headache’ that suddenly came on this morning. He has never experienced pain like this before. Towards the end of the consultation he begins to vomit. He is apyrexial and denies any trauma to the head. On examination, the patient’s neck is slightly stiff, he is hypertensive and has large bilateral palpable masses in his abdomen. On direct questioning, he reveals that his father died suddenly at the age of 49. Which underlying disease has predisposed the patient to this clinical scenario?

A Renal cell carcinoma
B Polycystic kidney disease
C Medullary sponge kidney
D Phaeochromocytoma
E Subdural haemorrhage
A

Polycystic kidney disease.

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5
Q

A 33-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension following the incidental finding of abnormally high blood pressure during a routine check-up at his GP practice. Without further investigation, he was started on Ramipril. 1 week later, he begins to feel very nauseous and vomits several times. He is taken to A+E where his renal function is monitored:
Urea : 8.1 mmol/L (2.5-6.7)
Creatinine : 240 micromol/L (baseline : 102) eGFR : 53 (> 90)
Urine Output : 20 mL/hour (> 0.5 mL/kg/hr) What is the most likely cause of his condition?

A Acute tubular necrosis
B Acute interstitial nephritis
C Glomerulonephritis
D Renal artery stenosis
E Vasculitis
A

Renal artery stenosis.

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6
Q

A 47-year-old man comes to A&E having experienced palpitations. He has a past medical history of hypertension which is being treated with ramipril and spironolactone. An ECG shows tented T waves and flattened P waves. A blood test reveals:
Na+ : 137 mmol/L (135-145) K+ : 6.8 mmol/L (3.5-5) Ca2+ : 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) pH : 7.35 (7.35-7.45)
What is the first step in the management of this patient?

A IV salbutamol
B 50 ml 50% dextrose with 10U insulin
C 50 ml 5% dextrose with 10U insulin
D 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate
E IV sodium bicarbonate
A

10 ml 10% calcium gluconate.

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7
Q

Whilst eating dinner with his family, an 11-year-old boy suddenly drops his cutlery
and begins to stare blankly into space. His eyelids begin to flutter, his eyes roll upwards and this continues for 10 seconds. His dad notices the event and asks him about it, but he can’t remember what happened. What type of seizure is this describing?

A Absence
B Simple partial
C Complex partial
D Myoclonic
E Atonic.
A

Absence.

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8
Q

A 71-year-old man has had a 2-week history of shortness of breath that improves when lying flat. On examination, the patient has an oxygen saturation of 88%, his fingers are clubbed and there are multiple spider naevi on his chest. Shifting dullness is demonstrated, his spleen is enlarged and there are dilated veins around his umbilicus. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Congestive cardiac failure
B Portal hypertension
C Hepatopulmonary syndrome
D GI bleed
E Alcoholic hepatitis
A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome.

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9
Q

A 72-year-old man is admitted to the orthopaedic surgery ward after fracturing his distal humerus whilst gardening. He mentioned that he suddenly felt a severe pain in his right arm and denies any significant preceding trauma. He adds that he has
recently been urinating a lot more frequently (often up to 12 times per day) and has suffered from constipation, which he attributes to being ‘part of growing old’. An X- ray of the affected arm reveals a pathological fracture with lytic deposits throughout the bone.
Blood tests reveal:
ESR = 48 mm/hr (0-22) Ca2+ = 3.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Multiple myeloma
B Paget’s disease
C Osteoporosis
D Vitamin D deficiency
E Thyrotoxicosis
A

Multiple myeloma.

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10
Q

A 49-year-old man is referred to the respiratory department by his GP. He has been suffering from gradual-onset, worsening shortness of breath over the past 3 months. His 50 pack-year smoking history makes COPD the top differential. Spirometry confirms these suspicions. What is the most appropriate first step in the pharmacological management of this patient?

A Inhaled corticosteroid
B Inhaled ipratropium bromide
C Inhaled tiotropium
D Symbicort
E Long-term oxygen therapy
A

Inhaled ipratropium bromide.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a sign of a lower motor neuron lesion?

A Hyperreflexia
B Spasticity
C Fasciculations
D Clonus
E Babinski’s sign
A

Fasciculations.

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12
Q

A 47-year-old man has been suffering from rhinitis and recurrent nosebleeds for the past 3 months. At first, he attributed this to the cold weather, however, over the last 3 weeks he has started coughing up a small amount of blood. A series of bedside tests are performed, including a urine dipstick, which reveals proteinuria and haematuria. Blood tests and antibody screens reveal a raised ESR and cANCA.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Microscopic polyangiitis
B Goodpasture’s syndrome
C Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
D Churg-Strauss syndrome
E Behçet’s disease
A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis.

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13
Q

Which of the following organisms most commonly causes gas gangrene?

A Streptococcus pyogenes
B Staphylococcus aureus
C Staphylococcus epidermidis
D Clostridium perfringens
E Haemophilus influenzae
A

Clostridium perfringens.

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14
Q

A 16-year-old schoolgirl books an appointment with her GP after noticing a lump in her left breast during self-examination. She, sensibly, decided to seek medical attention. She complains of no other symptoms. On examination, a 1 cm x 1 cm firm, smooth and very mobile lump is palpated in the upper-outer quadrant of her left breast. There is no pain on palpation nor is there any axillary or cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Fibrocystic disease 
B Fibroadenoma
C Breast cancer
D Breast abscess
E Fat necrosis
A

Fibroadenoma.

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15
Q

Which of the following drug classes is most likely to cause iatrogenic hypoglycaemia in diabetes patients?

A Sulfonylureas 
B Metformin
C Glucagon
D Hydrocortisone 
E Orlistat
A

Sulfonylureas.

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16
Q

A 24-year-old swimwear model presents to A&E with severe right iliac fossa pain. The pain was initially poorly localised to the umbilical region, before moving to
the right iliac fossa. This has been accompanied by nausea, anorexia and fever. A diagnosis of appendicitis is made and she is referred for an appendicectomy. What is the most suitable surgical incision for this patient?

A Lanz
B Kocher
C Pfannenstiel
D Rutherford-Morrison 
E Gridiron
A

Lanz.

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17
Q

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP having coughed up blood on several
occasions over the past 6 months. He said that he has had a ‘smokers’ cough’ for years but the appearance of blood has been a recent change. On direct questioning, he admits to unintentionally losing about 5 kg of weight over the past 6 months. A chest X-ray shows a 2 cm cavitating lesion in the right upper lobe. There appears to be a few other smaller nodules surrounding the large cavitating lesion. The left lung appears slightly fibrosed, but is otherwise normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Small cell lung cancer
B Squamous cell lung cancer
C Atypical pneumonia
D Lung abscess
E Goodpasture’s syndrome
A

Squamous cell lung cancer.

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18
Q

A 46-year-old airline pilot presents to A+E with severe pain in his right flank. He adds that the pain moves down towards his right groin. Though examination is difficult, as he is writhing around in pain, no abnormalities are detected. However, a urine dipstick reveals haematuria. Which investigation would you do next?

A Renal ultrasound
B Cystoscopy
C CT-KUB
D MRI
E Urine MC+S
A

CT-KUB.

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19
Q

A 32-year-old man, with a history of IV drug abuse, presents to A+E with a high fever and rigors. He has also been very breathless and has experienced epigastric pain that is worse on exertion. On examination, giant V waves are seen in the JVP and tender, pulsatile hepatomegaly is palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Mitral stenosis
B Tricuspid regurgitation
C Pulmonary hypertension
D Portal hypertension
E Viral hepatitis
A

Tricuspid regurgitation.

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20
Q

A 31-year-old female presents to her GP with a 2-month history of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness. She also complains that her left eyelid droops considerably more than her right. She feels fine in the morning but her strength decreases throughout the day, especially if she exerts herself more so than usual. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which of the following investigations may provide evidence supporting this diagnosis?

A Dix-Hallpike test
B Schirmer’s test
C Romberg’s test
D Tensilon test
E Trendelenberg test
A

Tensilon test.

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21
Q

A 15-year-old school boy is rushed into A+E having accidentally ingested some peanuts, to which he is extremely allergic. His face and lips are swollen, he is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Vital signs: HR = 132 bpm, BP = 88/53 mm Hg. His airway has been secured and he is being given 100% oxygen. What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

A IV chlorpheniramine
B IV hydrocortisone
C IV saline
D IV adrenaline
E IM adrenaline
A

IM adrenaline.

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22
Q

Which of the following is a cause of microcytic anaemia?

A Myelodysplasia
B Multiple myeloma
C Thalassaemia
D Myelofibrosis
E Aplastic anaemia
A

Thalassaemia.

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23
Q

A 63-year-old type 2 diabetic presents with a rash on her shins that has gradually got worse over the past 3 months. On closer inspection, there are three areas of raised, reddened and hardened skin with a yellowish centre. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Acanthosis nigricans
B Diabetic dermopathy
C Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
D Granuloma annulare
E Pruritus
A

Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

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24
Q

A 76-year-old woman is brought into A+E with central crushing chest pain that radiates to her jaw and left arm. An ECG is performed, which shows ST elevation in leads ll, lll and aVF. Her SaO2 is 90%. Before she is sent to the cathlab for percutaneous coronary intervention, she is started on a combination of drugs. Which of the following should not be given?

A Morphine
B Oxygen
C Aspirin
D Clopidogrel
E Warfarin
A

Warfarin.

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25
Q

A 42-year-old amateur rugby player presents to his GP complaining that his team mates have been making fun of his ‘man boobs’. He admits that he appears to have developed breasts over the past few months and it is causing him considerable embarrassment and distress. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused this unfortunate circumstance?

A Cimetidine 
B Aspirin
C Salbutamol
D Ramipril
E Omeprazole
A

Cimetidine.

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26
Q

Which part of the prostate gland undergoes progressive hyperplasia in BPH?

A Central zone
B Transitional zone
C Peripheral zone
D Ejaculatory duct
E Anterior fibromuscular stroma
A

Transitional zone.

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27
Q

A 62-year-old obese man visits his GP complaining of a cramping pain in his buttocks that comes on when he walks his Pomeranian, Skippy. This pain was first noticed 4 months ago and it is relieved by sitting down. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history. On direct questioning, he sheepishly admits to suffering from erectile dysfunction over the last 2 months. Examination is normal except for noticeably weak pedal pulses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Chronic compartment syndrome
B Leriche syndrome
C Critical limb ischaemia
D Spinal stenosis
E Chronic deep vein thrombosis
A

Leriche syndrome.

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28
Q

A 43-year-old man, who has recently moved to the UK from Greece, has been referred for an outpatient appointment to discuss his recurrent mouth ulcers. He says that, for the past 8 months, he has regularly suffered from oral ulcers and he, quite timidly, mentions that he has also noticed ulcers on his penis. During the consultation, you notice that his eyes look quite red. When asked about it, he mentions that his eyes have been very itchy and painful recently, but attributes this to hay fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Inflammatory bowel disease
B Behçet’s disease
C Herpes simplex virus
D Syphilis
E Reactive arthritis
A

Behçet’s disease.

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29
Q

Which of the following ECG findings is associated with pulmonary embolism?

A Bradycardia
B Tall tented T waves
C Reverse tick sign
D S1Q3T3
E T wave inversion
A

S1Q3T3.

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30
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Parkinson’s disease?

A Hypomimia
B Hypophonia
C Micrographia
D Up-gaze impairment
E Wide-based gait
A

Wide-based gait.

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31
Q

What are the signs associated with liver failure?

A
A-J of liver failure.
Asterixis.
Bruising.
Clubbing.
Dupuytren's contracture.
Erythema (palmar).
Fetor hepaticus.
Gynaecomastia.
Hepatomegaly (in early cirrhosis).
Itching.
Jaundice.
Also spider naevi, leukonychia, testicular atrophy, and signs of portal hypertension: splenomegaly, GI bleeds, caput medusae, haemorrhoids, ascites.
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32
Q

What is koilonychia and what condition is it associated with?

A

Koilonychia is spooning of the nails which occurs due to chronic iron deficiency. It is associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome.

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33
Q

How is COPD diagnosed?

A

COPD is diagnosed using spirometry to measure FEV1 and FVC. An FEV1 <80% predicted (<0.8) and an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.7, which does not improve or improves very little with the administration of bronchodilators, is diagnostic of COPD. A chest X-ray may be performed which might show hyperinflated lungs (> 6 anterior ribs seen above the diaphragm), however, spirometry is the gold standard investigation.

34
Q

What are the 5 common organisms that cause bloody diarrhoea?

A
'CHESS'.
Campylobacter jejuni.
Haemorrhagic E. coli 0157.
Entamoeba histolytica.
Salmonella.
Shigella.
35
Q

What organism is the most common cause of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

E. coli 0157.

36
Q

What is giardia and how does it present?

A

Giardia is a parasite that causes giardiasis. It presents with non-bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and foul-smelling flatulence and belching.

37
Q

How is Salmonella usually acquired?

A

Ingestion of contaminated poultry.

38
Q

What is norovirus?

A

The winter vomiting bug.
Very contagious, often spreading through schools.
Causes diarrhoea, but mainly nausea and vomiting.

39
Q

How is vibrio cholerae spread and how does it present?

A

Faeco-oral route.

Rice-water diarrhoea.

40
Q

How does renal cell carcinoma usually present?

A

Triad of loin pain, palpable abdominal mass (usually unilateral), and haematuria.

41
Q

Which renal problem is strongly associated with subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Polycystic kidney disease- autosomal dominant condition that results in bilaterally enlarged kidneys, hypertension and haematuria.

42
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in the treatment of hypertension secondary to bilateral renal artery stenosis?

A

The reduced blood flow to the kidneys in renal artery stenosis is compensated by angiotensin II-mediated constriction of the efferent arteriole, which maintains pressure across the glomerulus.
ACE inhibitors reduce the production of angiotensin II, thereby reducing its vasoconstrictive effect on the efferent arteriole resulting in a drop in the pressure across the glomerulus and, hence, glomerular filtration rate.
This leads to AKI.

43
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

One of the most common causes of AKI.
Usually results form pre-renal (e.g. hypovolaemia) or intrinsic renal (e.g. nephrotoxic drugs) issues.
As tubular cells continually replace themselves, patients often recover from ATN within a few days/weeks.

44
Q

What is acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)?

A

Nephritis usually caused by an adverse drug reaction.

Symptoms include fever, rash, nausea and vomiting.

45
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A

General muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, paraesthesia of the hands and feet, lethargy, confusion and palpitations.

46
Q

What ECG changes are seen in hyperkalemia, at what K+ concentrations?

A

Tented T waves, K+ >5.5mmol/L.
Flattened P waves, K+ >6.5mmol/L.
Widened QRS complex and bradycardia, K+ >7.5mmol/L.

47
Q

How is hyperkalemia managed?

A
  1. 10ml 10% calcium gluconate- stabilises the myocardium and protects against arrhythmias but does not lower serum potassium levels.
  2. 50ml of 50% dextrose with 10U insulin- insulin drives potassium into cells and dextrose is also given to prevent hypoglycaemia.
    Salbutamol nebulisers, IV sodium bicarbonate and calcium resonium may also be used.
48
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

Rare complication of cirrhosis, characterised by hypoxaemia in patients with total hypertension.
Results from microscopic pulmonary vasodilation due to decreased hepatic clearance of vasodilators.
Vasodilation leads to hyperperfusion of the lungs and hypoxaemia.
This tends to occur at the lung bases, so patients report platypnoea (dyspnoea relieved by lying flat).

49
Q

What are the biochemical features of multiple myeloma?

A

Raised ESR.

Raised serum Ca2+.

50
Q

What is multiple myeloma and how does it present?

A

Multiple myeloma is a haematological malignancy characterised by the proliferation of plasma cells. It is associated with lytic bone lesions and excess production of a monoclonal immunoglobulin. Presenting symptoms include bone pain, pathological
fractures, recurrent infections and features of hypercalcaemia (e.g. polyuria, polydipsia and constipation).

51
Q

What is seen in serum electrophoresis in multiple myeloma?

A

A thin, dense band representing the proliferation of a monoclonal immunoglobulin.

52
Q

What are Bence-Jones proteins?

A

Monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains detected in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma.

53
Q

What are the BTS guidelines for COPD management?

A
  1. Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA e.g. ipratropium) or short-acting beta-agonist (SABA e.g. salbutamol) PRN.
  2. Add long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA e.g. tiotropium) or long-acting beta-agonist (LABA e.g. salmeterol).
  3. Consider using a LAMA + LABA or LABA with an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS).
    Symbicort = Budesonide (ICS) + Formoterol (LABA).
  4. Consider LAMA + LABA + ICS.
    Stop smoking, encourage exercise, address poor nutrition, offer influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and pulmonary rehabilitation.
54
Q

What is Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Triphasic vasculitis consisting of an allergic phase (asthma/allergic rhinitis), eosinophilic phase (high eosinophils) and vasculitic phase (organ involvement e.g. myocardial inflammation and reduced blood flow to the heart can result in death).

55
Q

What is Behçet’s disease?

A

Small-vessel vasculitis characterised by a triad of oral ulcers, genital ulcers and uveitis.

56
Q

What is gangrene and what are the subtypes?

A

Gangrene is tissue death due to poor vascular supply and is a feature of critical limb ischaemia.
Subtypes include wet gangrene (infection of the necrotic tissue), dry gangrene (necrosis without infection), and gas gangrene (infection that produces gas within gangrenous tissues, most commonly caused by C. perfringens).
Gas gangrene causes large, black sores that often have necrotic bullae (large blisters).
Crepitus may be heard due to escaping gas.

57
Q

What organisms cause necrotising fasciitis?

A

S. pyogenes and S. aureus.

58
Q

What organisms are responsible for most cases of cellulitis?

A

S. pyogenes and S. aureus.

59
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

A fibroadenoma is a benign breast tumour involving epithelial and stromal tissue.
Very common, especially in young women.
On palpation, feel firm, well-demarcated and very mobile (‘breast mouse’).
In a young patient with a lump matching the above description, no cervical lymphadenopathy or systemic signs of malignancy, a diagnosis of fibroadenoma is very likely.

60
Q

What surgery is a right Kocher incision used for?

A

Open cholecystectomy.

61
Q

What surgery is a left Kocher incision used for?

A

Splenectomy.

62
Q

What surgery is a Pfannenstiel incision used for?

A

Caesarian section, gynaecological operations.

63
Q

What surgery is a Rutherford-Morrison (hockey stick) incision used for?

A

Renal transplant.

64
Q

What incisions can be used for appendicectomy?

A

Lanz and Gridiron (McBurney’s incision).

65
Q

What is the management plan for ureteric colic?

A

Stones <5mm in diameter will be left to pass spontaneously.
Patients are encouraged to retain the stone so it can be sent for analysis which could help identify an underlying cause (e.g. hyperuricaemia leading to uric acid stones).
Stones >5mm will require surgical intervention. Procedures such as percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL), extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) and ureteroscopic lithotripsy can be used to relieve an obstruction.

66
Q

What is the best investigation for ureteric colic?

A

Non-contrast CT-KUB (kidneys, ureters and bladder).

67
Q

When is renal ultrasound performed?

A

In a patient who is at high risk of forming ureteric stones (e.g. hyperparathyroidism) to check for the presence of asymptomatic stones.

68
Q

When is cystoscopy performed?

A

To look for lesions in the bladder such as bladder tumours.

69
Q

When is urine MC+S performed?

A

In patients with suspected UTI to identify the causative organism.

70
Q

What is involved in the Tensilon test for myasthenia gravis?

A

The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium bromide, a very short-acting anticholinergic, and observing the patient’s response.
A dramatic, yet short-lived, improvement in the patient’s clinical features is suggestive of myasthenia gravis.
Rarely used- risk of causing bradycardia.

71
Q

What is the Dix-Hallpike test used for?

A

Diagnosing benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

72
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
TAILS.
Thalassaemia.
Anaemia of chronic disease.
Iron deficiency.
Lead poisoning.
Sideroblastic anaemia.
73
Q

What are the causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A
Myelodysplasia.
Multiple myeloma.
Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.
Alcohol excess.
Hypothyroidism.
Liver disease.
Haemolysis.
74
Q

What are the causes of normocytic anaemia?

A
MRI CALM.
Marrow failure.
Renal failure.
Iron deficiency (early).
anaemia of Chronic disease (early).
Aplastic anaemia (and acute blood loss).
Leukaemia.
Myelofibrosis.
75
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans and what conditions is it associated with?

A

An area of dark, velvety skin usually found in body folds (e.g. axilla).
Several endocrine conditions, such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, Cushing’s syndrome, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Paraneoplastic syndrome due to GI cancers.

76
Q

What is diabetic dermopathy?

A

Slightly depressed reddish-brown patches that most frequent occur on the shins.

77
Q

What is granuloma annulare?

A

Skin condition that looks like a ring of pink-purple skin lumps most often found on the backs of the hands and feet.
Associated with diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease.
Can occur spontaneously without disease.

78
Q

What medications are all patients with acute coronary syndrome started on acutely?

A

MONABASH.
- Morphine sulphate/diamorphine (often given with an anti-emetic like metoclopramide to help deal with the nausea caused by morphine).
- Oxygen: aiming for a saturation >94%.
- Nitrates: GTN or isosorbide mononitrate.
- Antiplatelets: aspirin and clopidogrel.
- Beta-blockers: to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, contraindicated in asthma, heart block or acute heart failure.
- ACEi: to reduce adverse cardiac remodeling and angiotensin-induced
vasoconstriction.
- Statins: reduce cholesterol levels, improve endothelial function and
maintain atherosclerotic plaque stability.
- Heparin: LMWH e.g. dalteparin.

79
Q

What drugs commonly cause gynaecomastia?

A

Oestrogens, spironolactone, digoxin and cimetidine.

80
Q

What is the most common ECG finding in PE patients?

A

Sinus tachycardia.

81
Q

When is reverse tick sign seen in ECGs?

A

Digoxin toxicity.

82
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease and what are its characteristic features?

A

Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder caused by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. Pill-rolling resting tremor, lead pipe muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, narrow gait (which is stooped and shuffling with reduced arm swing) and postural instability.
Subtler features: hypomimia (reduced facial expression), hypophonia (soft voice), micrographia (progressively smaller handwriting), up-gaze impairment, drooling tendency and furrowed eyebrows.
Psychiatric disturbances such as anxiety, depression and cognitive impairment are also common.