SASx Final Exam - Head Surgery (Dentistry, Oral, Ear) Flashcards

1
Q

What are some complications associated with mandibulectomies?

A
  • Swelling
  • Wound dehisceince (more common with rostral mandibulectomy)
  • Mandibular drifting -‘clicking’ sounds when the jaw is closed
  • Decrease ability to prehend food
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2
Q

Using the Triadan tooth numbering system, what number would identify the right maxillary middle incisor?

A

102

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3
Q

What is the most common malignant oral tumor seen in the cat?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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4
Q

What are the surgical options for lip reconstruction?

A
  • Direct apposition
  • Labial advancement flap
  • Labial rotation flap
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5
Q

The most common Class 1 malocclusions that we see are:

A

Base Narrow Canines

  • This is typically the result of retained deciduous canines. Once it impacts the soft tissues on the hard palate, it is locked in place! So if we don’t recognize this early, even if we extract the deciduous teeth, it will have no effect.*
  • If we’re going to create space, we need to do it before the soft tissue is contacted. These can become so severe that they can create oronasal fistulas*
  • ***
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6
Q

What is the dental formula for deciduous teeth in the dog?

A
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7
Q

The periodontal ligament isolates the tooth from the surrounding bone and, importantly, the ________ that remodel the surrounding bone

A

osteoclasts

The periodontal ligament isolates the tooth from the surrounding bone and, importantly, the _osteoclasts_ that remodel the surrounding bone

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8
Q

Collection of blood within the cartilage plate of the ear is termed:

A

aural hematoma

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9
Q

Where do we typically see SCC in the oral cavity cats?

A

gingiva and under the tongue

  • Gingiva and under tongue
  • Extensive bone involvement common
  • Often advanced before diagnosis is made
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10
Q

Of the viral diseases in cats, which one is known to exacerbate periodontal disease?

A

Calicivirus

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11
Q

What is the treatment for a tooth fracture?

A
  • Enamel fracture, Uncomplicated fractures
    • +/- indirect pulp capping
    • Crown restoration
  • Complicated fractures
    • Vital pulpotomy or root canal
    • Crown restoration OR „Extract tooth
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12
Q

At what age do we expect to see eruption of deciduous molars in cats and dogs?

A

the premise is false.

  • There are no deciduous molars in cats and dogs.*
  • Permanent molars should be expected around 5-7 months*
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13
Q

What is the most important thing to remember for oral cavity surgery to prevent dehiscence?

A

avoid tension on oral closure

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14
Q

What is the goal of treatment for periodontal disease?

A

to prevent development of new lesions at other sites and to prevent further tissue destruction at sites that are already affected

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15
Q

A space or gap between two teeth is termed:

A

diastema

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16
Q

What is the dental formula for adult teeth in the dog?

A
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17
Q

Removal of primary teeth to avoid or correct the problem describes what malocclusion treatment?

A

interceptive orthodontics

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18
Q

The potential space between the tooth and the gingiva is termed:

A

gingival sulcus

when you have an overgrowth of bacteria in the gingival sulcus and get destruction of the junctional epithelium (base of the gingiva that attaches to the tooth), the disease process changes from gingivitis to periodontitis

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19
Q

The treatment of choice for a ranula is:

  • Marsupialization into the oral cavity
  • Ligation of the affected duct
  • Placement of a drain through the intermandibular space
  • Excision of the sublingual and mandibular salivary glands
A

Excision of the sublingual and mandibular salivary glands​

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20
Q

What is your diagnosis?

A

amelanotic melanoma

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21
Q

What lip construction technique has been performed here?

A

labial rotation flap

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22
Q

What procedure is illustrated below?

A

Single Flap Technique for oronasal fistula repair

Bonus question: what type of flap is present in the illustration? (Single pedicle advancement flap)

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23
Q

T/F: Surgical removal of the involved gland is the definitive treatment for all mucoceles

A

True!

There are other procedures you can do depending on the patient or the condition, but they’re usually associated with a higher likelihood of recurrence… just remove the gland, don’t be a p***y

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24
Q

What is the name of this treatment for base narrow canines?

A

incline plane

If they’ve been on there for a while, often times it will look like this (picture below) when you take it off. Food debris, bacteria, etc. will build up under there and cause a fairly significant mucositis. These tend to resolve very quickly once the appliance is removed.

Treatments for this: pain relievers, decaffeinated tea rinses. It will usually heal with time

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25
Q

What are the treatment options for pulpitis?

A

monitor for progression, root canal, or extraction

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26
Q

This oral tumor arises from remnants of epithelial cells that produce periodontal ligament. It is benign, but locally invasive:

A

acanthomatous ameloblastoma

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27
Q

Which of the following tumors commonly occurs in the vertical ramus of the mandible

  • Complex odontoma
  • Undifferentiated malignant oral tumor
  • Multilobular osteochondrosarcoma
  • Central ameloblastoma
A

Multilobular osteochondrosarcoma​

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28
Q

What’s the main difference between a scaler and a curette?

A

A scaler has a sharp point. A curette does not.

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29
Q

What is the minimal sulcus depth in the normal dog? Normal cat?

A
  • Dog: 1-3 mm
  • Cat: 0-1 mm
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30
Q

Mandibular adult canines erupt ________ to deciduous canines

A

lingual

Mandibular adult canines erupt lingual to deciduous canines​

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31
Q

T/F: In dogs, there is no deciduous 1st premolar

A

True

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32
Q

T/F: Benign oral tumors can be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors do not invade the bone

A

False

Example: Acanthomatous ameloblastoma is a benign lesion that is locally invasive into bone

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33
Q

This is a benign proliferation of fibrous connective tissue containing displaced cells of dental supporting structures. Identify the tumor:

A

Peripheral Odontogenic Fibroma

Local excision is curative, if complete

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34
Q

What prognosis is associated with undifferentiated malignant oral tumors?

A

grave

Survival is often one month or less

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35
Q

In what age group of dogs do we typically see undifferentiated malignant oral tumor?

A

YOUNG DOGS (6-24 months)

These are VERY AGGRESSIVE tumors - rapid growth with early metastasis

They tend to grow on the maxilla, caudal to the canine tooth (~the same spot we normally see fibrosarcomas)

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36
Q

T/F: Oral plaque is initially Gram [+], aerobic, and non-motile cocci in the normal mouth, but as periodontitis progresses, the bacterial population changes to Gram [-], motile, anaerobic rods and spirochetes

A

True

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37
Q

What are the characteristics of a tonsilar squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A
  • Highly malignant
  • Usually unilateral
  • Early metastasis
    • > 90% to distant sites at diagnosis
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38
Q

An angled or curved root tip of a tooth is termed:

A

dilaceration

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39
Q

Identify the area(s) of periapical lucency:

A
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40
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with undifferentiated malignant oral tumors?

A

external swelling, loose teeth, pain, periorbital swelling, exophthalmos

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41
Q

If a dog has malpositioned teeth, but the jaw length is normal, this would be classified as a ________ malocclusion

A

Class 1

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42
Q

What modality is used to determine the type of tooth resorption lesion present?

A

radiographs

  • Type 1
    • Focal or multifocal radiolucencies
    • Periodontal ligament remains intact
    • Moderate to severe gingivitis and periodontitis
  • Type 2
    • Focal or multifocal radiolucencies in tooth
    • Disappearance of the periodontal ligament with varying degrees of root resorption
    • No or minimal evidence of periodontitis
  • Type 3
    • Features of type 1 and 2 in same tooth (especially multi-rooted teeth)
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43
Q

Salivary gland neoplasia is pretty rare, but adenocarcinoma is the most common. In dogs, it usually occurs in the ________ gland. In cats, it usually occurs in the ________ gland

A

Salivary gland neoplasia is pretty rare, but adenocarcinoma is the most common. In dogs, it usually occurs in the parotid gland. In cats, it usually occurs in the mandibular gland

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44
Q

T/F: Retained deciduous teeth are most commonly seen with canines and premolars

A

False

  • Retained deciduous teeth are most commonly seen with canines and incisors*
  • Retained deciduous teeth are seen most frequently in toy breed dogs and cats*
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45
Q

What is the most common malignant oral tumor in the dog?

A

melanoma

  • In general, with melanoma:
    • ​If it’s on a mucocutaneous junction or nail bed - think MALIGNANT
    • If it’s on haired skin, think BENIGN
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46
Q

What age is typically ideal for performing a complete root canal?

A

mature tooth (>24 months)

<24 months the apex may not be closed or pulp chamber is still very wide, increasing risk of failure

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47
Q

Identify the malocclusion present in this image:

A

wry mouth

Wry bite develops when the two sides of the maxilla (typically) are not growing at the same rate

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48
Q

Which of the following pairs of oral tumors occurs most commonly in maxilla caudal to canine tooth?

  • Squamous cell carcinoma, undifferentiated malignant oral tumor
  • Fibrosarcoma, acanthomatous ameloblastoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma, acanthomatous ameloblastoma
  • Fibrosarcoma, squamous cell carcinoma
  • Fibrosarcoma, undifferentiated malignant oral tumor
A

Fibrosarcoma, undifferentiated malignant oral tumor​

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49
Q

Impacted or malformed teeth can result in abscess or ________ cyst formation and should be extracted in most cases

A

dentigerous cyst

Impacted or malformed teeth can result in abscess or dentigerous cyst formation and should be extracted in most cases

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50
Q

If a tooth is partially dislocated from the alveolus but retains some attachment, this is termed:

A

tooth luxation

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51
Q

Of the crown root fractures, what type do we see most commonly?

A

slab fracture

very commonly on the upper 4th premolar

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52
Q

What type of tooth resorption lesion is present here?

A

Type 3

  • In general, don’t make your judgement completely off the radiographs
  • Features of type 1 and type 2 in same tooth
    • Most often seen in multi-rooted teeth, where one root shows type 1 features and the other root shows type 2 features
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53
Q

This is the canine equivalent to feline gingivostomatitis:

A

CUPS

  • (Canine Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis)
  • Treatment:
    • Similar to feline gingivostomatitis
    • Home care: 1-2x daily brushing
    • May require total mouth extractions to control
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54
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

bilateral rostral

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55
Q

Gingival recession with 25-50% bone loss and slight to moderate mobility is categorized as Stage ____ periodontal disease

A

Stage 3 - Moderate Periodontitis

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56
Q

What age is typically ideal for performing a vital pulpotomy?

A

young animals (<18-24 months)

can attempt in older animals, but success rate lower because pulp less resilient (<5 years)

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57
Q

What is the most common treatment for oral neoplasia?

A

surgical resection

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58
Q

When using a dental scaler, the most important thing to remember is to never use sharp tip below __________

A

When using a dental scaler, the most important thing to remember is to never use sharp tip below the gingival margin

You don’t want to risk traumatizing the junctional epithelium at the base. So these are only used supra-gingivally (ABOVE the gum line)

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59
Q

Cats have the same salivary glands as dogs, but because cats are jackasses sometimes, they have an extra salivary gland. What is it called?

A

molar salivary gland

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60
Q

What prognosis is associated with SCC in cats?

A

guarded to poor

  • Results with surgery not as good as in dogs
  • Radiation therapy can cause significant side‐effects
  • Chemotherapy: Piroxicam
  • Because these tumors tend to be more advanced by the time the diagnosis is made, achieving adequate margins is more difficult compared to dogs and local recurrence is more common than in dogs
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61
Q

Dentin is formed by ________ throughout the life of the tooth

A

odontoblasts

Dentin is formed by _odontoblasts_ throughout the life of the tooth​

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62
Q

What’s going on in this tooth?

A

enamel infraction (abraction)

  • Tooth is a dynamic structure, so it flexes and cracks. These cracks are just in the enamel
  • There is no loss of structure with this abnormality
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63
Q

What are the goals of a complete root canal?

A

remove pulp contents and seal the apex

complete removal of pulp contents and seal apex to prevent bacteria from escaping from tooth

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64
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

unilateral rostral

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65
Q

T/F: Salivary mucoceles do not need to be removed. They will go away after you remove the affected salivary glands

A

True

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66
Q

Shortening of the oral commissure is most commonly performed in conjunction with which the following surgical procedures?

  • Bilateral rostral mandibulectomy
  • Unilateral caudal maxillectomy
  • Total unilateral mandibulectomy (hemimandibulectomy)
  • Unilateral central mandibulectomy
A

Total unilateral mandibulectomy (hemimandibulectomy)​

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67
Q

What critical step of the dental cleaning process is being performed here?

A

subgingival calculus removal

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68
Q

The only visible part of the periodontium in a normal mouth is the ________

A

gingiva

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69
Q

What is the purpose of shortening the lip commissure in a total mandibulectomy?

A
  • Improves ability to prehend food and drink water
  • Prevents the tongue from lolling out to the side
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70
Q

__________ resorption is the predominant activity in tooth resorption

A

osteoclastic (odontoclastic)

odontoblasts do not play an active role in attempts at repair in most cases

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71
Q

T/F: If caught early enough, periodontitis is reversible with proper treatment and home care

A

False

Periodontitis can be controlled, but not completely reversed

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72
Q

What is the cingulum?

A

The shelf on the inside (palatal) surface of the maxillary incisors where the mandibular incisors occlude or “rest”

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73
Q

How would you treat this?

A

remove excessive tissue to return sulcus depth to normal

  • The image shows gingival hyperplasia
    • ​Etiology:
      • ​Focal: due to periodontal disease
      • Generalized: often seen in boxers
      • Drugs: cyclosporine, calcium channel blockers, anticonvulsants
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74
Q

Shown below is a double flap technique for oronasal fistula repair. The “hinge” flap receives its blood supply from the __________ so elevation of this flap toward the fistula must be done carefully to avoid damaging the blood supply

A

nasal mucosa

The “hinge” flap receives its blood supply from the nasal mucosa so elevation of this flap toward the fistula must be done carefully to avoid damaging the blood supply

75
Q

What anatomic landmark is used to determine where to section a multi-rooted tooth prior to extraction?

A

furcation

76
Q

Name the three lymphocentrums that drain the oral cavity:

A

mandibular, parotid, retropharyngeal

77
Q

T/F: Dental scalers are used for supra- or sub-gingival calculus removal and root cleaning

A

False!

  • A curette is used for supra- or sub-gingival calculus removal and root cleaning*
  • You don’t want to risk traumatizing the junctional epithelium at the base. So dental scalers are only used supra-gingivally (ABOVE the gum line)*
78
Q

Draining tract associated with the teeth is called a:

A

parulis

This type of opening at the mucogingival line or beyond it is most likely caused by endodontic disease. If you see it and it is coronal, it is more likely to be caused by periodontal disease

79
Q

This illustration shows excision of the mandibular and sublingual salivary glands. What structure is indicated by the pink arrow? What about the cyan arrow?

A

digastricus muscle and lingual nerve

80
Q

Retained tooth root tips usually should be removed. What are the two primary exceptions?

A

Type II and III tooth resorptive lesions

Root tips may be intentionally left in these cases but owner should be informed

81
Q

Level bite is a Class 3 malocclusion and leads to abnormal wear on incisors commonly repaired by tertiary dentin. This type of wear is called:

A

attrition

82
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

central

83
Q

When is a double flap technique used for oronasal fistula repair?

A

congenital defects and chronic fistulas where the oral mucoperiosteum has healed to nasal mucosa

84
Q

What is the #1 preventative method for periodontal disease?

A

GOOD HOME CARE!

  • mechanical abrasion, surface acting agents (brushing their teeth)*
  • Useful to start daily tooth brushing prior to professional therapy (try an inexpensive powered toothbrush)*
85
Q

What is considered the best treatment for gingivostomatitis?

A

Tooth extraction

the sooner, the better - and must get ALL of the tooth including the entire root(s)

86
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Type 2 tooth resorption lesions?

A

amputate the crown and superficial root structure and leave ankylosed part of the root since it is being absorbed anyway

You can extract the entire tooth if root structure and pulp chamber are still discernable, but this is very difficult

87
Q

Periodontal index of 4 means there is >____% gingival attachment loss

A

>50%

  • Periodontal index of 4 means there is >50% gingival attachment loss*
  • At this level, undoubtedly there is some pathologic tooth mobility and it is imminent that the tooth will be lost*
88
Q

What diagnostic modality is required for diagnosing impacted teeth?

A

dental radiographs

89
Q

Which of the following is the most important reason for achieving complete filling of the pulp chamber during a complete root canal?

  • It prevents staining of the tooth
  • It significantly increases the strength of the tooth
  • It minimizes risk of periapical inflammation and failure of the root canal
  • It insures survival of the periodontal ligament
A

It minimizes risk of periapical inflammation and failure of the root canal​

90
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

caudal mandibulectomy

91
Q

What diagnostic modality is most sensitive for diagnosing middle ear disease?

A

MRI

92
Q

The portion of the pulp that is below the crown is the ________

A

root canal

93
Q

Is this draining tract more likely caused by endodontic disease or periodontal disease?

A

endodontic disease

This type of opening at the mucogingival line or beyond it is most likely caused by endodontic disease. If you see it and it is coronal, it is more likely to be caused by periodontal disease

94
Q

The adult maxillary canine tooth erupts in what location relative to its deciduous counterpart?

  • Rostral
  • Caudal
  • Palatal (medial)
  • Labial (lateral)
A

rostral

95
Q

What are inflammatory polyps? Where are they usually located?

A

Inflammatory polyps are benign, fibrous, pedunculated masses that may be found in the oropharynx, middle ear, or external ear canal.​

96
Q

The most common tumor of the middle ear, inner ear, and pinna in cats is:

A

squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

97
Q

Gingivitis is stage ____ periodontal disease

A

Stage 1

98
Q

Stages of periodontal disease are based on several criteria. List them.

A
  • Gingival appearance
  • Sulcular (sulcus) depth
  • Percentage of bone loss
  • Tooth mobility
99
Q

Identify the area(s) of root resorption:

A
100
Q

Identify the tragus

A
101
Q

The objective of a vital pulpotomy is to:

A

maintain a viable tooth that will continue to mature

The pulp is necessary to maintain dentin (a dynamic structure). Without a viable pulp, the tooth will become dehydrated and more brittle over time

102
Q

Most likely diagnosis?

A

oral melanoma

  • Locally invasive
  • Metastasize early to regional lymph nodes and lungs
  • Gingiva > labial and buccal mucosa > palate > tongue
  • Melanotic and amelanotic
103
Q

This is a collagenous connective tissue structure extending from cementum to periosteum:

A

periodontal ligament

  • Two types of fibers: PDL fibers and Sharpey’s fibers
  • Periodontal ligament functions
    • Attaches teeth to alveolus
    • Absorbs shock from the impact of occlusal forces and transmits them to the alveolar bone
    • Supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum via arterioles and drainage via venules and lymphatics
    • Provides tactile and proprioceptive information - essential in coordinating the neuromuscular activity of mastication
104
Q

What malocclusion is present in this image?

A

posterior cross bite

maxillary premolars are lingual to mandibular premolars or molars (they shouldn’t be)

105
Q

T/F: Periodontitis is a site-specific disease

A

True!

106
Q

T/F: There is a vaccine that is approved for the treatment of melanoma

A

True

107
Q

When using the Triadan tooth numbering system, the canine teeth will always end with _____ and the 1st molar will always end with ____

A

When using the Triadan tooth numbering system, the canine teeth will always end with 04 and the 1st molar will always end with 09

108
Q

What are some complications associated with maxillectomies?

A
  • Wound dehiscence with oronasal fistula
  • Bilateral rostral maxillectomy caudal to canines will allow nose to droop and affect prehension of food
109
Q

The most common oral disease that we deal with in dogs and cats is:

A

periodontal disease

  • Most common oral disease
  • Present in >70-85% of dogs and cats over 3 years of age
  • Number 1 cause of tooth loss
  • More common now due to diet, malocclusion
110
Q

A four year old Golden retriever is presented after the owner found a nonulcerated firm mass in the hard palate at the level of the upper fourth premolar. This presentation is most consistent with which one of the following oral tumors?

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
  • Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
  • Fibrosarcoma
A

Fibrosarcoma​

Oral fibrosarcomas occur most frequently in the gingiva of the maxillary dental arcade, especially between the canine tooth and fourth premolar. The hard palate is another common site of occurrence. They occur more commonly in large breeds (Golden Retriever). In older dogs, fibrosarcomas are usually firm, slow growing tumors that ulcerate less frequently than other types of oral tumors.

111
Q

What is wrong with this tooth?

A

pulpitis

  • tooth has a purple discoloration. May be reversible, but not often. The older the patient, the less likelihood the pulp will survive.*
  • Radiographs are used to determine whether the tooth is viable*
112
Q

__________ is the most common disease of tooth structure in domestic felines

A

tooth resorption (TR)

113
Q

Using the Triadan tooth numbering system, what number would identify the left mandibular 4th premolar?

A

308

114
Q

The portion of the pulp that is above the crown is the ________

A

pulp chamber

115
Q

What is the difference between apical and coronal?

A
  • Apical always means toward the root (away from the crown)
  • Coronal means toward the crown
116
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

total mandibulectomy

117
Q

What is the most frequent location for oral fibrosarcoma in the dog?

A

maxilla - caudal to the canine tooth

118
Q

In this image, the mandible is too long. This is a Class ___ malocclusion

A

Class 3

119
Q

T/F: If you notice there is a deciduous tooth that is missing, it is generally safe to assume that the adult tooth will also be missing in that location

A

True

Deciduous buds form in utero, which give rise to permanent buds also in utero

120
Q

A client comes in all flustered and freaking out. You’re all like, “Calm down, what’s going on?” and they’re all like, “YOU WON’T BE TELLING ME TO CALM DOWN WHEN YOU SEE THIS THING IN MY DOG’S MOUTH!” Then they show you this image below and you’re all like:

A

“Please stop speaking in all CAPS. It’s a normal structure called the incisive papilla”

121
Q

What is tight lip syndrome? What breed is most commonly affected?

A

The lower lip is so tight that it may cover the incisors and cause trauma when the mouth is closed.

Most common in Shar Pei

122
Q

What are the ‘big three’ malignant oral tumors in the dog?

A
  1. Malignant melanoma
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Fibrosarcoma
123
Q

What important anatomic structure is shown below?

A

mucogingival line

area where alveolar mucosa and attached gingival tissues meet

124
Q

How do you treat odontogenic tumors?

A

surgical resection

Primary treatment will be surgical resection. They ARE radiosensitive as well, but consider the side effects of radiation therapy

125
Q

In this image, the mandible is too short. This is a Class ___ malocclusion

A

Class 2

126
Q

Actinic keratosis is caused by actinic damage to lightly pigmented or non-pigmented, sparsely haired skin on the nose or trunk. If medical treatment fails, what treatment is indicated?

A

pinnectomy

127
Q

Using the Triadan tooth numbering system, what number would identify the right mandibular 1st molar?

A

409

128
Q

Disappearance of the periodontal ligament with varying degrees of root resorption occurs with Type ____ tooth resorption lesions

A

Type 2

  • Focal or multifocal radiolucencies in tooth
  • Disappearance of the periodontal ligament with varying degrees of root resorption
  • No or minimal evidence of periodontitis
129
Q

What is the second most common malignant oral tumor in dogs?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

  • Biological behavior varies with location
    • Tonsillar vs. Nontonsillar
    • Nontonsillar – the further caudal in the mouth the worse the prognosis
130
Q

An 8 year old Doberman presents with this lesion on the maxilla, caudal to the canine tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

fibrosarcoma

131
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Type 1 tooth resorption lesions?

A

extract entire tooth

Since often associated with periodontitis and endodontic disease, complete extraction is indicated

132
Q

When is a lateral ear canal resection indicated in a case of otitis externa?

A
  • When skin changes are reversible
  • Tumor involving tragus or lateral wall of vertical canal
133
Q

A central ameloblastoma is a non-inductive odontogenic tumor that arises from __________

A

dental laminar epithelium

May be cystic or multiloculated with considerable bone destruction

134
Q

Gingival recession with >50% bone loss and advanced tooth mobility is categorized as Stage ____ periodontal disease

A

Stage 4 - Advanced Periodontitis

135
Q

Crowding is seen most commonly in brachycephalic breeds. Which teeth are most frequently affected?

A

maxillary 3rd premolars

If this is not interfering with closing the mouth, eating, etc. and it is not causing any discomfort, this does not need to be specifically addressed

136
Q

Name three treatment options for attrition

A
  • orthodontic correction
  • crown reduction
  • extraction
137
Q

If a dog has mandibular prognathism (undershot), this would be classified as a ________ malocclusion

A

Class 3

138
Q

T/F: Maxillectomies are typically associated with more hemorrhage than mandibulectomies

A

True

especially if nasal turbinates are affected

139
Q

Dryness of the mouth is termed:

A

xerostomia

140
Q

If a tooth is completely displaced from the alveolus, this is termed:

A

tooth avulsion

  • If a tooth is avulsed, you MUST keep the tooth moist (saliva, milk, saline)*
  • Flush the tooth with saline if it is dirty, but DO NOT use antiseptics or scrape the surface*
141
Q

What is the postoperative care after a maxillectomy or a mandibulectomy?

A
  • IV fluids for the 1st 24 hours
  • Pain meds
  • Most will drink & eat day after surgery
  • Feeding tube for ¾ mandibulectomy cases
142
Q

Using the Triadan tooth numbering system, what number would identify the left maxillary canine?

A

204

143
Q

Abrasions are caused by abnormal contact with crown surface by foreign object (tennis balls, cages, rocks, etc.). How do you treat this?

A

remove offending objects and monitor pulp exposure and crown fractures

  • You must establish if there is endodontic exposure! Probe with explorer. If it enters the chamber, then you must extract or do a root canal!*
  • Reparative dentin is brown and hard*
144
Q

You note this abnormality in your patient’s mouth. It has a soft leathery appearance and a brownish color. What is your diagnosis?

A

dental caries

  • Treatment:
    • ​Indirect or direct pulp capping
    • Root canal
    • Extraction
145
Q

Anterior cross bite is considered a Class ___ malocclusion

A

Class 1

146
Q

This cat presented with ptyalism, halitosis, dysphagia, anorexia, and weight loss. What is your diagnosis?

A

gingivostomatitis

  • Etiology: unknown
    • Calicivirus, bacterial, or immunological - “allergic to plaque”
    • Siamese, Abyssinians, Persians, Himalayans, Burmese
  • Signs
    • Ptyalism, halitosis, dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss
  • Diagnosis: Histopathology, clinical signs, typical history
147
Q

What are the four major salivary glands in the dog?

A

parotid, mandibular, sublingual, zygomatic

148
Q

Which salivary gland is most commonly affected with salivary mucocele?

A

sublingual

removing the polystomatic portion of the sublingual salivary gland is an important part to consider for treatment

149
Q

Carnassial tooth root abscesses are a common problem in dogs. The carnassial teeth are the:

  • Maxillary and mandibular 4th premolars
  • Maxillary and mandibular 1st molars
  • Maxillary 4th premolar and mandibular 1st molar
  • Maxillary 1st molar and mandibular 4th premolar
A

Maxillary 4th premolar and mandibular 1st molar​

150
Q

What instrument is used to assess access into the pulp cavity and assess for dental caries lesions?

A

periodontal probe/explorer

151
Q

What type of mandibulectomy is shown here?

A

3/4 mandibulectomy

152
Q

This radiograph shows ________ formation due to an un-erupted canine tooth

A

cyst

153
Q

Enamel is formed by ________ on the crown of the tooth prior to eruption

A

ameloblasts

Enamel is formed by ameloblasts on the crown of the tooth prior to eruption​

154
Q

What are the top four systemic antibiotics that are used for treatment of periodontal disease?

A
  1. Clindamycin
  2. Clavamox
  3. Metronidazole
  4. Doxycycline

Keep in mind that we don’t always use antibiotics!

155
Q

Local recurrence is more commonly seen with fibrosarcomas than with melanoma and squamous cell carcinoma in dogs. Why?

A

margins are more likely to be dirty since tumors cells often extend beyond the apparent edge of tumor

156
Q

What are ‘wide margins’ with regard to oral surgery?

A

1-2 cm

1-2 cm around the edge of the mass in all directions

157
Q

An 8 year old German shepherd is presented to you for an annual check-up. You note a slab fracture in 108 (PM4) . The owner is unaware of when it occurred but says she hasn’t noticed any changes in the dog’s eating habits. You confirm exposure of the pulp chamber with your dental explorer. Based on the information available which of the following would be most appropriate course of action?

  • Tell the owner to just continue monitoring the dog for evidence of pain and to contact you if noted.
  • Tell the owner that the tooth is not necessary for function so extraction is the best treatment option.
  • Tell the owner that either vital pulpotomy or complete root canal is the best treatment option because the tooth is necessary since the dog is fed dry food.
  • Tell the owner that either complete root canal or extraction can be performed and explain the risks/benefits of each option
A

Tell the owner that either complete root canal or extraction can be performed and explain the risks/benefits of each option​

158
Q

Would you say this is a very young animal or a very old animal?

A

very young animal

The pulp chamber is huge and the wall of the tooth is very narrow

159
Q

T/F: Marsupialization is the treatment of choice for ranulas

A

False

  • Marsupialization is a salvage procedure for high risk patients (poor anesthesia candidates, etc.).*
  • The treatment of choice for a ranula is surgical excision of the mandibular and sublingual salivary glands*
160
Q

The periodontal ligament remains intact with what type of tooth resorption lesion?

A

Type 1

  • Focal or multifocal radiolucencies
  • Periodontal ligament remains intact
  • Moderate to severe gingivitis and periodontitis
  • Very frequently associated with periodontal disease
161
Q

Subcutaneous (submucosal) accumulation of saliva within a nonepithelial, nonsecretory lining is descriptive of:

A

salivary mucocele

162
Q

What is the difference between a complicated and an uncomplicated tooth fracture?

A
  • Complicated: pulp exposed
  • Uncomplicated: pulp not exposed
163
Q

The picture shows a 3.5 month dog with a fractured canine tooth resulting in exposure of the pulp chamber. The most appropriate treatment for this case is:

A

extraction

164
Q

What type of tooth resorption lesion is present here?

A

Type 2

  • Focal or multifocal radiolucencies in tooth
  • Disappearance of the periodontal ligament with varying degrees of root resorption
  • No or minimal evidence of periodontitis
165
Q

If a dog has mandibular brachygnathism (parrot mouth, overshot), this would be classified as a ________ malocclusion

A

Class 2

166
Q

What are the odontogenic tumors?

A

central ameloblastoma and odontoma (complex and compound)

167
Q

T/F: With regard to non-tonsilar squamous cell carcinoma, the more caudal the tumor is in the mouth, the better the prognosis

A

False

The more caudal the tumor is in the mouth, the worse the prognosis. Tumors in the caudal part of the mouth are often larger at Dx making it more difficult to get adequate margins.

168
Q

T/F: Supernumerary teeth are most often incisors and/or premolars

A

True

  • More commonly seen in the premolars*
  • **Remove supernumerary teeth if causing malocclusions***
169
Q

Electrical burns in the oral cavity are most commonly a result of chewing on electrical cords. In addition to the local injury seen, what complication is also commonly seen, especially in cats?

A

pulmonary edema

exact mechanism is not fully understood, but it is a pretty common complication

170
Q

Identify the areas of horizontal bone loss:

A
171
Q

An odontoma is an inductive odontogenic tumor and can be classified as compound or complex. How would you classify the odontoma shown below?

A

compound odontoma

  • Compound odontomas contain tooth structures in various stages of development. With complex odontomas, dental tissues are not differentiated enough to resemble teeth*
  • (I would be able to ID this picture)*
172
Q

What is the most common site for a lip avulsion?

A

mucogingival junction

  • Suture reconstruction is effective for maxillary lesions*
  • Reconstruction of lower lip often fails because of the weight of lip (in this case, place interdental stent sutures to support weight of lip first, then suture mucogingival junction*
173
Q

Name two salvage procedures for uncorrectable palatal defects:

A

acrylic appliances and nasal septal button

174
Q

T/F: Enamel is not replaced if it is damaged

A

True

175
Q

How do you manage inflammatory polyps?

A

traction extraction or ventral bulla osteotomy

  • Traction extraction
    • Although traction has been used to remove masses when there is no evidence of otitis media, performing a ventral bulla osteotomy in conjunction with this procedure is recommended to decrease the recurrence rate.
    • If traction-avulsion alone is used, concurrent treat- ment with an antiinflammatory
  • Ventral bulla osteotomy
    • Most commonly done in cats for polyps
    • The best results are seen when a ventral bulla osteotomy is performed; with this procedure, the recurrence rate is less than 2%. Ventral bulla osteotomy should always be performed if middle ear disease is evident on radiography or CT.
176
Q

Tetracycline given when teeth are developing will stain them ________

A

yellow

dentin is the affected layer

No treatment is needed except for cosmetics - can be bleached or resin bonded. Doxycycline is much less of a problem than tetracycline

177
Q

What structures do you need to avoid during a TECA and where are they located?

A
  • Facial nerve (just caudal to the horizontal ear canal)
  • Auricular artery (at the medial aspect of the vertical canal)
178
Q

What is the most common complication associated with gingivectomy?

A

generation of excess heat, causing alveolar necrosis

this is the result of not fully understanding the surgical method (electrosurgery, radiosurgery)

179
Q

T/F: Some degree of tooth mobility is normal

A

True

  • This is referred to as physiologic mobility and represents the movement of a tooth within the periodontal ligament space*
  • Movement in excess of physiologic mobility is referred to as pathologic mobility*
180
Q

This cat presented to the emergency room with episodes of severe oral bleeding. What structure are we concerned about in this area of the mouth when we see ulceration?

A

greater palatine artery

this is where the greater palatine artery comes into the oral cavity, so watch out for erosion through this artery!

181
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with Horner’s syndrome?

A

ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos, and protrusion of the third eyelid​

Horner’s syndrome may occur as a complication associated with TECA - as a result of damage to the sympathetic trunk as it courses through the middle ear

182
Q

Identify the anthelix

A
183
Q

T/F: When extracting a canine tooth, it is important to make your incision over the center of the alveolus

A

False

  • The incision should start in the diastema, rostral to the alveolus.*
  • If you incise directly over the alveolus and you discover an oronasal fistula (or create an oronasal fistula), it will increase the risk of wound healing complications*
184
Q

Using the Triadan tooth numbering system, what number would identify the right maxillary carnassial tooth?

A

108