Sample Questions NAVLE DrPaMoEs Flashcards
Which of the following statements is true about pinworm infections in mice?
There is no good treatment for pinworms in
mice
Infections always result in diarrhea
The worms inhabit the descending colon in mice
Heavy parasite loads may lead to rectal prolapse
Answer: Heavy parasite loads may lead to rectal prolapse
The correct answer is heavy parasite loads may lead to rectal prolapse. Pinworms (Syphacia obvelata and Aspicularis tetraptera) in mice inhabit the cecum. Most infections are subclinical and treatment involves administration of piperazine sulfate. Ivermectin may be used as well.
Most bladder stones in rabbits are primarily composed of?
- Magnesium
- Urate
- Phosphorus
- Cysteine
- Calcium carbonate
Answer: Calcium carbonate
The correct answer is calcium carbonate, although there seem to be multiple causes of formation of cystic calculi. One major component is that rabbits will absorb calcium through their GI tract at a rate directly proportional to the amount of calcium in their diet regardless if they need it or not. Excess calcium is then excreted through the kidneys.
A 3 1/2 year old castrated male ferret presents for episodes of lethargy. He has also been intermittently dragging the pelvic limbs. Which of these choices is a likely cause of these signs in this ferret?
Insulinoma
Renal carcinoma
Adrenal tumor
Diabetes mellitus
Answer: Insulinoma
The correct answer is insulinoma. This condition is common in ferrets and would cause bouts of lethargy. Intermittent pelvic limb weakness is another manifestation of systemic weakness secondary to hypoglycemia. Renal carcinoma is not common in ferrets. Adrenal tumors and diabetes mellitus usually are accompanied by different clinical signs.
Which of the following diseases is not commonly associated with beak abnormalities?
- Polyoma virus
- Liver failure
- Cnemidocoptes infestation
- Psittacine beak and feather disease
Answer: Polyoma virus-
The correct answer is Polyoma virus. The virus usually results in lethargy, anorexia, depression, and death. The death may be acute in nature, and it is likely that there will be no beak abnormalities.
Whenever you observe beak abnormalities, you should rule out liver disease. Cnemidocoptes infestations lead to a honeycomb-like beak.
Broiler chickens often develop lesions that negatively impact welfare in which part of their bodies due to the rapid muscle growth that they experience?
Feet and legs
Reproductive organs
Comb
Breast muscle
Head
Answer: Feet and Legs
Rapid growth is associated with limb and foot
lesions in broilers.
A 20-year old mare is presented for a dermal nodule on her head. An aspirate of the mass reveals that it is a mast cell tumor. What is the prognosis for this horse?
- Guarded, the tumors do not metastasize, but they are locally aggressive and are difficult to excise completely.
- Grave, the tumor has already metastasized and the life expectancy of the horse is no longer than 1 month.
- Good; the tumors are benign and excision is usually curative.
- Poor, the tumors have often metastasized by the time they are diagnosed.
Answer: Good; the tumors are benign and excision is usually curative.
The correct answer is good; the tumors are benign and excision is usually curative. Mast cell tumors in horses are benign. They can occur anywhere on the horse, but are often found in the dermis or subcutis of the head or legs. The tumors may also invade underlying musculature, but are often walled off by aggregates of fibrous stroma.
A guinea pig presents to your emergency clinic for oral petechia and loose teeth. You also note a rough hair coat on physical exam. What nutritional disorder is common in guinea pigs and can lead to the signs described?
- Hypovitaminosis D
- Hypovitaminosis A
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypovitaminosis C
- Hypervitaminosis A
Answer: Hypovitaminosis C
The correct answer is hypovitaminosis C. Guinea pigs are frequently deficient in vitamin C and can develop scurvy. Vitamin C is necessary for collagen synthesis, and deficiency leads to a rough hair coat, loose teeth, petechia, and lameness. It is treated with vitamin C injections, as multivitamins can lead to vitamin A and D toxicosis. Leafy green vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin C.
An owner just arrived from a camping trip with his dog.
He is worried about his dog that seems to have undergone a change in behavior after being attacked by a wild animal. Additionally, the owner thinks that the dog’s voice has actually changed. What is your top differential?
Canine Distemper
Rabies
Botulism
Tetanus
Answer: Rabies
The correct answer is rabies. If it sounds like it could be rabies, diagnose it until proven otherwise.
The signs to focus on are attacked by a wild animal, a behavior change, and a voice change.
This should put rabies at the top of your list. This dog is exhibiting signs of the prodromal stage of rabies. Canine distemper is a potential differential, but you will most likely see other symptoms such as respiratory and Gl signs. Tetanus will manifest itself as rigidity and botulism as flaccid paralysis.
Remember that any animal with an acute behavioral change or flaccid paralysis is a rabies suspect.
You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eating.
The groin and prepucial area are extremely swollen. The camel is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- Trypanosoma evansi
- Clostridium tetani
- Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
- Rabies virus
Answer: Clostridium tetani
This camel is showing signs of tetanus. The organism was likely introduced into the body through the castration wound. It is recommended that camels are vaccinated against tetanus prior to castration.
Reference: Trop Anim Health Prod. 2004 Apr;36(3):217-24.
While rabies may cause paralysis of the tongue and difficulty swallowing, the recent history of castration in this camel makes tetanus most likely.
Trypanosoma evansi is transmitted via biting flies and causes a slow wasting disease in camels.
A one year old rescued iguana presents for further evaluation as a result of poor growth. Survey radiographs show osteopenia and evidence of remodeling suggestive of a previous fracture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Metabolic bone disease
- Gout
- Hypovitaminosis C
- Primary hypoparathyroidism
Answer: Metabolic bone disease
The correct answer is metabolic bone disease.
Other things to look for are a pliable mandible and maxilla. Usually, you will see bowing of the long bones with rounding of the skull. The disease usually occurs as a result of secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism or hypovitaminosis D.
Gout results from a primary overproduction of uric acid or an inability to excrete uric acid.
You and your hospital are interested in purchasing a $30,000 ultrasound machine. Which of the following factors will have the biggest influence on whether such a purchase will be profitable?
- The interest rate on the loan for the purchase
- Whether the machine is purchased vs. leased
- Marketing and pricing
- The cost of insuring the machine
Answer: Marketing and pricing
Determining whether to lease or purchase new equipment, current interest rates, and other costs are all very important considerations. However, the ability to make such a purchase profitable hinges on the ability to successfully market the product and services associated with it and the associated prices that will be charged.
A 2-year old MN DSH has recently been treated for a urethral obstruction. He went home last week from the hospital on an acidifying canned diet for this condition.
The owner reports he is passing urine in moderate amounts, but he is still straining frequently. You reexamine the cat and find that the bladder is empty on palpation and the wall feels a little thickened. You are confident that the cat has not re-blocked and the cat’s bloodwork shows normal electrolytes and renal values.
Which of the following medications may help the cat with this problem?
- Amitriptyline
- Phenoxybenzamine
- Phenylpropanolamine
- Methocarbamol
- Prednisolone
Answer: Phenoxybenzamine
This cat is likely suffering from hypertonicity of urethral muscle, which was incited from the recent obstruction and urinary catheter. This can cause spasms, which makes urinating painful and not easily controlled. Phenoxybenzamine can be used in this case to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone such that the cat may urinate more easily.
Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant but would not directly help spasms of the urethra.
Prednisolone is not used to help reduce inflammation or spasms in the urethra and may predispose the cat to contracting a urinary infection, especially while his bladder and urethra are compromised.
Pheny|propanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence from urethral hypotonicity most often in dogs and would be contraindicated in this case.
Amitriptyline is an anti-depressant medication that has been implicated as part of a treatment plan for cats with cystitis, although benefit has never been proven. Because cats with cystitis can flare up during times of stress, the amitriyptyline has been thought to help prevent this. This medication would not work to stop spasms in the urethra.
A 2-year old MN DSH has recently been treated for a urethral obstruction. He went home last week from the hospital on an acidifying canned diet for this condition.
The owner reports he is passing urine in moderate amounts, but he is still straining frequently. You reexamine the cat and find that the bladder is empty on palpation and the wall feels a little thickened. You are confident that the cat has not re-blocked and the cat’s bloodwork shows normal electrolytes and renal values.
Which of the following medications may help the cat with this problem?
Amitriptyline
Phenoxybenzamine
Phenylpropanolamine
Methocarbamol
Prednisolone
Answer: Phenoxybenzamine
This cat is likely suffering from hypertonicity of urethral muscle, which was incited from the recent obstruction and urinary catheter. This can cause spasms, which makes urinating painful and not easily controlled. Phenoxybenzamine can be used in this case to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone such that the cat may urinate more easily.
Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant but would not directly help spasms of the urethra.
Prednisolone is not used to help reduce inflammation or spasms in the urethra and may predispose the cat to contracting a urinary infection, especially while his bladder and urethra are compromised.
Pheny|propanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence from urethral hypotonicity most often in dogs and would be contraindicated in this case.
Amitriptyline is an anti-depressant medication that has been implicated as part of a treatment plan for cats with cystitis, although benefit has never been proven. Because cats with cystitis can flare up during times of stress, the amitriyptyline has been thought to help prevent this. This medication would not work to stop spasms in the urethra.
Which of the following is an appropriate objective in the repair of an articular fracture in a dog?
- 6-8 weeks of strict post-operative rest
- Early return to function
- Avoid rigid fixation of the fracture
- 50% or greater alignment
Answer: Early return to function
The correct answer is early return to function.
With articular fractures, the 3 major goals of the clinician are:
1) Rigid fixation of the fracture fragments; neglecting to do this will result in loose fracture fragments within the joints that will promote osteoarthritis.
2) Anatomic realignment (50% or even 75% is not adequate with articular fractures, in contrast to long bone fractures)
3) Early return to function. With long bone fractures, extended rest is recommended to promote stability and healing of the bone. The opposite is true in articular fractures where prolonged rest after repair will promote fibrosis, causing decreased range of motion in the joint.
An obese, sedentary, female Bichon Frise of 5 months of age walks into your clinic as a result of having mucus-laden diarrhea of one-week duration. You perform a gram stain of the feces and visualize “gull-shaped” gram-negative rods. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Salmonellosis
- Cryptosporidium
- Campylobacteriosis
- Clostridioides difficile
Answer: Campylobacteriosis
The correct answer is Campylobacteriosis. This is a gram negative motile, thin, S-shaped or gull-shaped rod. It can occur singly, in pairs, or in chains. C. jejuni is most commonly isolated. You can also isolate this organism with fresh fecal swabs streaked onto Campylobacter blood agar plates, which grows in an oxygen-reduced atmosphere in 3-4 days.
Salmonella is a gram-negative bacillus. C. difficile is a gram-positive rod.
Cryptosporidium is a coccidian parasite. Fun Fact:
Kids with puppies are 16 times more likely to acquire Campylobacteriosis.
What is the duration of a mare’s estrous cycle?
- 9-15 days
- 19-26 days
- 41-52 days
- 27-37 days
- 53-60 days
Answer: 19-26 days
The correct answer is 19-26 days. Estrus in a mare can last 2-10 days but, on average, is 6 days long.
The mare is a polyestrous animal from the beginning of spring through summer. The estrous cycle’s duration lasts 19-26 days.
A 6-year old West Highland White Terrier comes in to see you for the mucopurulent ocular discharge as seen in the photo below. A Schirmer tear test shows no tear production. What is the treatment of choice for chronic canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca?
A. Systemic cyclosporine and antibiotics
B. Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids
C. Topical cyclosporine and systemic corticosteroids
D. Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid
Answer: Topical cyclosporine and a topical corticosteroid
The correct answer is topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid. The treatment of KCS is aimed at reducing immune destruction of the lacrimal glands.
Topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) and a topical steroid (frequently in a triple antibiotic/steroid ointment) are the treatment of choice. You should be cautious using steroids in acute cases due to the risk of corneal ulceration.
Zoonotic diseases commonly carried by raccoons include rabies and
- Toxocara
- Baylisascaris
- Echinococcus
- Trichinella
Answer: Baylisascaris
The correct answer is Baylisascaris.
Baylisascaris procyonis is an ascarid parasite of raccoons that causes mild signs in raccoons but can undergo aberrant migration in humans and cause fatal central nervous system signs.
Which of the following can be treated with enalapril?
- Acute renal failure
- Hypotension
- Protein-losing nephropathy
- Protein losing enteropathy
Answer: Protein-losing nephropathy
Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor used as a vasodilator, antihypertensive agent, and heart failure treatment. It works by preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin Il, thus reducing aldosterone concentrations and causing diuresis.
Its dilatory effects on the efferent arterioles of glomeruli help to palliate protein losing nephropathies. It is often used in conjunction with diuretics.
A 3-year old indoor/outdoor domestic short hair cat presents with a history of lethargy and decreased appetite. T= 103.1 F/ 39.5 C, P= 200 bpm, R= 36. On exam you note a swelling over the bridge of the nose and on fundic exam see some dark circular lesions in the retinas. The disease you suspect in this cat may have been transmitted by which of the following?
- Puncture wound from contaminated soil
- Scratch from another cat
- Ingestion of oocyts from raw meat
- Inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings
Answer: Inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings
Cryptococcus is a genus of encapsulated yeast that is often associated with or found in pigeon droppings and eucalyptus trees. The spores are most often inhaled from the environment where these are present. Cats with cryptococcus will often develop a swelling over the bridge of the nose and lesions in the retinas.
Sporothrix is a fungus found in the soil (“rose grower’s disease”) and is introduced into the body via a puncture from a thorn or through an open wound or cut when exposed to contaminated soil.
Toxoplasmosis may be transmitted through ingestion of raw meat.
A 3-day-old Suffolk male lamb presents in sternal recumbency with increasing abdominal distension and mild colic (see image). The lamb was bright and alert for the first 2 days of life but has since stopped suckling its dam. Clinical examination reveals that the lamb has no anus. What should you recommend?
Surgical correction is frequently succesful
Medical management with antibiotics and analgesics are necessary until the problem resolves
There is no effective treatment and the lamb should be euthanized
This is normal in lambs and will resolve within 1-2 weeks
Answer: Surgical correction is frequently succesful
Atresia of the colon, rectum and anus can all occur congenitally. Often, the clinical sign first noted is progressive abdominal distension. In this case, atresia ani was detected on clinical exam but atresia of the colon or rectum may require radiography to diagnose. Surgical establishment of anal patency can be performed for atresia ani whereas a permanent colostomy may be required for atresia of the colon and rectum.
If surgical correction is attempted, the animal should probably be neutered because of the potential genetic basis for this condition. To perform the surgical correction, a slight bulge in the skin may be present where the anus should be located in lambs or ultrasound can be used to detect the fluid filled rectum. After surgical preparation and local anesthetic injection, an incision to remove the skin over the rectum should be made.
Post-surgically, antibiotics and either mineral oil, DSS, or stool softeners should be given as needed. If possible, twice daily insertion of a thermometer to prevent stricture is preferred.
A 3-year-old Standardbred gelding presents with epiphora, blepharospasm, and severe pain of the right eye (see image). There are numerous treatment options. Which medication would be contraindicated for this case?
Serum
Neomycin and polymyxin B and dexamethasone (Neo-Poly-Dex)
EDTA
Tobramycin
Tropicamide
Banamine
Answer: Neomycin and polymyxin B and dexamethasone (Neo-Poly-Dex)
The correct answer is Neo-Poly-Dex. This is an illustration of a melting ulcer. Any corneal ulcer, whether it is superficial or deep, can be perpetuated by steroid use such as the dexamethasone in this medication.
Steroids increase protease activity causing the “melting” pathology, whereas, one of the primary goals in managing corneal ulcers is to decrease protease activity by using EDTA and serum.
Aggressive topical antibiotic use is also essential. Tobramycin, gentamicin, and neomycin-polymyxin B-bacitracin, among others are appropriate. Intravenous banamine is the drug of choice for ocular pain and inflammation in horses.
Tropicamide is used for its mydriatic and cycloplegic effect because all animals with corneal ulcers have uveitis.
Atropine is an alternative to tropicamide. It is important to note, even though atropine has a longer duration of action than tropicamide, atropine must be used with extreme caution in horses as it may potentiate colic.
Several lambs in a hobby flock are reported to be acting sick and not eating. On examination of the affected lambs, you note low grade fevers and lesions around the gums, and in some cases, the proliferative lesions seen in the photo. Several ewes also have similar lesions on their teats. Your diagnosis is
Bovine papular stomatitis
Contagious ecthyma
Foot and Mouth disease
Pseudocowpox
Bluetongue
Answer: Contagious ecthyma
Also known as orf and soremouth, CE is mainly a disease of sheep and goats. It also affects humans, as do the other two parapox viruses, bovine papular stomatitis and pseudocowpox, which are found in cattle. CE is rarely fatal but causes lesions in mouths of lambs/kids and sometimes on the teats of the mothers, making nursing a problem.
The virus remains in the scabs that fall off.
Several lambs in a hobby flock are reported to be acting sick and not eating. On examination of the affected lambs, you note low grade fevers and lesions around the gums, and in some cases, the proliferative lesions seen in the photo. Several ewes also have similar lesions on their teats. Your diagnosis is
Bovine papular stomatitis
Contagious ecthyma
Foot and Mouth disease
Pseudocowpox
Bluetongue
Answer: Contagious ecthyma
Also known as orf and soremouth, CE is mainly a disease of sheep and goats. It also affects humans, as do the other two parapox viruses, bovine papular stomatitis and pseudocowpox, which are found in cattle. CE is rarely fatal but causes lesions in mouths of lambs/kids and sometimes on the teats of the mothers, making nursing a problem.
The virus remains in the scabs that fall off.
A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents to you for colic. During your work up, you note a painful enlargement at the root of the mesentery on rectal palpation. You suspect that the cause of the horse’s colic are adults from the egg shown in the picture below. Which of the following drugs effectively kills the adult organisms that can cause this condition?
A. Piperonyl butoxide
B. Metronidazole
C. Rifampin
D. Praziquantel
E. Ivermectin
Answer: Ivermectin
Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesenery is suspicious for verminous arteritis caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris. The strongyle egg shown in the picture confirms the cause in this question. A number of anthelmintics are effective including benzimidazoles, pyrantel and ivermectin.
Praziquantel is effective against tapeworms. Rifampin and metronidazole are antibacterial drugs. Piperonyl butoxide is a pesticide synergist used in insecticide mixtures in horses.
A nine-year-old Quarterhorse mare is presented with a right hind limb lameness. She tends to drag the right toe, and has a stabbing gait in that limb (adducts hindlimb, then suddenly abducts it just before the hoof hits the ground). Hock flexion of the right hind significantly exacerbates the lameness for 5-6 strides. A radiograph of the hock is taken, shown below. What is the common name for this problem?
- Osselets
- Bone spavin
- Tarsal hydrathrosis
- Splints
- Ringbone
Answer: Bone spavin.
This is bone spavin, an osteoarthritis/degenerative joint disease of the distal hock joints, usually affecting the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal articulations. The number one hock problem (tarsus) in horses.
If the horse is lame due to bone spavin, it tends to drag toe or have “stabbing” gait in the affected hindlimb. Occasionally you may see thickening of the soft tissues over distal hock joints. The problem can be unilateral or bilateral with various degrees of lameness.
Typical Tx: intra-articular steroids and hyaluronic acid, phenylbutazone as needed, continue with work. Over time distal hock joints are likely to ankylose (fuse) on their own and lameness ends. Additional treatments include shockwave, bisphosphonates, alcohol arthrodesis, cunean tenectomy or neurectomy.
Tarsal hydrarthrosis (bog spavin) is a chronic synovitis of the tarsocrural joint - look for swelling and distention of the joint capsule.
Link: Synovitis / Capsulitis of the Tarsocrural Joint in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/synovitis-capsulitis-of-the-tarsocrural-joint-in-horses
You are asked to perform a necropsy on a 17-year old Standardbred mare on a large horse ranch. Although not related to the cause of death, you notice the parasite shown in the image within the stomach. You tell the owner that this parasite is also responsible for the eggs that he sees seasonally on the hair of the front legs of his horses. The owner asks what should be done about this. You discuss the importance of promptly cleaning up feces and transporting feces away. In addition, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for ongoing control of this parasite?
- Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall
- Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the winter
- Administer Fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early summer and again in late summer
- Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the fall
- There is no need to treat these parasites because they are not associated with disease in horses
Answer: Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall
This case describes the appearance of the horse bot fly, Gasterophilus spp. Gasterophilus is frequently asymptomatic but treatment is recommended because bots can cause gastritis and frequently are a source of annoyance and stress to horses. In addition, the larval instars can cause stomatitis, and colic.
The key to answering this question regarding optimal treatment and management is an understanding of the Gasterophilus life cycle. Gasterophilus undergoes complete metamorphosis, including three larval instars and only one generation is produced per year. The general cycle typically begins with the female ovipositing 150-1,000 eggs on a horse during the early summer months directly on single hairs of the horse’s front legs (especially around the cannon bone area) as well as the abdomen, flanks, and shoulders. The eggs are approximately 1-2mm long and are pale to grayish yellow attached near the tip of the hair.
The eggs develop into first instar larvae within five days and they are stimulated to emerge by the horse licking or biting at the fully developed eggs. The larvae then crawl to the mouth or are ingested and subsequently bury themselves in the tongue or gingiva and remain for approximately 28 days. The larvae molt to the second stage and move into the stomach. The second and later third stage larvae typically attach to the lining of the stomach in the non-glandular portion near the junction of the esophageal and cardiac regions where they remain immobile for the following 9 to 12 months.
The third instar larvae are relatively large, between 1-2cm long with a rounded body, narrow, hooked mouthparts, and spines. The hooked mouthparts enable the larvae to securely attach to the lining of the stomach and intestinal tract. After the third instar larvae have matured, they detach from the gastrointestinal tract and pass from the horse’s body in the feces. The larvae burrow into the soil or dried manure where they pupate and remain for the next one to two months. This stage of the life cycle occurs between late winter and early spring.
Based on this life cycle, the recommended management protocol is typically to treat with an avermectin to control adults and all larval stages by administering in the early summer, shortly after any eggs are seen and again in the fall at the end of the botfly season. Such a control program will substantially reduce fly numbers.
Cytological evaluation of a blood smear from a sick horse reveals the following (see below). Which constellation of signs would you expect in a typical acute case of a horse with this disease?
- Nystagmus, head tilt, strabismus
- Limb edema, ventricular arrhythmias, ataxia
- Fever, petechiations, hemolytic anemia
- Weight loss, partial anorexia, poor performance
- Elevated serum liver enzymes, hyperammonemia, head-pressing
Answer: Fever, petechiations, hemolytic anemia
This cytology shows Babesia caballi, one of the causative agents of equine piroplasmosis (the other is Theileria equi - looks like a maltese cross under the microscope) and acute disease is characterized by fever, petechiations, and signs consistent with hemolytic anemia.
Piroplasmosis is characterized by hemolytic anemia and is spread primarily by ixodid ticks or blood contamination. It is endemic in tropical, subtropical, and some temperate regions.
It is REPORTABLE in the USA.
Clinical infection can be acute, chronic, or inapparent, depending on strain, the horse’s health, and geographic region.
Acute clinical signs include those described here along with lethargy, anorexia, pale or icteric mucous membranes, and with worsening disease - tachycardia, tachypnea, weakness, and hemoglobinuria. Weight loss, poor performance, and partial anorexia can be seen along with mild anemia in horses with chronic piroplasmosis.
Dx: Demonstrate intra-erythrocytic organisms on blood smear and/or serology.
Rx: Imidocarb dipropionate and supportive care. There is a different duration of Tx depending on whether in endemic or nonendemic region (because trying to treat clinical signs in endemic region vs. clear disease in nonendemic region).
Limb edema, ventricular arrhythmias, and ataxia (the latter two uncommonly) can be seen with Anaplasma phagocytophila infections in horses, along with fever, petechiations, icterus, and depression.
Link: Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis?redirectid=31747
Key Information on Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
Etiology and Transmission
• Causative Agent: Anaplasma phagocytophilum. • Vector: Ixodes ticks (e.g., I. pacificus, I. scapularis). • Transmission: Tick bites; seasonal occurrence.
Clinical Signs
• Fever: Up to 107°–108°F. • Symptoms: Depression, limb edema, ataxia, anorexia, icterus, petechiation. • Blood Abnormalities: Leukocytopenia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia, cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in neutrophils.
Diagnosis
• Tests: PCR, serology, blood smear (Giemsa or Wright-Leishman stain). • Differential Diagnoses: Viral encephalitis, equine infectious anemia, liver disease.
Treatment and Control
• Antibiotics: Oxytetracycline. • Supportive Care: Corticosteroids, fluid therapy, pain management. • Prevention: Tick control; no vaccine available.
