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SAM 4 > sam 3 mt2 2021 > Flashcards

sam 3 mt2 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

Rabies Vs Aujeszky disease – difference in symptoms in dogs and cats

  • Paraesthesia is common in Aujeszky disease; attacking behaviour is common in rabies
  • Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis are common in Aujeszky disease; paraesthesia is common in rabies
  • Dysphagia do not occur in Aujeszky disease, only in rabies; lung oedema is characteristic in Aujeszky disease
  • Rabies does not occur in cats; only Aujeszky disease
A
  • Paraesthesia is common in Aujeszky disease; attacking behaviour is common in rabies
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2
Q

Which is the most common reason of seizure in a young adult dog?

  • Congenital heart disease
  • Primer epilepsy
  • Portosystemic shunt
  • Cerebral neoplasia
A
  • Primer epilepsy
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3
Q

Which antiepileptic drug is the first choice in the chronic treatment of epileptic dog?

  • Phenobarbital and imepitoin
  • Potassium bromide
  • Levetiracetam
  • Diazepam
A
  • Phenobarbital and imepitoin
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4
Q

Which DOES NOT cause secondary immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia?

  • Microsporum
  • Mycoplasma
  • Babesia
  • Haemangiosarcoma
A
  • Microsporum
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5
Q

Why is the multifil suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the gastrointestinal organs?

  • Expensive
  • High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the
    suture material)
  • Tensile security properties are worse
  • Knot security properties are worse
A
  • High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the suture material)
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6
Q

Which statement is true?

  • In case of haemolytic anaemia the plasma can be clear
  • Elevated thrombocyte count is a feature of pancytopenia
  • In case of acute blood loss, microcyter hypochromic anaemia develops within
    a few hours
  • Babesia and mycoplasma infections are causing non-regenerative anaemia
A
  • Babesia and mycoplasma infections are causing non-regenerative anaemia
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7
Q

Suturing of an enterotomy wound

  • Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
    layers
  • Multifil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2
    layers
  • Monofil, absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/continuous suture
    pattern, in 1 layer (seromuscular)
  • Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous
    suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)
A
  • Monofil, non-absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous suture pattern, in 1 layer (all layers)
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8
Q

Lissencephaly (lyssencephalon) is:

  • Complication of hydrocephalus
  • Congenital under-development of sulci and gyri of the cortex
  • One type of metabolic storage disorders of the brain
  • Histopathological alteration of the brain as a sequel of rabies (lyssa)
A
  • Congenital under-development of sulci and gyri of the cortex
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9
Q

Which drug can be used to stop seizures?

  • Diazepam
  • Propofol
  • Both
  • None of the above
A
  • Both
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10
Q

Which statement is true?

  • Botulism is caused by Coli bacteria and its main symptom is flaccid paresis
  • Tetanus is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
  • Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid
    paresis
  • Tetanus is caused by Coli bacteria and the main symptom is muscle spasm
A
  • Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
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11
Q

Which blood parameters should be examined in anaemic patients?

  • SDMA, cPL, GGT, ALB, P
  • TCa, K, AST, CK, LDH
  • T4, TLI, CRP, ALT, GLDH
  • TP, TBr, APTI, PTI, ACT
A
  • TP, TBr, APTI, PTI, ACT
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12
Q

From which thrombocyte count (G/l) can we expect bleeding because of
thrombocytopenia?
* <50
* 50-100
* 100-200
* 200-400

A
  • <50
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13
Q

What is the most characteristic localization of vertebral body tumours?

  • The middle third of the vertebral body
  • The end plates
  • Multifidarius processes
  • Articular process
A
  • The middle third of the vertebral body
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14
Q

Which is an absolute indication for surgical treatment?

  • Acute Hansen type 1 discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception
  • Atlantoaxial instability with neck pain
  • Discopondylitis
  • Cauda equina syndrome combines with severe hip dysplasia
A
  • Acute Hansen type 1 discus prolapsus with paraplegia without deep pain perception
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15
Q

Which disease is acute?

  • Type 1 discopathy
  • Type 2 discopathy
  • Lumbo-sacral instability
  • Tumour
A
  • Type 1 discopathy
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16
Q

Incubation period of rabies

  • Usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected
  • Symptoms start 3-7 days after infection
  • Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection
  • Usually 1-2 weeks, but can be shorter if the front limbs of the patient had been bitten
A
  • Usually 2-3 months, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected
17
Q

Which cannot be a symptom of transversal myelopathy?

  • Postural deficits
  • Lameness
  • Ataxia
  • Hyperreflexia
A
  • Lameness
18
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply?

  • Left gastric
  • Left gastroepiploic
  • Short gastric
  • Splenic
A
  • Left gastric
19
Q

How can we diagnose deep pain perception?

  • Pinching the patient’s finger pulls it away
  • After pinching the patient’s finger extend the limb on the opposite side
  • By pinching the patient’s finger it pulls it out and turns it on his head vocalizes or ties to bite
  • Following painful stimulation the cutaneous trunci muscle contracts
A
  • By pinching the patient’s finger it pulls it out and turns it on his head vocalizes or ties to bite
20
Q

What does DAMNIT-V schema stand for?

  • For differentiating between hydrocephalus and brain stem hypoplasia during the physical examination of the neurological system
  • For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases
  • For grading the severity of the neurological lesions of the spinal cord during myelography
  • For prognosis
A
  • For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases
21
Q

Regarding brain lesions which parts of the brain can be distinguished?

  • Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum.
  • Forebrain, diencephalon, cerebellum.
  • Cerebral hemispheres, pons, medulla oblongata.
  • Forebrain, diencephalon, spinal cord.
A
  • Forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum.
22
Q

Which is the first choice in case of Hansen type 1 disc protrusion?

  • Lateral corpectomy
  • Fenestration
  • Total laminectomy
  • Hemilaminectomy
A
  • Hemilaminectomy
23
Q

On the basis of Modified Glasgow Coma Scale we can evaluate the prognosis of the
patient with head trauma according to:

  • Pupil size, motor activity, consciousness
  • Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes
  • Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
  • Pupil size, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
A
  • Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, consciousness
24
Q

Why is permethrin toxic to cats?

  • Pyrethrins inhibit Ca/Mg ATPase in nervous tissue
  • Ca-oxalate monohydrate crystals mechanically damage the kidneys
  • In case of MDR1 mutation the drug gets into the central nervous system
  • In feline liver the glucuronidase activity is low and thus the compound can accumulate and reach toxic levels
A
  • In feline liver the glucuronidase activity is low and thus the compound can accumulate and reach toxic levels
25
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

  • The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for
    surgical indication
  • The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
A
  • The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
26
Q

which diagnostic tool is good for diagnosing fibrocartilago embolism?

-x-ray
-CT
-MRI
-Liquor cytology

A

-MRI

27
Q

which artery is NOT directly participating in blood supply of the spleen?

  • a. gastrica sin
  • a. gastroepiploica sin
  • a. gastricae breves
  • a. lienalis
A

a. gastrica sin

28
Q

in which cases cytology of the liquor can be helpful to evaluate?

  • hansen type III discopathy
  • wobbler syndrome
  • hemivertebrae
  • meningomyelitis
A
  • meningomyelitis

SAM 4 (16 decks)

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