4 Flashcards

1
Q

RIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with
1. Azotemia
2. Anaemia, metabolic acidosis
3. Uremia
4. Decreased specific gravity of urine

A
  1. Decreased specific gravity of urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which one of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria

  1. Small sized proteins appear in the urine
  2. UPC >2
  3. UPC <0
  4. Ketonuria
A
  1. Small sized proteins appear in the urine

UPC: 0,5-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The creatinine level of dogs and cats with IRIS stage 1 chronic kidney disease is

  1. Normal <140
  2. > 240 umol/L
  3. > 340 umol/L
  4. 440 umol/L
A
  1. Normal <140
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IRIS classification of CKD. Wrong answer

  1. 4 stages determined by serum creatinine levels
  2. Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated
  3. Substages based on presence of proteinuria
  4. Substages based on degree of hypertension
A
  1. Stage 1 the creatinine is only mildly elevated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease… which answer is wrong?

A
  1. Hypophosphataemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The progression of renal disease is caused by… Which is not correct?

  1. Proteinuria
  2. Isosthenuria
  3. Hyperparathyroidism
  4. Glomerular hypertension
A
  1. Isosthenuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which statement is true about the progression of CKD?

  1. Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons
  2. Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive production of parathormone
  3. The progression of CKD is generally reversible with specific therapy
  4. The loss of functional nephrosis leads to an increase in the glomerular filtration rate
A
  1. Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It prolongs the survival of dogs and cats with chronic kidney disease

  1. Increased phosphorus intake
  2. Medical reduction of proteinuria
  3. Urinary diet
  4. ABC are all true
A
  1. Medical reduction of proteinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which therapy is not recommended for the treatment of dehydration in chronic kidney disease?

  1. Administration of intravenous infusion
  2. Administration of subcutaneous infusion
  3. Increase of water consumption
  4. Dialysis treatment
A
  1. Dialysis treatment
    - overhydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is not an indication for dialysis treatment?

  1. Anuric acute kidney injury
  2. Polyuric acute kidney injury unresponsive to fluid therapy
  3. Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis
  4. Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis
A
  1. Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients include… Which answer is not correct?

  1. Renal diet, phosphate binders
  2. ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs
  3. Erythropoietin inj., potassium supplementation
  4. Diuretics per os
A
  1. Diuretics per os
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In case of elevated blood creatinine concentration

  1. The animal is uremic azote
  2. The animal has kidney disease
  3. The animal has azotemia
  4. The animal was fed with too much protein
A
  1. The animal has azotemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

  1. PDS
  2. Polyglyconate
  3. Gltcomer
  4. Polyglycaprone
A
  1. Polyglycaprone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

  1. Double layer continuous lembert
  2. Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture
  3. Single layer seromuscular continuous suture
  4. Double layer interrupted lembert
A
  1. Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following findings indicates the diagnosis of the urinary bladder rupture?

  1. If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized patient
  2. If the urine is blood obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a traumatized patient
  3. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
  4. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography
A
  1. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of the lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of urinary bladder tumours?

  1. Double contrast cystography
  2. Ultrasonography
  3. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
  4. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria
A
  1. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease. Which answer is wrong?

  1. Hypertension
  2. PU/PD
  3. Hypophosphatemia
  4. Hypokalaemia
A
  1. Hypophosphatemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is not typical for acute kidney failure?

  1. Azotaemia
  2. Hypokalaemia
  3. Oliguria, anuria
  4. Metabolic acidosis
A
  1. Hypokalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury? Which answer is wrong?

  1. Hypotension, dehydration
  2. Overhydration with crystalloid infusion
  3. Hypothermia, NSAID therapy
  4. Antibiotics, chemotherapy
A
  1. Overhydration with crystalloid infusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

trenal azotzemia… Which is the wrong answer?

  1. May be due to urethral obstruction
  2. May cause kidney damage without treatment
  3. May be due to severe dehydration
  4. May be due to ureter rupture
A
  1. May be due to severe dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which one of the following is not typical in case of acute kidney injury

  1. Cachexia
  2. Vomitus
  3. Metabolic acidosis
  4. Uraemic ulcer
A
  1. Cachexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which one of the following is not typical in case of babesiosis?

  1. Myoglobinuria
  2. Icterus
  3. Vomitus
  4. Acute kidney injury
A
  1. Myoglobinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in male dogs

  1. Urethral hydropropulsion
  2. Prescrotal urethrostomy
  3. Scrotal urethrostomy
  4. Perineal urehtrostomy
A
  1. Urethral hydropropulsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Perineal urehtrostomy
True about urohyudropropulsion

  1. Requires good surgical skills
  2. No sedation is required
  3. Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with special shunt
  4. This technique may be suitable for removing small stones from the urinary bladder
A
  1. This technique may be suitable for removing small stones from the urinary bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy

  1. Castration can prevent urinary incontinence
  2. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
  3. Easily dissectable urethrenlargeal section, wide and safe stoma
  4. The cystotomy can be avoided
A
  1. Easily dissectable urethrenlargeal section, wide and safe stoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following factors does not affect the success of feline perineal urethrostomy?

  1. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stoma
  2. Transection of bulbospongiosus muscle
  3. Transection of ischiocavernosus muscle
  4. Type of suture material
A
  1. Transection of bulbospongiosus muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which one of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?

  1. Partial nephrectomy nephrosis
  2. Unilateral nephroureteroectomy
  3. Kidney drainage
  4. Euthanasia
A
  1. Unilateral nephroureteroectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following does not cause hydronephrosis?

  1. Urethral stricture associated with previous surgery
  2. Urethral torsion
  3. Urethral tumor
  4. Urethrolithiasis
A
  1. Urethral torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Possible causes of hydronephrosis, which is the wrong answer?

  1. Ureter stone
  2. Granuloma formation following neutralization
  3. Ascending infection
  4. Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder
A
  1. Granuloma formation following neutralization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes of acute nephrosis.. Which is wrong?

  1. Immune complex deposition
  2. Renal ischaemia
  3. Nephrotoxic materials
  4. Hemoglobin, myoglobin
A
  1. Immune complex deposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis?

  1. Diagnosis is made based on the typical US image of the kidneys
  2. Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high
  3. An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment
  4. Serum albumin level is increased
A
  1. Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Oliguria definition dog

  1. Urine output less than 50 ml/ttkg/day
  2. Urine output less than 100 ml/ttkg/day
  3. Urine output less than 30 ml/ttkg/day
  4. Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day
A
  1. Urine output less than 6-10 ml/ttkg/day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Oliguria in the dog/etiology

  1. Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra
  2. Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis
  3. Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease
  4. Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies
A
  1. Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

  1. It can occur bilaterally
  2. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
  3. It can be caused by congenital disorder
  4. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths
A
  1. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment of nephritis

  1. ACE inhibitors, omega-3 fatty acids
  2. Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis
  3. Systemic antibiotics (?)
  4. Fluid therapy
A
  1. ACE inhibitors, omega-3 fatty acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of kidney disease:

  1. Blood urea creatinine measurement
  2. Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels
  3. Urine sediment evaluation and urine specific gravity measurement
  4. Detection of proteinuria
A
  1. Measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by… Which answer is wrong from the list below?

  1. The demonstration of calcium-monohydrate crystals in urine sediment
  2. The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood
  3. Detection of ethylene glycol in urine
  4. The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography
A
  1. The demonstration of calcium-monohydrate crystals in urine sediment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following uroliths appears in case of ethylene-glycol toxicosis?

  1. Struvite
  2. Calcium-oxalate dihydrate
  3. Calcium-oxalate monohydrate
  4. Purine
A
  1. Calcium-oxalate monohydrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Antidote of ethylene glycol toxicosis:

  1. Etil alcohol
  2. Fomepizole
  3. Both
  4. Neither
A
  1. Both
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following uroliths appears usually in case of dog’s bacterial cystitis?

  1. Urate
  2. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
  3. Cystine
  4. Struvite
A
  1. Struvite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which treatment is not recommended in feline interstitial cystitis (FIC)?

1.Increased water intake
2. Facial pheromones
3. Urine acidification
4. Adding toys, scratching posts, climbing, hiding places, additional litters

A
  1. Urine acidification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is not true for feline interstitial cystitis ?

  1. (FIC) Antibiotics (AB) are useless
  2. Affected cats mostly fed dry food
  3. Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals
  4. Affected cats are mostly neutered animals
A
  1. Affected cats are mostly outdoor animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do you treat a cat with FIC

A
  1. Increase water intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following means urination not at the proper place?

  1. Stranguria
  2. Pollakiuria
  3. Dysuria
  4. Periuria
A
  1. Periuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which is not a contributing factor concerning lower UTI?

  1. Incontinence
  2. Corticosteroid therapy
  3. FIC
  4. Fanconi syndrome
A
  1. Fanconi syndrome

(renal tubule acidosis, renal glucosuria, cystinuria: kidney)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This antibiotic (AB) is not excreted with the urine thus is not a proper treatment for UTI

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Rifampicin
  4. Trimetoprim-szulfonamid
A
  1. Rifampicin
47
Q

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals? Which answer is wrong?

  1. Hematuria, pollakiuria
  2. Stranguria, dysuria
  3. Polyuria, azotemia
  4. Periuria, incontinence
A
  1. Polyuria, azotemia
48
Q

This feline lower urinary tract disease can be accompanied by crystalluria

  1. Idiopathic cystitis
  2. Urolithiasis
  3. Bacterial cystitis
  4. All 3
A
  1. Allc3
49
Q

The most common lower urinary tract disease of cats

  1. Prostate disease
  2. Idiopathic cysts
  3. Urolithiasis
  4. Bacterial cystitis
A
  1. Idiopathic cysts
50
Q

The second most common lower urinary tract disease of dogs

  1. Prostate disease
  2. Sterile cystitis
  3. Urolithiasis
  4. Bacterial cystitis
A
  1. Urolithiasis
51
Q

Most common causes of lower urinary tract diseases in dogs

  1. Bladder tumor, prostate alterations
  2. Anatomical disorders, foreign bodies
  3. Bacterial infection, urolithiasis
  4. Interstitial cystitis, mycoplasma
A
  1. Bacterial infection, urolithiasis
52
Q

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs

  1. Diet
  2. AB
  3. Urine acidification
  4. All 3
A
  1. All 3
53
Q

What is the most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?

  1. Neutering in bitches
  2. Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection
  3. Dietary anomaly
  4. Inadequate response to stressors
A
  1. Chronic bacterial urinary tract infection
54
Q

What is the cause of purine urolithiasis?

  1. Hyperuricosuria
  2. Portosystemic shunt
  3. Chronic liver disease
  4. All 3
A
  1. All 3
55
Q

In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle and body condition?

  1. Struvite
  2. Calcium oxalate
  3. Purine
  4. Cystine
A
  1. Calcium oxalate
56
Q

Fanconi syndrome symptoms in dogs: which answer is wrong?

  1. Glucosuria
  2. Metabolic acidosis
  3. Aminoaciduria
  4. Ketonuria
A

Ketonuria

  1. Glucosuria –> renal glucosuria
  2. Metabolic acidosis –> renal tub. acidosis
  3. Aminoaciduria –> cystenuria
57
Q

fanconi syndrome is not characterized by

A
  1. Central diabetes insipidus
58
Q

Renal cysts

  1. Are always congenital
  2. Are always bilateral
  3. Are mainly incidental findings
  4. Generally cause renal failure
A
  1. Are mainly incidental findings
59
Q

Renal amyloidosis typically found in… Which cat breed?

  1. Persian
  2. Siamese
  3. Abyssinian
  4. Bengal
A
  1. Abyssinian
60
Q

Renal amyloidosis typically found in… Which dog breed?

  1. Basenji
  2. Shar-pei
  3. Hungarian vizsla
  4. Poodle
A
  1. Shar-pei
61
Q

Renal amyloidosis is typically not caused by

  1. Chronic inflammatory processes
  2. Neoplastic process
  3. Chronic liver disease
  4. Genetic (familiar) causes
A
  1. Chronic liver disease
62
Q

What is not true about renal glycosuria? (chronic tubular disease)

  1. It is caused by glomerular disease
  2. Plasma glucose levels are normal
  3. Can have genetic causes
  4. May be a part of fanconi syndrome
A
  1. It is caused by glomerular disease
63
Q

Cause of glomerular diseases in small animals. Not correct

  1. Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane
  2. Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials
  3. Amyloidosis
  4. Congenital/acquired basement membrane/podocyte injur
A
  1. Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials (AKI)
64
Q

How would you treat a diagnosed cat with interstitial cystitis?

  1. Antibiotics
  2. Urine acidifying diet
  3. Catheterization, flushing the bladder with isotonic saline
  4. Increase water
A
  1. Increase water
65
Q

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia?

  1. Kidneys are typically enlarged on US with a thick cortex
  2. In such cases, there are usually no changes in the urine, only in the blood
  3. Common symptoms are polyuria and polydisia
  4. On a physical examination the kidneys are usually painful
A
  1. Common symptoms are polyuria and polydisia
66
Q

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium level during the treatment of hyperkalaemia? Choose the wrong answer

  1. IV calcium
  2. Potassium free infusion and furosemide
  3. Glucose containing infusions
  4. Rapid acting insulin applications
A
  1. IV calcium
67
Q

What is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal failure?

  1. Inadequate vitamin D production
  2. Poor absorption of calcium from the GI tract
  3. Retention of phosphorous
  4. Nephrocalcinosis
A
  1. Retention of phosphorous
68
Q

The following is not true about polycystic kidney disease

  1. Is often asymptomatic
  2. Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the cyst
  3. Ultrasound examination is required to make a diagnosis
  4. Treatment is often surgical
A
  1. Treatment is often surgical
69
Q

Not true about polycystic kidney disease

  1. Painful kidney
  2. Hematuria
  3. Don not have >1 year to live
  4. Inherited
A
  1. Don not have >1 year to live
70
Q

The most effective gastric protectant for dogs with chronic kidney disease is:

  1. Pantoprazole
  2. Famotidine
  3. Sucralfate
  4. Benazepril
A
  1. Pantoprazole
71
Q

The application of this drug is not recommended to improve the appetite of cats with chronic kidney disease

A
  1. Pantoprazole
72
Q

Which urinary stone type can not be dissolved medically?

  1. Struvite
  2. Cystine
  3. Purine
  4. Calcium oxalate
A
  1. Calcium oxalate
73
Q

it typically causes acute or chronic kidney disease: pre-existing chronic kidney disease, plus:

  1. Polypoid cystitis
  2. Hemodynamic disturbance
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hepatopathy
A
  1. Hemodynamic disturbance
74
Q

Until what level is it recommended to increase the hematocrit (Ht) with erythropoietin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

  1. Until Ht is 22-25%
  2. Until Ht is around 30%
  3. To normal range
  4. The success of the treatment does not depend on the Ht value
A
  1. Until Ht is around 30%
75
Q

When is it recommended to start erythropoetin/darbepoetin therapy in chronic kidney disease?

  1. If cyanosis is already occurring due to hypoxia
  2. When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%
  3. Only when clinical signs of hypoxia are already present, not earlier
  4. If the systolic blood pressure is >180 mmHg
A
  1. When the hematocrit level drops to 18-20%
76
Q

Recommended concomitant with erythropoietin/darbepoetin

  1. Subcutaneous infusion, because the side effect of treatment is often dehydration
  2. Gastric protection, because the side effect of treatment is often ulcer formation
  3. Mirtazapine because the side effects (SE) of treatment is often anorexia
  4. Iron and B12
A
  1. Iron and B12
77
Q

Hypercholesterolemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease

  1. Glomerulopathies of dogs
  2. Chronic kidney disease of cats
  3. Acute kidney injury of dogs
  4. Fanconi syndrome
A
  1. Glomerulopathies of dogs
78
Q

Which statement is correct about glomerulopathies?

  1. 75% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis
  2. 50% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis
  3. 15% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin
  4. 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin
A
  1. 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin
79
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter

  1. It may cause dysuria
  2. In acquired form, the incontinence recurring
  3. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
  4. The urinary incontinence is always constant
A
  1. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
80
Q

Ectopic ureters… Which answer is wrong?

  1. Are usually causing constant urine dripping
  2. Are occuring only in females
  3. Can be diagnosed by x-ray or CT-exam
  4. Can be diagnosed with cystoscopy
A
  1. Are occuring only in females
81
Q

Which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter?

  1. Labrador
  2. Husky
  3. German shepherd
  4. West highland white terrier
A
  1. German shepherd
82
Q

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters?

  1. Cystoscopy
  2. Double contrast cystography
  3. Intravenous urography pneumocystography
  4. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-)
A
  1. Cystoscopy
83
Q

Which treatment does not affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases?

  1. Feeding renal diet
  2. Adding phosphorous binders to the diet
  3. ACE inhibitor therapy
  4. Vitamin D administration
A
  1. ACE inhibitor therapy
84
Q

What statement is correct? case of renal traumatic bleeding

  1. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
  2. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathogenic
  3. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
  4. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes
A
  1. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
85
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate ultrasonography?

A
  1. It can differentiate cyst from abscess urolithiases
86
Q

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

  1. Marsupialisation
  2. Omentalisation
  3. Drainage
  4. Puncture
A
  1. Puncture
87
Q

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, which diagnosis is not probable?

  1. PKD
  2. Hydronephrosis
  3. Lymphoma of the kidneys
  4. Renal fibrosis
A
  1. Renal fibrosis
88
Q

Prerenal azotemia… Which is the wrong answer?

  1. May be due to dehydration
  2. May cause kidney damage without treatment
  3. Can be corrected with fluid therapy
  4. May be caused by urine leakage into the abdomen
A
  1. May be caused by urine leakage into the abdomen
89
Q

Persistent, prerenal proteinuria…

  1. Is a typical characteristic of urinary tract infections
  2. Occurs after heavy physical activity
  3. Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it
  4. Is a typical characteristic of leptospirosis
A
  1. Bence-jones proteins are typical examples for it
90
Q

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by

  1. Renal diet
  2. Antihypertensive drugs
  3. ACE-inhibitors
  4. All 3
A
  1. All 3
91
Q

Which is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?

  1. Determination of the blood creatinine and urea values
  2. Determination of the urine specific gravity by a refractometer
  3. Detection of severe proteinuria
  4. Examination of the urine sediment
A
  1. Detection of severe proteinuria
92
Q

To determine the urine concentrating ability of the kidneys we use

  1. Blood urea levels
  2. Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC)
  3. Urine specific gravity with a refractometer
  4. Blood creatinine and SDMA levels
A
  1. Urine specific gravity with a refractometer
93
Q

Not a typical laboratory alteration in CKD:

Hypolalemia
Anemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis

94
Q

What is your diagnosis if glucosuria appears in case of euglycemia?

  1. Cushing’s disease
  2. Addison’s disease
A
  1. Addison’s disease
95
Q

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not correct:

  1. Lack of erythropoietin
  2. GI bleeding/ulcers
  3. Decreased survival of RBC
  4. Hemolysis
A
  1. Hemolysis
96
Q

Which statement is true for pyelonephritis?

  1. The bacteria usually reach the renal pelvis from the systemic circulation
  2. We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis
  3. On US we find shrunken kidneys
  4. Usually the urinary sediment is unchanged because the inflammation is limited to the renal pelvis
A
  1. We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis
97
Q

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by… Which answer is wrong?

  1. Hemoculture in case of azotaemia
  2. The histological examination of a renal biopsy specimen
  3. Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine cultures
  4. The microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture
A
  1. Hemoculture in case of azotaemia
98
Q

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis?

  1. 1-2 weeks of AB therapy is required
  2. Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing
  3. Treatment if anemia should be started as soon as possible
  4. Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, thus unilateral nephrectomy is the solution
A
  1. Aspiration of pus and rinsing of the renal pelvis accelerated healing
99
Q

Treatment of pyelonephritis: Which answer is wrong?

  1. ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids
  2. Puncture and flushing of the renal pelvis
  3. Systemic AB
  4. Fluid therapy
A
  1. ACE-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids
100
Q

True. Subclinical bacteriuria

  1. Asymptomatic
  2. Only mild lower UTI symptoms
  3. Pyelonephritis may be suspected
  4. Bacteria in urine as usually multidrug resistant
A
  1. Asymptomatic
101
Q

Which statement is false? In case of subclinical bacteriuria

  1. Usually a predisposing factor for UTI is present
  2. AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed
  3. The urine sediment can be active
  4. Microbiological examination of urine is positive
A
  1. AB therapy (amoxicillin) will be prescribed
102
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals

  1. E. coli / proteus
  2. Antifreeze
  3. Leptospirosis
  4. Ureter stone
A
  1. Leptospirosis
103
Q

When should you think of leptospirosis in a dog?

A
  1. Elevated liver enzymes and creatinine values
104
Q

False:

  1. In glomerular proteinuria large protein are excreted
  2. Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/cret ration is very high
  3. Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0.2 and 0.4 or 5
  4. Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy
A
  1. Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/cret ration is very high
104
Q

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of haematuria

  1. FIC
  2. Urolithiasis
  3. Neoplasia
  4. Bacterial cystitis
A
  1. FIC
105
Q

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in dogs in case of haematuria?

  1. Urolithiasis
  2. Benignus prostate gland hypertrophy
  3. Bacterial cystitis
  4. Neoplasma
A
  1. Bacterial cystitis
106
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe (peritonitis)

  1. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical
    indication
  2. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
  3. It definitely requires emergency care
  4. It is caused by morphological and/or functional disorders of abdominal organs
A
  1. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication
106
Q

Monitoring blood pressure is particularly important

  1. In young animals
  2. In FIC
  3. In kidney disease
  4. In case of heart failure
A
  1. In kidney disease
107
Q

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicyclic acid test?

  1. Albumin and globulin
  2. Albumin
  3. Globulin
  4. None
A
  1. Albumin and globulin
108
Q

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy…

  1. The kidney is occluded cia clamping both the renal artery and vein
  2. Renal vein is to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
  3. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
  4. The ureter is also occluded
A
  1. The kidney is occluded cia clamping both the renal artery and vein
109
Q

Which is not typically a target organ that is damaged by hypertension

  1. Lungs
  2. Brain
  3. Kidneys
  4. Eyes
A
  1. Lungs
110
Q

Polydipsia definition in dog and cat

  1. Dog/cat: drink over 50 ml/bwkg/day
  2. Dog: water intake over 80-100 ml/bwkg/day, cat: water intake over 50
    ml/bwkg/day
  3. Dog/cat: water intake over 100 ml/bwkg/day
  4. Dog: water intake over 50 ml/bwkg/day, cat: water intake over 100 ml/bwkg/day
A
  1. Dog: water intake over 80-100 ml/bwkg/day, cat: water intake over 50
    ml/bwkg/day
111
Q

Typical symptoms of renal tubular acidosis

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Incontinence
  3. Polyuria, polydipsia
  4. Bone development disorders
A
  1. Metabolic acidosis
111
Q

Choose the correct answer! High-dose maintenance fluid therapy (>100 ml/kg/day) for acute kidney injury

  1. It increases diuresis, thus flushes the kidneys faster
  2. May cause interstitial edema in the kidneys, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow
  3. Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in anorexic animals
  4. In anuria, it ensures that renal function and urine production are restored quickly
A
  1. May cause interstitial edema in the kidneys, that decreases GFR and renal blood flow