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ACLAM Boards Prep > Ruminants > Flashcards

Ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

Which sheep breed is prone to Congenital hyperbilirubinemia/hepatic organic anion EXCRETORY defect (Dublin-Johnson Syndrome)?

A

Corriedale

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2
Q

Which sheep breed is prone to Congenital hyperbilirubinemia/hepatic organic anion UPTAKE defect (Gilbert’s syndrome)?

A

Southdown

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3
Q

Which sheep breed is prone to Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase (GGCX) deficiency?

A

Rambouillets

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4
Q

Which virus is associated with pulmonary adenomatosis in sheep?

A

Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus

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5
Q

Which breed of sheep is prone to beta-mannosidosis and is used for prenatal therapeutic cell transplantation strategies

A

Inbred Nubian breed

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6
Q

What is scientific term for fainting goats?

A

Myotonia congenita

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7
Q

Which animal is a model for Tritrichomonas?

A

Tritrichomonas fetus in CATTLE (for human Trichomonas vaginalis)

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8
Q

Which animal is model for lupofuscinosis? What is the breed?

A

CATTLE
Ayrshire breed

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9
Q

Which cattle breeds are a model for glycogen storage disease?

A

Shorthorn and Brahman breed

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10
Q

Which cattle breed is a model for hemochromatosis (body absorbs/excretes abnormal amounts of iron)?

A

Salers breed

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11
Q

Which cattle breed is model for leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome?

A

Holstein

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12
Q

Sheep health screening

A

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii), contagious ecthyma, caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis), Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium paratuberculosis), Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP), Sheep keds, nasal bot flies lung and GI worms

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13
Q

Goat health screening

A

Q fever, caprine arthritis and encephalomyelitis virus (Lentivirus), Brucellosis, tuberculosis, Johne’s disease, Caseous lymphadenitis, Contagious ecythma, mycoplasma

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14
Q

Sheep and goat minimum vaccines:

A

tetanus toxoid and clostridials

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15
Q

Which group writes the Ag Guide?

A

Federation of Animal Science Societies (FASS)

For agricultural research

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16
Q

How long after birth is Intestinal immunoglobulin absorption in neonatal ruminants?

A

(crucial to the success of passive transfer)

36 hours

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17
Q

Chromosome numbers for sheep, goats, and cattle

A

Sheep: 54
Goats: 60
Cattle: 60

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18
Q

Dental formula for ruminants

A

Adult permanent teeth: 0033/3133 (32 teeths)

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19
Q

Scientific name for goats

A

Capra hircus

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20
Q

Scientific name for sheep

A

Ovis aries

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21
Q

Scientific name for cattle

A

Bos taurus

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22
Q

MHC for Ovis aries

A

OVAR-MHC - classes I, II, III

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23
Q

MHC for Bos taurus

A

bovine lymphocyte Ag system (BoLA)

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24
Q

Is ALT liver-specific in ruminants?

A

NO

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25
Q

What happens if sheep are fed horse feeds?

What would you see in the eye?

A

Copper toxicity
Wilson’s disease (like Long-Evans Cinnamon rat)

Kayser-Fleischer (KF) Rings

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26
Q

Sheep and goat production

A

Seasonally polyestrous (short days)

Ewes artificially stimulated from anestrus by 8h light & 16h dark for 8-10 wk

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27
Q

Signs of estrus in sheep and goats

A

Sheep: mild vulvar erythema/swelling, slight increase mucus secretion

Goat: tail flagging, vulvar erythema/swelling, clear vaginal fluid becomes white

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28
Q

Rectal temp drops 24h prior to parturition in which species?

A

Bitch (dog) and doe (goat)

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29
Q

How to do controlled birth in doe?

A

GD144 (gestation day) give PGF2alpha to deliver kid within 24-57h

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30
Q

Frequency of XX/XY chimeras in different ruminants?

A

Anastomosing placental circulations of twin fetuses mixes blood-forming cells and germ cells

85-90% of phenotypic bovine females born twin to males, Sheep are rare, goat occurs in 6% of male-female pairs

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31
Q

What type of goats have intersex?

A

Breeding polled goats

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32
Q

AI breeding of sheep

A

The Guelph System for Transcervical AI: penetration through cervix into uterus, 75% success of ewes when inseminator is experienced

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33
Q

3 methods to synchronize goat estrus?

A
  1. At luteal phase of estrus cycle (4-16 d) sensitive to PGF2alpha, show estrus in 36-60 h post-injection
  2. Keep does w/in pheromone distant of buck will show signs of estrus and ovulate w/in 6-10 d
  3. Vaginal pessaries of fluorogestone acetate left in place for 21 d followed by injection of pregnant mare serum gonadotrophin (PMSG) at time of pessary removal
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34
Q

What infectious dz can be transmitted by embryo transfer in ruminants?

A

BVDV (Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus - Flavivirus), bluetongue virus (Reovirus), IBRV (Bovine herpesvirus-1), mycoplasma sp.

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35
Q

How to castrate goats/sheep and at what age?

A

By 1 month

Elastrator only if <1 week old

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36
Q

How short to dock the tail of sheep?

A

No less than 10 inches

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37
Q

Signs of pain in ruminants

A

bruxism, decreased time spent eating and cud chewing, prolonged recumbency w/ outstretched neck and head, hunched back when standing, thin, external lumps, swollen joints, unusual abdominal profile, rough coat

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38
Q

Enrichment for calves

A

Provide nipples and other clean non-injurious materials for sucking

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39
Q

Where is extra-label drug use defined?

A

by the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994 (AMDUCA)

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40
Q

When is extra-label drug use ok?

A

FDA (under AMDUCA) allows w/in context of a valid veterinarian–client relationship under certain conditions:
1. There is no approved new animal drug that is labeled for the intended use that contains the same active ingredient in the required dosage form and concentration
2. A veterinarian has made a careful diagnosis and evaluation of the condition
3. The veterinarian has established an extended withdrawal period prior to marketing
4. The identity of the treated animal is assured and maintained
5. Ensure that no illegal drug residues occur in any food-producing animal subjected to extra-label treatment
6. Extra-label drug must bear labeling information which is adequate to assure the safe and proper use of the product

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41
Q

Which drugs are always prohibited extra-label in food animals?

A

chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol, dimetridazole, ipronidazole, other nitroimidazoles, furazolidone, nitrofurazone, sulfonamide drugs in lactating dairy cattle (except approved sulfas), fluoroquinolones, glycopeptides, phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months old or older, cephalosporins (except cephapirin)

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42
Q

What is the cause of wooden tongue? Where are lesions in cattle vs sheep?

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

Sulfur-like granules

Cattle: tongue
Sheep: lip

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43
Q

What causes lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomyces bovis

Draining tracts with sulfur-like granules

Zoonotic

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44
Q

Which bacteria is associated with umbilical infection (omphalophelbitis, omphalitis, omphaloarteritis)? What are sequela?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

Ddx for <1 wk animal w/ fever of unknown origin

Prevent by dipping umbilicus in betadine

Septicemia, peritonitis, septic arthritis, meningitis, osteomyelitis, & endocarditis

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45
Q

Control for anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) in ruminants

A

vaxx available, endemic area herds vaxx w/ Sterne-strain spore vaxx (virulent, nonencapsulated)

REPORTABLE

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46
Q

What species of Brucella are in cattle, sheep, and goats?

A

ZOONOTIC
Cattle: Brucella abortus
Sheep and goats: Brucella melitensis

NON-ZOONOTIC
Sheep: Brucella ovis (epididymitis)

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47
Q

What is the most important cause of ovine abortion in the US? What is pathology of aborted fetuses?

A

C. fetus subsp. intestinalis, C. jejuni (Vibriosis)

Zoonotic

Fetuses edematous, liver pale foci, thick placenta, gray cotyledons

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48
Q

What is main cause of abortion in cattle but does not affect other ruminants?

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis (Bovine Vibrosis)

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49
Q

Ddx late gestation abortions in sheep?

A

Toxoplasma gondii, chlamydophila abortus, listeria monocytogenes, campylobacteriosis (C. fetus intestinalis, C. jejuni)

*** Campy is most imp and usually last trimester; no venereal transmission

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50
Q

Ddx abortions in cattle

A

Campylobacteriosis vs. trichomoniasis
Brucellosis, mycoplasmosis, IBR-pustular vulvovaginitis, BVD, leptospirosis

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51
Q

Which type of Clostridium perfringens causes 100% M&M in ruminants? What type of toxin is produced?

A

C. perfringens type C (enterotoxemia; necrotizing enteritis)

BETA toxin (necrotizing)

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52
Q

Which type of Clostridium perfringens causing pulpy kidney disease? What type of toxin is produced? What is characteristic on bloodwork/UA?

A

C. perfringens type D; mostly in SHEEP

Epsilon toxin (activated by trypsin, increases vascular permeability)

Hyperglycemia & glucosuria

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53
Q

What is most common infection site in post-parturient dairy cattle w/ retained placentas due to C. tetani?

A

Uterus

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54
Q

Susceptibility to C. tetani of sheep, goats, horses, cattle

A

Susceptibility: Horse > Sheep & Goats > Cattle

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55
Q

Which Clostridium causes red water (Bacillary hemoglobinuria)?

A

Clostridium hemolyticum (aka C. novyi Type D)

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56
Q

Which clostridium causes blackleg?

A

C. chauvoei

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57
Q

Which Clostridium causes Bighead? What species?

A

C. novyi

Sheep (rams)

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58
Q

Which Clostridium causes black disease?

A

C. novyi Type B (along with liver fluke Fasciola hepatica)

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59
Q

Which Clostridium causes malignant edema?

A

Clostridium septicum

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60
Q

How to serotype E. coli?

A

3 surface Ag complexes (O-somatic, K-envelope or pili, and H-flagellar) used to classify serotypes

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61
Q

Which type of E. coli causes gastroenteritis and/or septicemia in neonates, semifluid yellow-gray diarrhea, occasional blood in ruminants?

A

ETEC (same in pigs - also ETEC!)

62
Q

Ruminant enterotoxemia ddx

A

E. coli, C. perfringens A, B, or C, Campylobacter jejuni, Coccidia, rotavirus, coronavirus, salmonella, streptococcus, pasteurella, cryptosporidia

63
Q

Main ddx abscessation of LNs in goats and sheep? How to control?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (caseous lymphadenitis)

Lance and flush; isolate animal. Can prevent with vaxx.

64
Q

What bacterium causes pyelonephritis in cattle?

A

Corynebacterium renale

65
Q

What bacterium causes posthitis, pizzle rot, sheath rot in sheep and goats?

A

Corynebacterium cystitidis, C. pilosum

66
Q

What causes Cutaneous Streptothricosis, Lumpy Wool, Strawberry Footrot in ruminants?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

Zoonotic

67
Q

What is the leading cause of lameness in sheep? What are risk factors?

A

Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum

Also in goats

Overcrowding, warm & moist env’t are key

68
Q

How to differentiate foot rot from heel warts?

A

Heel warts (aka Bovine digital dermatitis, Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD), Hairy foot warts) - no swelling, fever

69
Q

Lepto serovars in different ruminants and susceptibility

A

MC in cattle: Pomona and hardjo
MC in sheep: hardjo

MC in cattle > sheep > goats

Zoonotic!

70
Q

Microabscesses of midbrain with G(+) bacilli characteristic of what bacterium in ruminants?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

Zoonotic!

71
Q

Most common causes of mastitis in different ruminants?

A

Sheep = Mannheimia hemolytica MC cause of acute
Goats = Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coagulase-negative Staph
Cows = Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis (summer mastitis of heifers, dry cows, and beef breeds), E. coli & Klebsiella pneumonia, Mycoplasma bovis (California mastitis)

72
Q

What causes Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK) or Pinkeye in cattle, NOT in sheep or goats

A

Moraxella bovis

73
Q

Components of BRDC (Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex)

A

Bac:
Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida
Histophilus somni
Viruses:
PI-3, BRSV, BHV-1, BVD

74
Q

Pneumonia with degenerate streaming nuclei of leukocytes (oat cells) pathognomonic for what bacterium in ruminants?

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

75
Q

What causes Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis – TEME in ruminants?

A

Histophilus somni

76
Q

CNS lesions with multifocal red-brown foci of necrosis and inflam on and w/in brain and meninges is pathognomonic for what in ruminants? What would you see in fetus/placenta?

A

Histophilus somni (Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis – TEME)

Aborted fetus do not show signs but necrotizing placentitis

77
Q

Which Salmonella serovars cause abortion in sheep and goats? What is a characteristic and a pathognomonic lesion?

A

Dublin, Abortusovis

Salmonella causes GI and abortions

Characteristic: necrosuppurative inflammation of Peyer’s patches
Pathognomonic: Fibrinous cholecystitis

78
Q

Which species of Mycobacteria do different ruminants get?

A

Sheep – M. bovis, M. avium
Goats – M. bovis, M. avium, M. tuberculosis
Cattle – M. bovis

Zoonotic

Notify state officials if intradermal test positive, quarantine

79
Q

CS/dx/control M. avium subsp paratuberculosis (Paratuberculosis; Johne’s disease)

A

CS: Diarrhea despite normal appetite, anthelmintics
Dx: Culture/histo ileal/ileocecal lymph nodes = gold standard
Control: Remove calves from dam immediately, keep separate from adults for 1 year

80
Q

What is major risk factor for Mycoplasma bovigenitalium, Mycoplasma bovis in cattle?

A

Unpasteurized milk

81
Q

What species of Mycoplasma cause pneumonia in sheep and goats? Which is more clinically significant

A

Sheep: Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae

Goat: M. mycoides Biotype F38 - highly contagious and high M&M; even subclinical can cause anesthetic complications

82
Q

What causes pinkeye in sheep and goats?

A

Mycoplasma conjunctivae

83
Q

How to diagnose chronic Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

A

High IgG against Phase I antibodies (titer at least 1:800 by microimmunofluroescence)

84
Q

Enzootic Bovine Lymphoma (Bovine leukemia virus) genus and where tumors develop

What determines resistance?

A

Deltaretrovirus (like HTLVs)

abomasum, extradural spinal canal, uterus, RA or LV myocardium, retrobulbar (exophthalmos)

BoLA (bovine leukocyte antigen) genotype confers resistance

85
Q

Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus (CAEV)

A

Genus Lentivirus (like HIV, FIV), SIV, OPPV)

86
Q

What virus causes Malignant Catarrhal Fever? What is pathognomonic

A

Bovine herpesvirus-6 (subfamily Gammaherpesvirinae)

Sheep can get from cattle - don’t mix them!

Pathognomonic: corneal edema starting at limbus progressing centripetally

87
Q

What type of virus causes Food and Mouth Disease? Which species affected?

A

Picornaviridae

Swine propagate, sheep can get it, goats its subclinical, but cattle hit hardest

88
Q

Which vesicular disease is zoonotic?

A

Vesicular Stomatitis Virus (VSV) - Rhabdoviridae

89
Q

What family are the vesicular diseases in?

A

FMD - Picornaviridae
VSV - Rhabdoviridae
Bluetongue - Reoviridae

90
Q

What is pathognomonic for Bluetongue (Reoviridae)?

A

Pathognomonic: subintimal hemorrhage of large pulmonary arteries

91
Q

Which virus is most important in bovine respiratory disease complex?

A

Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV) - Flaviviridae (causes immunosuppression)

92
Q

What is pathognomonic for IBRV (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis Virus)?

Which age group develops CNS signs?

What other clinical syndrome can develop

A

fibrinonecrotic rhinotracheitis

Encephalitic form: Young most susceptible, fatal in 5 days

Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (IPV)

93
Q

The C/S of IBK (Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis) tend to be more severe in cattle that are also infected with _____ or have been recently vaccinated with ___________.

A

IBR (Bovine Herpesvirus-1) modified live IBR vaccine

94
Q

Which virus causes emphysema of dorsal subcutis from ruptured bullae?

A

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) (Paramyxoviridae)

95
Q

Which virus causes Pulmonary adenomatosis in sheep?

A

Betaretrovirus

96
Q

Which virus causes joint and haircoat changes on fetus in small ruminants?

A

Border dz (shaker disease) - Flaviviridae, Pestivirus; closely related to BDVD (Flavi, also Pestivirus)

97
Q

Which virus causes ring/horseshoe-shaped scabs around teats

A

Pseudocowpox (Parapoxvirus related to Orf)

98
Q

What type of virus cause Aujueszky’s Disease/Pseudorabies and what species affected?

A

Alphaherpesvirinae (Suid herpesvirus-1)

Cattle and swine, less so sheep and goats

99
Q

Which sheep breed is most susceptible to scrapie? What confers resistance?

A

Suffolk breed – susceptible

3 nonsynonymous genetic polymorphisms in PRP gene
-Codons 136, 154, 171
-VRQ/VRQ animals are most susceptible
-ARR/ARR animals are resistant (R’s are resistant)

100
Q

What do different Chlamydia species cause in small ruminants?

A

Chlamydophila abortus - Enzootic Abortion of Ewes (EAE) - ***infected <120 days into gestation

Chlamydophila pecorum = Chlamydophilal Polyarthritis of Sheep

Chlamydophila psittaci, Chlamydophila pecorum = Chlamydophilal conjunctivitis (infectious KCS)

101
Q

What transmits Bluetongue Virus (Reoviridae) to small ruminants?

A

Melophagus ovinus (Sheep Keds, Sheep ‘tick’)

Culicoides variipennis (biting midge)

102
Q

Ringworm sheep and goats

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes, T. verrucosum

103
Q

What is inheritance and sex predilection of Congenital Myotonia of Goats?

A

Autosomal dominant

More severe in males

104
Q

What breed of goat gets Beta Mannosidosis?

A

Nubian kids

Autosomal recessive lysosomal storage dz

105
Q

Which breeds get Spider Lamb Syndrome (Hereditary Chondrodysplasia)? It is similar to what syndrome in humans?

A

Suffolk and Hampshire breeds

Similar to Marfan Syndrome in humans

106
Q

Ketone bodies in cattle with ketosis

A

acetone, acetoacetate, and betahydroxybutyrate

107
Q

What causes goat kids to be weak, tremble, characteristic concavity to spinal cord (swayback)?

A

Copper deficiency (Enzootic ataxia, Swayback)

108
Q

Which ruminant is highly susceptible to Copper toxicosis with severe acute hemolytic anemia?

A

Sheep especially growing lambs

109
Q

Most common neoplasias in different ruminants?

A

Cattle: ocular SCC and lymphoma (BLV)

Sheep: Pulmonary adenoma (Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus), lymphoma (BLV)

Goats: Thymoma, cutaneous papillomas (most common skin & udder tumor)

110
Q

What order, suborder, & family do sheep, goats, & cattle belong to?

A

Order-Artiodactyla (even toed ungulates or animals w/ cloven hooves)
Suborder-Ruminantia (ruminants or cud chewing animals)
Family-Bovidae

111
Q

What is the genus & species of domestic sheep?

A

Ovis aries

112
Q

What is the genus & species of the domestic goat?

A

Capra hircus

113
Q

What are the 2 common genera & species of domestic cattle?

A

Bos taurus & Bos indicus

114
Q

The ________ breed was developed from crossbreeding British stock w/ Egyptian & Indian goats, it is relatively heat tolerant, & produces milk w/ highest butterfat (~4-5%).

115
Q

The ________ breed, a newer breed of dairy goat, has rudimentary ears that are a genetically dominant distinguishing characteristic of the breed.

116
Q

How many blood group systems do cattle, sheep, and goats have?

A

Cattle - 11
Sheep - 7
Goats - 5

117
Q

Uses of ruminants in research

A

Cardiac transplantation, preclinical models of cardiac assist/prosthetic devices, Ab production, repro studies, embryo transfer, gene transfer, cloning

118
Q

_________ cattle serve as a model for leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome.

119
Q

What is the main source of energy for ruminants?

A

VFAs (glucose formed from propionic acid)

120
Q

Normal _______ erythrocytes lack central pallor because they are flat & lack biconcavity.

121
Q

Puberty in sheep

A

7-8 mos in both rams & ewes

122
Q

What is the length of the estrous cycle in sheep vs goats?

A

Sheep (ewe): 14-19 d (avg 17d)

Goats (doe): 18-24 d

123
Q

What is the gestation length in sheep vs goats?

A

Ewe: 147-150 d
Doe: 145-155 d (avg 150 d)

124
Q

What is the drug of choice to induce parturition in goats?

125
Q

The ______ is one of the few ungulates that will exhibit pseudopregnancy.

126
Q

To control _____, kids should be immediately removed from the dam & hand-fed heat tx colostrum.

A

CAE (Caprine Arthritis and Enteritis) - Lentivirus

127
Q

How long & at what temp should the colostrum be heat-treated?

A

1 hr @ 131ºF

128
Q

What does FARAD stand for?

A

Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank

129
Q

If you observe incomplete rigor mortis, rapid putrefaction, & dark, uncoagulated blood exuding from all body orifices of an animal, what dz is this? What would be necropsy findings

A

Anthrax; reportable

Splenomegaly, cyanosis, epicardial & sc hemorrhages, & lymphadenopathy

130
Q

Why are ruminants especially sensitive to Brucella (“Bang’s Disease”)?

A

Higher levels of erythritol (sugar alcohol), growth stimulant for the organism

131
Q

What causes Bighead, black dz, bacillary hemoglobinuria?

A

Clostridium novyi

132
Q

T or F: Sheep & goats are more susceptible to tetanus than cattle.

C. tetani toxins are composed of ____________, which is neurotoxic & ____________, which is hemolytic.

The toxin inhibits the release of ______ & _________ from Renshaw cells (inhibitory interneurons)

A

TRUE

Tetanospasmin, tetanolysin

Glycine & γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

133
Q

3 forms of Listeria in ruminants

A

1) Encephalitis
2) Placentitis with abortion
3) Septicemia with hepatitis & pneumonia

134
Q

The encephalitic form of Listeriosis is most common in ______.

The neck will be flexed (away from or toward) the affected side.

A

Sheep

Away from

135
Q

What are the official anatomical sites for TB testing in cattle & goats?

A

Caudal fold, single cervical, & comparative cervical (last one is injecting both bovine and avian)

136
Q

What tissues provide the best samples for histo & acid fast staining for Johne’s Disease in cattle?

A

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

Ileal/ileocecal lymph nodes

137
Q

What causes foot rot in small ruminants vs cattle?

A

Sheep and goats: Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus & Fusobacterium necrophorum

Cattle: F. necrophorum & Bacteroides melaninogenicus

138
Q

What vector is associated w/ epizootic foothill abortion?

What happens if cows are infected before & after 6 mos of gestation?

A

Ornithodorus coriaceus (tick)

Before- abort or give birth to weak calves (no C/S of infection)
After- give birth to normal claves

139
Q

Congenital defects caused by BVDV (Flaviviridae)

A

Thymic atrophy, cerebellar hypoplasia, ocular defects, alopecia or hypotrichosis, demyelinogenesis, hydranencephaly, hydrocephalus, & intrauterine growth retardation

140
Q

What dz is considered the most important viral dz of goats? How is it transmitted?

A

CAE, Lentivirus of Retroviridae

Primarily by ingestion of colostrum & milk

141
Q

What are the 2 different clinical syndromes that can occur?

What are characteristic lesions for both?

A

Polysynovitis-arthritis (6 mo or >) & leukoencephalomyelitis (2-6 mo)

Arthritic: Thickening of the synovium

Encephalitic: Demyelinating lymphocytic leukoencephalomeningitis

142
Q

T or F: Intranuclear inclusions are a common finding with Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis Virus (IBRV). What lesion is pathognomonic?

A

F

Bovine herpesvirus 1 but NO IN inclusions

Fibrinonecrotic rhinotracheitis

143
Q

What is incubation period for scrapie? What organs have highest and lowest levels?

T or F: The cerebral cortex is largely unaffected.

A

2-4 years

Highest = brain
Lowest = liver

T

144
Q

What are two forms of OPP? Which is more common in the US?

A

Lentivirus Retroviridae

Respiratory and mastitis

Respiratory more common in US

145
Q

Which sheep breed is prone to Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

146
Q

Which sheep breed is prone to GM1 gangliosidosis

147
Q

What breeds of cattle are primarily affected with congenital erythropoietic porphyria? What are clinical signs? What enzyme is affected?

A

Holsteins, Herefords, & Shorthorns

Reddish brown discoloration of teeth & bones

Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

148
Q

What anatomy predisposes male sheep/goats vs cattle to urinary calculi?

A

Sheep & goats- urethral process
Cattle- urethra narrows @ sigmoid flexure

149
Q

What causes “gun metal” kidneys?

What is a common cause of this in sheep?

A

Copper toxicosis

Feeding them cattle concentrates

150
Q

The use of what agent should be avoided in sheep due to the potential for development of methemoglobinemia?

A

Benzocaine!

151
Q

Which bacterial disease is zoonotic and reportable in humans but not Bos taurus?

152
Q

Which sheep breed gets Huntington’s disease, GM1 gangliosidosis?

ACLAM Boards Prep (16 decks)

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