RNA viruses II Flashcards

1
Q

TORCH infections

A
Toxoplasmosis
Other?
Rubella
CMV
HSV-2
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2
Q

Seeding of tissues by poliovirus

A

anterior horn cells

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3
Q

When are maximum titers achieved in polio infection

A

2-6 weeks after onset

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4
Q

Aseptic meningitis caused by what type of Coxsackie?

A

Group B
&
A7, A9

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5
Q

These viruses produce positive-sense DNA from negative-sense RNA

A

retroviruses

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6
Q

Cause WEE and EEE

A

alphavirus

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7
Q

High WBC in PBS.
Paraneoplastic syndrome characterized by bone resorption and hypercalcemia.

Most likely etiological agent?

A

HTLV-1

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8
Q

Most important receptor for Picorna

A

VCAM-1

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9
Q

Resembles mild rotavirus infection.

diarrhea in children.

A

astrovirus

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10
Q

Extensive paralysis and wasting.

Difficulty in swallowing, speaking, breathing.

A

Bulbar Polio

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11
Q

RNA virus causing common cold and SARS

A

Coronavirus

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12
Q

Carried by ixodid ticks

A

Mammalian tick-borne group of flavivirus

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13
Q

Acid-labile picornavirus

A

rhinovirus

therefore it does not infect GI like other picorna

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14
Q

Pharyngeal lesions + vesicular rashes on palms and soles spreading centrally?

A

Hand-foot-mouth disease

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15
Q

Alphavirus and Rubella are both

A

togaviruses

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16
Q

Depression of what complement component in DHF’s immune-complex hypersensitivity causes hemorrhages

A

C3

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17
Q

Causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

HTLV-1

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18
Q

Recrudescence of paralysis decades after initial manifestation

A

Progressive postpoliomyelitis muscle atrophy

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19
Q

Transmission of HCV

A

Blood

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20
Q

Causes congenital syndrome featuring microcephaly, PDA, cataracts

A

Rubella

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21
Q

Calicivirus causing epidemic viral gastroenteritis

A

Norwalk virus

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22
Q

Tick-borne flaviviruses cause

A

encephalitis

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23
Q
Chikungunya
Mayaro
O'nyong-nyong
Sindbis
Ross River

These are all types of _____ causing what symptoms?

A

alphaviruses

fever, rash, polyarthritis

These viruses are all vectorborne (arbo)

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24
Q

This RNA virus causes fever and thoracic pain aggravated by breathing

A

Epidemic Pleurodynia (Coxsackie B)

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25
Q

Most common form of polio

A

Mild. Vague symptoms resembling other infections.

Recovery in a few days.

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26
Q

Fever, postauricular lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, rash starts at head then descends.

A

Rubella

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27
Q

Hepatitis virus resembling calici morphology while resembling HAV clinical course

A

HEV is acute like HAV with no late hepatic sequelae and no evidence of chronic infection

28
Q

Fever, black vomitus, jaundice. Most likely virus?

A

Yellow fever

29
Q

Bornholm Disease or The Devil’s Grip is AKA?

What specific virus?

A

Epidemic pleurodynia

Coxsackie B

30
Q

Viruses associated with Culex?

A

West Nile

St. Louis

31
Q

Viruses associated with Aedes?

A

Dengue

Yellow Fever

32
Q

RNA virus that replicates in mature villus epithelial cells of small intestine. Enterotoxin induces age- and calcium ion-dependent chloride secretion, disrupts SGLT1 transporter-mediated reabsorption of water, and apparently reduces activity of brush-border membrane disaccharidases.

A

rotavirus

33
Q

Myocarditis can be caused by which Coxsackie virus?

A

Group B

34
Q

German measles is aka

A

rubella

35
Q

This RNA virus causes Hand-foot-mouth

A

Coxsackie A16

36
Q

Enterovirus 68 causes

A

bronchiolitis/pneumonia in children

RSV and metapneumo as well

37
Q

Enterovirus 70 causes

A

acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

Coxsackie as well

38
Q

Enterovirus 71 causes

A

meningitis, encephalitis

39
Q

Coxsackie A24 can cause this eye disease in large outbreaks

A

acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

40
Q

Has three transmission cycles:
Sylvatic/jungle
Urban
Intermediate

A

Yellow fever virus

41
Q

Result of sequential heterogenous infection causes a severe hemorrhagic fever due to immune complex hypersensitivity reaction

A

Dengue

42
Q

Echovirus reclassification:
10
22, 23
28

A

Reo Type 1
Parecho 1, 2
Rhino 1A

43
Q

Fever, jaundice, elevated ALT > elevated AST are signs of what (general)

A

hepatitis (all viruses)

44
Q

Picornavirus that causes acute viral hepatitis

A

HAV

45
Q

Gene order for all retroviruses

A

5’gag-pro-pol-env-3’

46
Q

Cellular receptor for HIV?

A

CD4 (on T cells)

47
Q

Retrovirus gene encoding for core proteins

A

gag

48
Q

WBC that can serve as reservoirs of HIV infection

A

monocyte-lineage cells

49
Q

Retrovirus gene encoding for protease

A

pro

50
Q

HIV has the ability to bind to this receptor of dendritic cells

A

C-type lectin receptors

particularly DC-SIGN

51
Q

Retrovirus gene encoding for reverse transcriptase

A

pol (POLymerase)

52
Q

RNA virus that stains green-yellow with acridine orange (like DNA)

A

Reovirus

RNA stain red

53
Q

Retrovirus gene encoding for non-structural protein that alters transcription efficiency of other genes

A

tax

tat

54
Q

Retrovirus gene encoding for glycoprotein projections

A

env (on ENVelope)

55
Q

Reovirus that causes enteritis in children and infants

A

Orthoreovirus

56
Q

This RNA virus causes Herpangina or vesicular pharyngitis

A

Coxsackie A

Sudden fever, headache, sore throat, dysphagia

57
Q

ECHO in echovirus stands for what?

A

Enteric cytopathogenic human onrphan

58
Q

Orbivirus family? Vector

A

Reovirus

Tick

59
Q

Common cold, URT symptoms

A

rhinovirus

60
Q

Colorado tick fever

A

Coltovirus

COLorado Tick fever - most important tick-borne pathogen in USA

61
Q

Activation of latent HIV-infected cells can be induced by what cytokines?

A

TNF

IL-6

62
Q

Rotavirus is the most important:

A

global cause of infantile gastroenteritis and severe diarrhea in the world

63
Q

First antibodies detected against HIV?

A

anti-gp41

64
Q

Malignancies associated with HIV:

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma
Non-Hodgkin’s B cell lymphoma
Carcinoma of rectum and tongue

65
Q

Group of rotaviruses causing outbreaks in developed or developing countries? Most common

A

Group A

66
Q

Viral protein of rotavirus responsible for pathogenicity as a stimulator of diarrhea

A

NSP4

non-structural protein 4

67
Q

HAV transmission

A

feco-oral