RJ Wilson Flash cards

1
Q

What are the steps of the budget process?

A

Plan, gather feedback, build consensus, present final plan, get approval, implement the plan, and evaluate the plan.

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2
Q

What should be included in a job description?

A

Title, who it reports to and supervises, responsibilities, skills, and qualifications/experience.

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3
Q

What are the four components of negligence?

A

Duty, Breach, Cause, Harm.

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4
Q

Any athlete showing signs of _______ can be treated with supplemental oxygen therapy.

A

Hypoxia

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5
Q

Nonrebreather masks can only be used as a method of supplemental oxygen delivery under what condition?

A

The athlete is breating normally

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6
Q

Hyponatremia is characterized by what?

A

Abnormally low blood sodium levels

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7
Q

What brain injury is characterized by symptoms supsiding rapidly creating an asymptomatic “lucid” period that can last for hours or days before signs of severe neurological dysfunction appear?

A

An Epidural Hematoma

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8
Q

Muscle weakness, swelling, pain, and darkened urine are symptoms of what syndrome? In Severe cases it can lead to sudden collapse, renal failure, and even death.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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9
Q

Thirst but not hunger is a sign of _____, while hunger but not thirst is a sign of _____.

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis, Hypoglycemia

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10
Q

Palpatations, anxiety, weakness, dizziness, fainting, sweating, shortness of breath, and chest pains are all symptoms of what?

A

A heart arrhythmia

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11
Q

Ahtletes who return to play too early from a traumatic brain injury are susceptible to what life threatening condition?

A

Second Impact Syndrome

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12
Q

For every pound of weight lost while practicing in the heat, an athlete should drink how much water?

A

20 oz

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13
Q

An athlete that performs constant repeated extension, has a palapble step-off deformity has pain in the lumbar spine that radiates down into the buttocks may have what condition?

A

Spondylolisthesis

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14
Q

An ischemic lesion of the femoral head that develops in the first decade of life is known as what?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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15
Q

Pain over the adductor tendon and pubic tubercle, pain during hip adduction may be indicative of what condition?

A

Athletic Pubalgia (Sports hernia)

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16
Q

A hip dislocation will usually present in what position?

A

Internal rotation and adduction.

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17
Q

What condition is similar to Osgood-Schlatter Disease, and what is the difference between the two?

A

Osgood-Schlatter Disease and Sinding-Larsen-Johannsson Disease are both an avulsion of the patellar tendon. In Osgood-Schlatter, the site of avulsion is the tibial tuberosity. In Sinding-Larsen-Johannsson, the site of avulsion is theInferior pole of the patella.

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18
Q

Motor testing for L2-L4 is done how?

A

L2 is done by trying to break hip flexion, L3 is done by breaking knee extension, and L4 is done by breaking dorsiflexion.

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19
Q

If a person has pain in the malleolar zone and bone tenderness on the tip of the lateral malleolus, should they be sent for an X-ray?

A

Yes, according to the Ottawa Ankle Rules, an X-ray is required if a person has pain in the Malleolar zone and bone tenderness on the tip of the lateral malleolous.

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20
Q

Hemarthrosis in the knee is most often associated with what injury?

A

ACL tear, though it is also seen in patellar dislocations, meniscal tears, and a few other injuries.

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21
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrom is caused by the entrapment of what nerve?

A

Posterior tibial nerve.

22
Q

What should a suction unit never be used to clear the airway of?

A

Large solid objects, such as teeth, foreign bodies, or large pieces of food.

23
Q

Accute chest pain, hyperpnea, decreased or absent breath sounds, hyperressonance with percussion and contralateral tracheal shift are all symptoms of what?

A

A Pneumothorax

24
Q

A spirometer measures peak expiratory flow. If a patient’s peak expiratory flow measures less than _______% of the personal best medication should be used to control asthama. At what percentage should a patient be refered?

A

80, 50%

25
Q

How many ascultation zones should a person listen to when evaluating the heart?

A

4 (Aortic, Pulmonary, Tricuspid, and Mitral zones)

26
Q

What are terms used to identify skin lesions?

A

Vesicles, Bullae, Papules, Nodules, Pustules, Wheals, Scales, Plaques, and Macules.

27
Q

A Bacterial infection that initially presents as a small pimple-like lesions, pustules or boils. It is easily mistaken for an insect bite.

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)

28
Q

What contraindications always exclude a patient from being treated with modalities.

A

Pregnancy, Cancer

29
Q

What is the name of the body’s response when cryotherapy is used for too long of a time period?

A

Hunting Response

30
Q

Ice massage, Hydrocollator packs, and cryo-cuffs are all examples of thermal modalities that transfer heat through what method?

A

Conduction

31
Q

Conductive thermal energy modalities are best used for ______ effects because the energy can penetrate a depth of up to_________.

A

Superficial, 1cm.

32
Q

What is the difference between a macronutrient and micronutrient?

A

Macro-nutrients are required in quantities of grams, while micro-nutrients are required in mil, or microgram quantities.

33
Q

What are the 6 types of nutrient’s and define which are micronutrients and which are macronutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and water are macronutrients. Vitamins and minerals are micronutrients.

34
Q

Competitive, obsessive personality, high stress and high standards placed on an ahtlete by themselves or their parents are traits that make an athlete susceptible to what eating disorder?

A

Anorexia Nervosa

35
Q

Hair loss, fainting or fatigue, low bone mass, muscle tears and stress fractures and iron deficiency anemia are all symptoms of what eating disorder?

A

Anorexia Nervosa

36
Q

Swollen Salivary glands, irritation of esaphagous, dental decay, and iron deficiency anemia are all symptoms of what eating disorder

A

Bulimia Nervosa

37
Q

What classes of drugs have been banned for use in all sports by the NCAA?

A

Stimulants, Anabolic Agents, Diuretics & masking agents, Street drugs, Peptide homones, Anti-Estrogens, and Beta-2 Agonists.

38
Q

What is the portion of a drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation and has the opportunity to produce a biological effect?

A

Bioavailability

39
Q

When the bioavailability of a drug is approximately the same as a different formulation of the same drug, the drugs are said to be _______.

A

Bioequivalent

40
Q

What are the two types of drug solubility?

A

Water and lipid

41
Q

What are some different routes that drugs can be absorbed?

A

Oral, Rectal, Topical, Intravenous, and Inhalation

42
Q

What are common signs of a skull fracture

A

Battle Sign and Raccoon Eyes.

43
Q

What are the types of skull fractures?

A

Linear, depressed, comminuted, and basilar

44
Q

Trouble with Lateral and inferior eye movement would indicate injury to which cranial nerve?

A

IV Trochlear

45
Q

The brachial plexus is broken down into what 5 segmental areas?

A

Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, Branches

46
Q

The most common MOIs to the spine are what?

A

Axial loading; Excessive flexion, extension, or lateral bending; and rotation of the spinal column.

47
Q

What are the three primary nerves of the forearm and what general areas do they innervate?

A

Median Nerve, anterior lateral aspect. Ulnar Nerve, anterior medial aspect. Radial Nerve, posterior aspect.

48
Q

How many bands for the UCL?

A

3, anterior, posterior, and transverse.

49
Q

What portion of the scaphoid heals poorly and why?

A

The proximal pole, because the blood supply is poor at this area of the scaphoid.

50
Q

A Quad contusion can result in what condition?

A

Myositis Ossificans.