Injury and Illness/Em. Care Flashcards
1
Q
- Hydrogen peroxide is used in wound care because of its ability to cleanse infected _________ and _________ membranes.
A
Cutaneous, mucous
2
Q
- Loss of heat and/or water in the lungs results in a __________________.
A
bronchospastic event
3
Q
- Bronchospastic events are common with athletes prone to ______________________ and ______________________.
A
Exercise-induced bronchospasm and exercise-induced asthma
4
Q
- ______________________ inhalers are a common intervention for athletes who have asthma.
A
Metered-dose
5
Q
- A battle sign is indicative of a possible ____________________.
A
Skull Fx
6
Q
- S&S for shock include________________________.
A
Low BP, systolic below 90 mm Hg, rapid/weak pulse, apparent drowsiness, shallow/rapid breathing, pale/clammy skin
7
Q
- ___________ is possible with any injury
A
Shock
8
Q
- Management for shock.
A
Maintain body temperature as close to normal as possible, elevate extremities 8-12 inches if possible, and monitor vital signs.
9
Q
- AVPU stands for:
A
Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
10
Q
- ACDU stands for
A
Alert, Confused, Drowsy, Unresponsive
11
Q
- A suspected fracture must be ________ before the patient can be moved.
A
Splinted
12
Q
- Before splinting an open wound, apply adequate _____________.
A
Dressing
13
Q
- A splint must _______________ the injury site to not permit movement.
A
Immobilize
14
Q
- If possible, the splinted extremity should be kept _______________.
A
Elevated
15
Q
- To be sure the circulation is not being impaired, check the _______ of the fingers and toes.
A
Color
16
Q
- It is the responsibility of the person at the head of the spine board to ___________________.
A
Keep the athlete’s head and neck stabilized while directing other members of the trauma team.
17
Q
- Individuals prone to frequent __________ may need to avoid collision sports.
A
Seizures
18
Q
- Epileptic patients may take an __________________ drug that varies in dosage depending on the type and degree of seizures that occur.
A
Anticonvulsant
19
Q
- Immediate management of seizures most often involves______________________.
A
Sitting or laying the person down to avoid injury to themselves or others
20
Q
- Do not ________________ a person during a seizure
A
Restrain
21
Q
- An epileptic patient should be allowed to _____________ normally after a seizure
A
Awaken
22
Q
- In vitro means
A
In a laboratory
23
Q
- In vivo means
A
In the body
24
Q
- Drugs that affect the neurotransmitters of the central and peripheral nervous system could affect _____________________________.
A
Thermoregulation
25
25. ___________________ and _________________ can decrease sweating and therefore eliminate the body’s ability to lose heat; effectively increasing the rate of heat illness.
Anticholinergics and antihistamines
26
26. Derivatives of heparin and coumarin are the most common _________________ used by physicians.
Anticoagulants
27
27. An _______________ is directly applied to treat severe allergic reactions
Epi-Pen
28
Name the different types of shock?
Anaphylactic, cardiogenic, hemorrhagic, hypovolemic, metabolic, neurogenic, psychogenic, respiratory and septic.
29
What is Anaphylactic shock?
Serve allergic reaction
30
If you need to remove a football helmet from an athlete with a suspected spine injury, what direction should you rotate the helmet as you remove it?
Forward
31
How long should an EpiPen be held in place after being injected into the thigh?
10 seconds
32
What type of shock occurs when the heart that cannot effectively pump blood?
Cardiogenic shock
33
What position should you transport an individual with a suspected skull fracture?
Supine with upper body and head elevated
34
3. ________1______shock occurs when there is not enough blood flowing to organs within the body resulting in decreased tissue profusion. The loss of circulating blood/plasma volume due to injury/illness is ___2__ shock?
1) Hemorrhagic shock, 2) hypovolemic shock
35
If left untreated hyperglycemia can progress to__1___ and hypoglycemia can progress to ___2___ and both can ultimately lead to____ (3)___ .
1) diabetic coma 2) insulin shock 3) death
36
How would you treat hyperglycemia and diabetic coma?
1) active EMS 2) place in recovery position 3) treat for shock 4) maintain open airway and monitor breathing 5) monitor vital signs 6) measure blood glucose level with glucometer 7) transport to hospital by EMS
37
How would you treat hypoglycemia and insulin shock?
1) active EMS 2) measure blood glucose level with glucometer 3) if responsive and has a gag reflex, administer oral glucose, sugar, candy, orange juice or soda that contains sugar 4) treat for shock 5) maintain open airway and monitor breathing 6) monitor vitals 7) transport to hospital
38
If a patient has a potential skull fracture, DO or DO NOT, attempt to stop the nose bleed?
Do not attempt to stop nose bleed due to the fact it will increase intracranial pressure.
39
Where would you apply indirect pressure to manage external bleeding? Upper & lower
Upper- brachial artery, Lower- femoral artery
40
List some of the NATA position statement regarding the management of sports-related concussion. (Answers are a summary, not the whole position statement)
1)AT should educate athletes, coaches and parents about concussion. 2) Every concussion the AT should document details about MOI, S&S, finding of serial testing, instructions given to patients/parents, recommendations of physicians, date/time of return to play. 3) Vital signs taken every 5 minutes. 4) Findings should be compared to baseline. 5) LOC or amnesia lasting more than 15 minutes requires a same-day examination by a physician and disqualification from return to play that day. 6) Athletes who are symptomatic at rest or during exertion 20 minutes after injury does not return to play that day. 7) medication avoid unless prescribed by physician 8) AT ensures that all equipment meets safety standards.
41
What technique do you use if an individual is conscious and choking and the adult is either pregnant or their abdomen is too large to reach around?
chest thrust instead of abdominal thrust
42
What steps should be taken to prevent exertional sickling?
the intensity of workouts should be increased gradually to allow the individual to become acclimated to exercising in the heat, remain hydrated, should be allowed to set their own pace, tempo of practice slowed down and be removed from practice after first indication of struggle.
43
Exertional sickling signs and symptoms?
Low blood oxygen levels, increased muscle heat; and/or dehydration, fast breathing, core temperature is slightly elevated, collapsing suddenly during the practice or game, but still able to talk.
44
What are some exercise precautions with sickle cell trait?
Thermoregulatory deficiency, avoid high-intensity exercise, hypotension, tachycardia, muscle cramping, hyperventilation and ischemia.
45
What are some risk factors with epilepsy?
Certain factors may increase your risk for epilepsy are: cerebral palsy, autism disorder, mild head injuries, concussions with brief loss of consciousness, use of illegal drugs such as cocaine and infections of the brain such as meningitis, or encephalitis.
46
What precautions do you have to take with rhabdomyolysis?
Assure proper hydration and avoid precipitating factors.
47
What is the medical term for a posterior displacement of the eye?
Enophthalmos
48
At how many miles should everyone be inside when lightening is present
5-6 miles
49
How many ounces of fluids need to be taken in for every pound of weight loss in elevated temperatures
20 oz per pound
50
Ergodynamics helps in the prevention of illness and injury by minimizing ______ _______
Risk Factors
51
A coup injury occurs on the ______ side as the impact. A contrecoup injury occurs on the _______ side as the impact.
Same, Opposite
52
Outward signs of underreaction to injury
Lack of emotion, little to no talking, failure to respond to questions, confusion, depression
53
If a patient is face up, the ____ and _____ technique is used to move a patient onto a spine board
Lift, Slide
54
When would you perform a 2-handed seat carry?
Moving an athlete a short distance when they have a lower extremity injury and cannot support their own weight
55
When do use a nasopharyngeal airway?
Patient is conscious, intact gag reflex, has sustained orofacial trauma, or has a clenched jaw
56
What complication leads to the use of an oropharyngeal airway?
Tongue obstruction
57
When would you suction the airway?
Removes foreign materials, bodily fluids
58
What is needed before suctioning an airway?
Supplemental oxygen
59
How much oxygen concentration needs to be delivered when using an inlet valve on a non-breathing patient?
30% to 45%
60
TFCC stands for _____ ______ _______
Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex
61
A boutonniere deformity is the rupture of the _______ tendon dorsal to the middle phalanx
Extensor
62
A mallet finger deformity has to be splinted immediately for ____ to _____ weeks
6,8
63
Volkmann’s contracture is a forearm ________ contracture resulting from a _______ artery injury
Ischemic, brachial
64
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome involves the compression of the _____ plexus, _______ artery, and ________ vein
Brachial, subclavian, subclavian
65
What does GIRD stand for?
Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit
66
When moving an unconscious athlete, first establish whether the athlete is ______ and has a ______.
breathing, pulse
67
The most important principle in transporting an individual on a spine board is to maintain ______ and ______ alignment with the long axis of the body.
head, neck
68
Degenerative spinal stenosis is most common in the ______ to ______ year old person.
50-60
69
T/F. Disk herniation is the extrusion of the nucleus pulpous through a weakened region in the annulus fibrosus with subsequent impingement on one or more lunar nerve roots.
True
70
A Scotty dog fracture is indicative of a ______.
Spondylolysis
71
A Scotty dog fracture indicates a nondisplaced stress fracture on the ______.
par interarticularis
72
Approximately half of the individuals diagnosed with a spondylolisthesis will also demonstrate ______.
thoracic kyphosis
73
A decapitated Scotty dog fracture refers to a ______.
spondylolisthesis
74
A herniation of the nucleus pulpous through the vertebral endplate is termed a ______ ______.
Schmorl’s node
75
When dealing with an unconscious athlete the athletic trainer should assess _______ and ______ first.
Body positioning and responsiveness
76
After the athletic trainer assesses the situation of an unconscious athlete they should establish what two things immediately?
Airway and circulation
77
4. A helmet of an unconscious athlete should always be removed, True or False?
False, not until cervical and other spine injuries are ruled out.
78
5. An athlete who has been unconscious can have their face mask cut off to perform CPR, True of False?
True
79
6. An athlete has been knocked unconscious, is laying supine and breathing normally. What should you do?
Monitor closely until they regain consciousness
80
7. If an athlete is prone and not breathing they should be carefully ________ to the supine position and what should be performed immediately?
Logrolled and CPR
81
8. If the patient is prone and breathing, monitor them closely until they regain consciousness but they should be carefully _______ onto a spine board in case what might be necessary?
Logrolled, CPR
82
9. If an athlete is wearing a helmet with a facemask and are being transported to a medical care facility, what should be removed regardless of the current respiratory status?
The facemask
83
10. After you assess an athlete’s airway: look, listen, and feel, and you find they are not breathing you should perform what?
Two rescue breaths to determine if they go in or not
84
11. When you are opening an athlete’s airway, what should you do to their head first?
Lift under the chin with one hand while pushing down on the victim’s forehead with the other (Head tilt, chin lift)
85
12. A blow to the head can cause an injury at the point of contact, which is a ______ injury.
coup injury
86
13. A blow to the head can cause an injury on the opposite side of the head, which is a _____ injury.
Countrecoup injury
87
14. _______ occurs because of rapid swelling and herniation of the brain after a second head injury that occurs before the symptoms of a previous head injury have resolved.
Second impact syndrome
88
15. An athlete who has experienced a head trauma but did not lose consciousness and exhibits dilation of one pupil (usually on the same side as the injury), headache, dizziness, nausea or sleepiness could be experiencing what type of injury?
Subdural hematoma
89
16. An athlete has been hit in the head from a blunt trauma and is experiencing blood in the ear canal, ecchymosis behind the ear (battle’s sign), what should you expect?
Skull fracture
90
17. A blunt blow to anterior aspect of the eye produces a collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye, what is this injury?
Hyphema
91
18. After an injury ______ can occur when a diminished amount of blood is available to the circulatory system.
Shock
92
19. If an athlete starts to experience a seizure the athletic trainer should not try to do what during the episode?
Restrain the patient during the seizure
93
20. In order to prevent an athlete that is having a seizure from biting their mouth or tongue, the athletic trainer should do what?
Place a soft cloth between the teeth
94
23. When the AT is performing a prone logroll the AT stabilizing the head should use ______technique to roll them to the other side.
Cross Arm
95
24. After you survey a scene and check the mental status of an athlete, what should you do next if they don’t respond?
Check the airway
96
What type of fracture has three or more fragments at the fracture site?
comminuted
97
what type of fracture has an s-shape
spiral
98
What type of fracture is the separation of a bone fragment from its attachment of a ligament or tendon?
avulsion fracture
99
Oropharyngeal airway
a device used when a patient is unconscious in order to prevent the tongue from covering the epiglottis; maintains and open airway through the oropharyngeal route
100
Nasopharyngeal airway
a device used when a patient is unconscious in order to prevent the tongue from covering the epiglottis; maintains and open airway through the nasopharyngeal route
101
Supraglottic airway
Common for all supraglottic devises are that they are introduced into the pharynx, ensuring the upper respiratory tract remains open, without passing through the glottis and thereby entering the trachea
102
Administering supplemental oxygen
through the use of an oxygen mask or nasal cannula, external oxygen is administered to the patient
103
Lift and slide technique in spine boarding
the patient must be lying face up, and with 1 person stabilizing the c-spine, 4-5 people will lift the patient vertically off the ground a few inches and a 5th or 6th person will slide the spine board under the patient from inferiorly to superiorly until it is positioned directly underneath the patient who is then lowered onto the spine board and strapped in
104
Hypoxic injury
where an area of the body is deprived of oxygen for an extended amount of time
105
Enzymatic injury
when a cell dies its lysosomes release enzymes that digest cellular debris. If they come into contact with living cells they will break down living cells
106
Rectal temperature for heat stroke
104 F
107
Rhabdomyolysis
sudden cardiac destruction and degeneration of skeletal tissue with a leakage of myoglobin and muscle enzymes into the blood
108
Stages of healing
Inflammatory Response Phase: lasts up to 4 days, Fibroblastic Repair Phase: lasts up to 6 weeks, Maturation-Remodeling Phase, can last up to 3 years
109
Ischemia
Lack of blood flow to a body part
110
Hemarthrosis
blood in the joint cavity
111
Coup brain injury
injury to the brain directly at the source of impact
112
Countrecoup brain injury
injury to the brain at the opposite side of the skull where the force occurred
113
Pneumothorax
air in the pleural cavity which causes a collapsed lung
114
blood pressure
determined by cardiac output X peripheral resistance
115
Cardinal signs of infection
pain, redness, temperature increase, swelling, and loss of function
116
heat syncope vs heat stroke
heat syncope: pale, clammy skin, elevated temp, rapid weak pulse, profuse sweating. Heat stroke- hot dry skin, no sweating, temp over 104 F, bright red skin, rapid strong pulse
117
Prevention of heat illnesses
appropriate and continued hydration, gradual acclimatization, appropriate uniforms, weight records, and heat index monitoring
118
Dehydration requirement
20 oz of water for every pound lost
119
_____ is defined as a physical injury or wound that is produced by an external or internal force.
trauma
120
. A ____ is an external force acting on tissues that causes internal reactions
loads
121
____occurs when equal but not directly opposite loads are applied to opposing surfaces, forcing those surfaces to move in parallel directions
shearing
122
_____ loads caused by twisting in opposite directions from the opposite ends of a structure cause shear stress over the entire cross section of that structure.
torsion
123
____is produced by external loads applied towars one another on opposite surfaces in opposite directions.
compression
124
A stretch, tear or rip in the muscle or its tendon, is called what
Muscle strain
125
____ are involuntary painful muscle contractions that occur most commonly in the calf, abdomen, or hamstring but can occur in any muscle.
muscle cramps
126
Pain caused by overexertion in exercise is called what?
muscle soreness
127
Inflammation of a tendon is called what?
tendinitis
128
Pain receptors are called what?
nocioreceptors
129
The positive and negative forces that can disrupt the body's equillibrium is called what?
stress
130
A bone is forces out of alignment and stays out until surgically or manually replaced or reduced is called what?
dislocation
131
A bone is forced out of alignment by goes back into place is called what?
subluxation
132
A wearing down of hyaline cartilage is called what?
osteoarthritis
133
Inflammation of bursae at sites of bony prominences between muscle and tendon is called what?
bursae
134
Bone producing cells are called what?
osetoblasts
135
Bone remodeling cells are called what?
osteoclasts
136
Inflammation of a nerve is called what?
neuritis
137
Pain that is felt at a point of the body other than its origin is called what?
Reffered pain
138
What are the types of shock?
hypovolemic, hemorrhagic, anaphylactic, septic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, hypoglycemic, psychogenic
139
What is an oblique Fracture?
break occurs diagonally when torsion occurs on one end while the other is fixed
140
What are some signs of heat stroke?
disoriented, unconscious, no sweat, dry skin, hot, 104 degree temp, rapid and strong pulse
141
What is the formula for power?
force x distance
142
What are high risk times to be out in the sun?
10 am to 4 pm
143
What are the different forces that can cause trauma to the body?
tensile, compression, shear, torsion, direct blow
144
Why is altitude training dangerous for someone who has sickle cell trait?
the abnormal hemoglobin become deoxygenated and then clump together
145
How do you care for a superficial frostbite?
immersing the part in warm water (100-110 degrees)
146
What is Ectopic Pregnancy?
when fertilized egg is implanted outside the uterine cavity due to inflammation to the Fallopian tubes, will refer pain to the shoulders
147
How to handle a seizure?
cushion patients fall, keep area clear of injury producing items, loosen restrictive clothing, do not restrain and let them awaken normally
148
what can trauma 5 do?
Trauma five has ability to care for injuries and can do some surgery if they have the staff but has to have transfer contracts with a 1 through 3 level
149
What can Trauma 3 and 4 do?
3 can initiate care for injury, houses and ICU and can stabilize emergency situations, 4 can initiate care for injury and shows ability to advanced trauma life support
150
What can Trauma 1 and 2 do?
1 can handle all aspects of care from injury to rehabilitation, 2 can initiate definitive care for any injury, surgery, or imaging
151
What is Hyphema?
pooling blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
152
What are the phases of the healing process
Inflammatory response 0-4days, Fibroblastic repair phase day 3-week 6, maturation phase 2 weeks-2-3 years
153
what do osteoblasts and osteoclasts do
Bone producing cells, Bone remodeling cells
154
Fracture of the distal radius with dorsal radius deformity and wrist forced dorsally
Colles fracture
155
fracture in adolescence where the break is incomplete and not completely ossified
greenstick
156
Types of Fractures
Comminuated Linear Transverse Oblique Spiral (open and closed)
157
What companies certify Hockey helmets? Bike helmets?
Canadian Standards Association, Hockey Equipment Certification Council. The Consumer Product Safety Committee
158
what does NOCSAE stand for?
National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
159
What is Circadian Dysrhythemia? Prevention?
Jet lag, rest well prior to trip, adjust to new time zone, drink lots of water, change watches to new time zone
160
How to use a sling psychrometer?
Difference from wet bulb and dry bulb, then use dry bulb and difference to locate % humidity on chart
161
What is and causes hypothermia?
A diminished level of sodium in the body, drinking to much water
162
What are some types of splints?
Air, vacuum, sam splint, sugar tong, volar/dorsal, and ulnar gutter, coaptation, posterior elbow splint, and finger
163
What are volar splints used for?
Wrist and hand injuries
164
What are sugar splints used for?
Wrist, hand , and forearm
165
What are air splints?
Splints that use air to immobilize injuries, air cast splints
166
What are vaccum splints?
Splints that are used to immobilize injuries that use polystyrene balls that extract air, it’s like a cast
167
Which is the best splint for a boxer’s fracture
Ulnar gutter
168
What splints are used for a fractured femur?
Vacuum or air splint they both become a temporary cast
169
What is used for a shoulder dislocation/subluxation
Sling and swathe
170
What is the best possible method for keeping a closed compact fracture immobilized?
Either a vacuum/air splint, keeping the injured body part stable, and checking vital signs
171
True of false subdural hematomas are rare?
False
172
What is a cause of epidural hematomas?
Results from a force or blow to the head causing a rip or tear in the meningeal arteries. Usually from acceleration/deceleration impact.
173
What are the signs and symptoms of subdural hematomas?
Headache, cloudiness of thought, neurological deficits, behavioral and motor changes, and loss of consciousness within 48-72 hours after injury.
174
What are some signs and symptoms of second impact syndrome?
Dilated pupils, loss of eye movement, loss of consciousness leading to coma, and respiratory failure.
175
What is the management of second impact syndrome?
Making sure the athlete is cleared and has no symptoms of post-concussion. Mainly preventing it from happening.
176
What signs and symptoms does an individual have when they have internal hemorrhage?
Abdominal pain/swelling, light headedness, dizziness, fainting, ecchymosis
177
True or false there are reference points for internal hemorrhaging?
True depending on the body parts injured. Like spleen kehr’s sign
178
T/F Skull fractures are considered medical emergencies requiring immediate transportation
True
179
T/F Can there be CSF present in the ear canal or nose from a skull fracture?
True
180
What are some signs and symptoms of a skull fracture?
Headache, nausea, blood in the ear canal, blood accumulation behind the ear’s (battle’s sign), blood accumulation around the eyes (raccoon eyes)
181
T/F epidural hematomas can result in death of an athlete?
True
182
T/F one way to suspect/test for internal hemorrhage is by abdominal percussion?
True
183
T/F a hollow sound is a normal sound from abdominal percussion
True
184
An airway can become obstructed by ___1___ potentially leading to aspiration. Suction is used to minimize these risks.
secretion, blood and vomit
185
Is a face mask an oxygen delivery method?
True
