Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies in RA?

A

RF
Anti-CCP

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2
Q

X-ray appearance of RA?

A

Loss of joint space
Juxta articular osteoporosis
Soft tissue swelling
Peri-ariticular erosions / subluxation

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3
Q

Poor prognostic factors RA?

A

RF +ve
CCP +ve
Poor functional status
Extra articular features
HLA DR4, Insidious onset

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4
Q

What score monitors response in RA?

A

DAS28 score

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5
Q

What RA drug exacerbates MG?

A

Penicillamine

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6
Q

What RA drug causes demyelination / TB reactivation

A

Etanercept (anti-TNF)

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7
Q

SE of Sulfasalzine?

A

Rash
Oligospermia
ILD
Heinz body anaemia

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8
Q

SE hydroxychloroquine?

A

Retinopathy

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9
Q

SE methotrexate?

A

Pneumonitis / Myelosuppresion

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10
Q

X-ray appearance of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Pencil in cup

Erosive changes and new bone formation

BETTER prognosis than RA

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11
Q

What is reactive arthritis

A

HLAB27 assoc seronegative spondyloarthropathy

Triad = urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

Usually develops 4 WEEKS after Ix and last 4-6months

It is an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of lower limbs

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12
Q

Antibodies in SLE?

A

ANA (99% +ve)

anti-dsDNA (more specific, less sensitive)

anti-smith, RF

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13
Q

Monitoring of SLE?

A

ESR. CRP usually normal.

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14
Q

Complement in Lupus

A

It is low during active disease?

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15
Q

1st line DMARD for SLE?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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16
Q

Drug induced lupus antibodies?

A

ANA +ve 100%
Anti ds DNA -ve

Anti-histone antibodies (80-90%)

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17
Q

Most common causes of drug induced lupus?

A

procainamide
hydralazine

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18
Q

Antibodies for polymyositis / dermatomyositis

A

ANA +ve 80%
Anti JO 1

Symmetrical proximal weakness and skin lesions (HELIOTROPE RASH)

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19
Q

PMR Ix

A

Raised inflammation markers.

EMG + CK N.

Typically morning stiffness NOT weakness.

Rapidly responds to steroids.

20
Q

Antibodes for Sjogrens

A

Anti-ro and Anti La

21
Q

Antibodies for systemic sclerosis ?

A

Limited = CREST
Anti-centromere

Diffuse = anti-scl70abs
Most common cause of death is ILD

22
Q

Crystals in gout?

A

Needle shaped negatively birefringent

23
Q

When to start allopurinol after acute attack?

A

2 weeks after

If already on = continue

24
Q

What is 2nd line to allopurinol?

A

Febuxostat

25
Crystals in pseudogout?
+ve birrefringent rhomboid crystals Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
26
Most common organism in septic arthritis?
S Aureus
27
Most common organism in young adults with septic arthritis
Gonorrhoea
28
Risk factors for osteoporosis?
Increasing age Female Steroid use RA Alchohol Excess Low BMI Smoking Premature menopause Hyperthyrtoid / CKD IBD Liber disease
29
When to start bisphosphate?
If T score -2.5 SD or less start bisphosphonate, Ca and vit D
30
Bisphosphonates
oral bisphosphonates such as alendronate and risedronate are typically first-line. These are often taken weekly are need taking in a particular way to minimise the risk of oesophageal side-effects however, the NOGG recommend IV zoledronate as the first-line treatment following a hip fracture. This is given yearly
31
Bisphosphate clinical scenario
Postmenopausal women, and men age ≥50, who are treated with oral glucocorticoids: if starting ≥7.5 mg/day prednisolone or equivalent for the next 3 months, start bone protective treatment at the same time general osteoporosis management as above don't wait for a DEXA scan before starting treatment oral bisphosphonates are used first-line e.g. alendronate or risedronate
32
Bisphosophonate clinical scenario
A postmenopausal woman, or a man age ≥50 has a symptomatic osteoporotic vertebral fracture: general osteoporosis management as above start treatment straight away - oral bisphosphonates are used first-line e.g. alendronate or risedronate
33
Hip fractures in older adults
in older adults a hip fracture is a manifestation of osteoporosis following a fragility fracture in women ≥ 75 years, a DEXA scan is not necessary to diagnose osteoporosis and hence commence a bisphosphonate BMD should be measured, but this acts as a baseline rather than determining whether treatment should be given bisphosphonates should be given first-line NOGG recommends IV zoledronate but local guidelines may vary and oral bisphosphonates are often use
34
Calcium phosphate ALP and PTH in osteoporosis?
ALL NORMAL
35
Pagets Disease:
Normal calcium, PTH and phosphate, HIGH ALP Think old man with bone pain and normal everything except ALPO
36
drug causes gout?
diuretics: thiazides, furosemide ciclosporin alcohol cytotoxic agents pyrazinamide aspirin: it was previously thought that only high-dose aspirin could precipitate gout. However, a systematic review (see link) showed that low-dose (e.g. 75mg) also increases the risk of gout attacks. This obviously needs to be balanced against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin and the study showed patients coprescribed allopurinol were not at an increased risk
37
After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan. This guidance separates patients into high and low risk groups. To fall into the high risk group, one of the following must be true: Age >75 Glucocorticoid therapy Previous hip/vertebral fractures Further fractures on treatment High risk on FRAX scoring T score <-2.5 after treatment If any of the high risk criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely, or until the criteria no longer apply. If they are in the low risk group however, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years, or if a further fracture occurs. In the case of this patient, she has no risk factors which put her into the high risk group, but we do not have a recent DEXA scan. The best option would therefore be to re-scan her now, and consider a two year break if her T score is >-2.5
38
If patient suffers significant GI upset from alendronate what do u do?
Change to risedronate
39
why never Rx methotrexate and co-trim?
Co trim contains trimethoprim, that + methotrexate causes severe myelosuppression
40
Onion skin appearance on X-ray
Ewings sarcoma small round blue cell tumour seen mainly in children and adolescents occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones. Tends to cause severe pain associated with t(11;22) translocation which results in an EWS-FLI1 gene product
41
osteosarcoma facts
osteosarcoma, this is the most common primary malignant bone tumour in children and adolescents which commonly affects the metaphyseal region of long bones. Radiographs classically show Codman triangle (a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone) with an associated sunburst appearance. The family history is significant as osteosarcoma is associated with the retinoblastoma gene.
42
Blood tests in antiphospholipid?
Prolonged APTT and low platelets
43
Bloods tests in protein C deficiency ?
Normal Ptr and APTT
44
Osteomalacia bloods
Low calcium, Low phosphate, High ALP Translucent bands on X-rays
45
Skin disorder assoc with antiphospholipid
Livido reticularis
46
patchy uptake on iodine scan + hyperthyroid
toxic multi nodular goitre
47