ID

Question 1

1st trimester UTI?

Answer 1

7 days nitro

Question 2

punctate lesions on cervic + gren dischagre

Answer 2

Trichomonas

Question 3

Prostatitis Rx

Answer 3

Ciprofloxacin for 28/7

If can’t tolerate, trimethoprim BD for 28/7

Question 4

Legionella pneumonia Rx?

Answer 4

Clarithromycin

Question 5

BV and breastfeeding

Answer 5

Metronidazole for 5/7

Question 6

Name the live attenuated vaccines:

Answer 6

Yellow fever
Oral polio
Intranasal influenza
Varicella
Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR)
BCG

You Musn’t Prescribe BCG Incase They Suddenly RIP
- Yellow fever (NB high levels of egg, so CI in egg allergic. Yellow like a yolk)
- MMR
- Polio
- BCG
- Influenza
- Typhoid
- Shingles
- Rotavirus

Question 7

Salmonella Rx?

Answer 7

Ciprofloxacin

Question 8

Campylobacter Rx?

Answer 8

Clarithroymcin

Question 9

E Coli presentation?

Answer 9

Most diarrhoea.

12-72 hours incubation

Question 10

Campylobacter presentation?

Answer 10

2-5 days
Undercooked poultry, milk, water
Abdo pain (often bloody), fever, D&V

Question 11

Abx for dental absces?

Answer 11

Amox

Question 12

What is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome?

Answer 12

Complication of PID where liver capsule becomes inflamed causing RUQ pain.

Question 13

Gonorrhoea Rx?

Answer 13

Im ceftriazone

Question 14

Extenstive otitis externa Abx?

Answer 14

Fluclox

Question 15

How many doses of tetanus for full immunisation?

Answer 15

5

Question 16

Rx of genital warts?

Answer 16

Multiple (non-keratinised) - topical podophylum

Singlular (keratinsed) - cryotherapy

Question 17

Travellers diarrhoea, prolonged, with abdominal pain and bloating

Answer 17

Giardia

Rx = metronidazole

Question 18

Genital warts HPV =

Answer 18

6+11

Question 19

Common cold

Answer 19

Rhinovirus

Question 20

HIV Test

Answer 20

Combination tests (HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody) are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV

Question 21

Cause of coldsores =

Answer 21

HSV 1

Question 22

HIV and CD4 count, when to treat

Answer 22

The correct answer is to start antiretroviral therapy now. According to the current UK guidelines, antiretroviral therapy (ART) should be initiated in all individuals with HIV-1 infection, regardless of CD4 count. This approach is known as ‘treat-all’ or ‘test and treat’, and it has been shown to reduce morbidity, mortality, and HIV transmission rates. The initiation of ART in this patient would help to suppress her viral load, preserve her immune function, and prevent the development of opportunistic infections.

Question 23

Rx of Latent TB:

Answer 23

Latent tuberculosis treatment options:
3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin, or
6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

Question 24

Chylmadia when to test

Answer 24

Chlamydiatesting should be carried out two weeks after a possible exposure

Question 25

Bitten by a tick and prophylaxis?

Answer 25

There is no need for prophylactic antibiotics for Lyme disease in asymptomatic patients bitten by a tick

Question 26

Features of Lyme disease?

Answer 26

Early features (within 30 days) erythema migrans 'bulls-eye' rash is typically at the site of the tick bite typically develops 1-4 weeks after the initial bite but may present sooner usually painless, more than 5 cm in diameter and slowlly increases in size present in around 80% of patients. systemic features headache lethargy fever arthralgia people with erythema migrans should be commenced on antibiotic without the need for further tests

Question 27

Rash with Lyme Disease

Answer 27

Erythema migrans

Question 28

Rx of glandular fever?

Answer 28

Supportive

Question 29

Prophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal sepsis?

Answer 29

Oral cipro or rifampacin

Question 30

HIV +ve and needlstick?

Answer 30

Attend ED and needs 4/52 ART

Question 31

MRSA Rx?

Answer 31

Nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine for skin

Question 32

Rx of Leptospirosis?

Answer 32

Doxy or azithromycin If severe = IV Benpen

Question 33

Most likely organism for LRTI in cystic fibrosis?

Answer 33

Pseudomonas aerguinosa

Question 34

BCG and age group

Answer 34

not given to people over the age of 35

Question 35

1st line Rx for doxycycline

Answer 35

14-21 days of doxycycline Start before serology comes back

Question 36

What makes up malorone?

Answer 36

Atovaquone + proguani SE: GI Upset

Question 37

What antimalarial in pregnancy?

Answer 37

Chloroquine SE: Headaches. Note: contraindicate in epilepsy

Question 38

What anti-malarial is taken weekly and what is the side effects?

Answer 38

Mefloquine (Lariam) Dizziness Neuropsychiatric disturbance Taken weekly

Question 39

Travellers diarrhoea with 'rose spots' = rash on torso usually

Answer 39

Think salmonella

Question 40

Nitrofurantoin and pregnancy?

Answer 40

Avoid near term as can avoid neonatal haemolysis

Question 41

HPV vaccine

Answer 41

Girls and Boys age 12-13

Question 42

HIV pep following needlestick and timing?

Answer 42

Within 72 hours of event

Question 43

LRTI with bronchiectasis?

Answer 43

H influenzae

Question 44

Cellulitis in pregnancy (pen allergic)

Answer 44

Erythromycin

Question 45

tetanus boosters

Answer 45

If a patient has had 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last dose < 10 years ago, they don't require a booster vaccine nor immunoglobulins, regardless of how severe the wound is

Question 46

Oral ulcers, genital ulcers, blood clots, and uveitis

Answer 46

Behcets

Question 47

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Answer 47

Assoc with chlymadia

Question 48

Pneumonia in an alcoholic?

Answer 48

Klebsiella

Question 49

BV

Answer 49

Gram +ve and Gram -ve bacteria

Question 50

Bacteria with longest incubation period for food poisononibg ?

Answer 50

giardia

Question 51

Painful solitary genital ulcer

Answer 51

Chancroid = Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 52

Trichomonas + BV pH

Answer 52

>4.5

Question 53

CSF shows a yeast and a capsule in the CSF stained with India ink.

Answer 53

cryptococcal meningitis

Question 54

Grey coating on tongue / recent travel

Answer 54

think diphtheria Rx IM penicillin

Question 55

gG positive & IgM negative - shows immunity to parvovirus. Reassure, no further action. IgG negative & IgM positive - non-immune. Recent parvovirus infection in last 4 weeks. Refer immediately for further tests/fetal medicine. IgG negative & IgM negative - repeat test in 4 weeks. If both tests still negative, this confirms susceptibility, but no recent infection. Reassure, further action required only if subsequent exposure occurs.

Answer 55

parvovirus

Question 56

assessing response to Hep C Rx

Answer 56

viral load

Question 57

Parovirus in pregnancy

Answer 57

Can cause hydros