Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

microbiology > Review Test 1 > Flashcards

Review Test 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define microbiology.

A

a specialized area of biology that deals with living things too small to be seen without magnification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The study of bacteria:

A

bacteriology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The study of viruses:

A

virology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The study of fungi:

A

mycology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The study of algae:

A

phycology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The study of protozoa:

A

protozoology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The study of helmiths:

A

parasitology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is microbiology used in the health service industry?

A

physicians and nurses diagnose and treat people with infectious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is immunology?

A

study the immune chemicals and cells that are produced in response to infection by microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What us public health/epidemiology?

A

monitor and control the spread of infectious diseases in the community. WHO CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is food/dairy microbiology?

A

practical roles of microbes in food or dairy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is biotechnical and industrial microbiology?

A

use microbes metabolism to produce a product such as alcohols or acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is genetic engineering/recombinant DNA?

A

Deliberately alter genetic makeup of a microbe to produce a human hormone or drug vaccine. (human insulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is bioremediation?

A

the use of microbes to help clean up toxic products in the environment. (euglena mutabilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What metric unit is used to measure bacteria?

A

micrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What metric unit is used to measure viruses?

A

nanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is spontaneous generation?

A

living things will suddenly appear from nonliving matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is biogenesis?

A

living things arise from other living things of the same kind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who disproved spontaneous generation?

A

Louis Pateur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What were Louis Pasteur’s contributions to microbiology?

A

disproved spontaneous generation
invented pasteurization
created the germ theory of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is germ theory of disease?

A

a specific microorganism will cause a specific disease. the microrganism is called the caustic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who was Anthony Leeuwenhoek?

A 
Father of bacteriology and protozoology
invented microscope 300X
did tooth scrapings
observed pond water
saw animacules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What were Robert Koch’s contributions to microbiology?

A

Verified the germ theory of disease by finding the caustive agent for anthrax
Purposed Koch’s postulates
Developed lab techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the caustive agent for anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Koch’s postulates?

A

The microbe must be present in every case of the disease but absent from healthy organisms. The suspected microbe must be isolated and grown in a pure culture in the lab. The same disease must result when isolated microbe is innoculated into a healthy host. The same microbe must be isolated again from the diseased host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is taxonomy?

A

a formal system for organizing, classifying, and naming living things.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the order of the taxa?

A 
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Genus 
Species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What contribution did Aristotle make to our taxonomy?

A

Animalia

Plantae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What contribution to our taxa did Carolus Linnaeus make?

A

genus

species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What contribution to taxonomy did Ernest Haeckle make?

A

animalia
plantae
protista

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What contribution to taxonomy did Robert Whittaker make?

A 
5 Kingdoms:
monera
fungi
protista
animalia
plantae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What contribution to taxonomy did Carl Woese and George Fox make?

A 
Three domains:
Bacteria 
Archaea
Eukarya
studied rRNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the binomial system?

A

genus

species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which domains contain prokaryotic organisms?

A

domain bacteria

domain archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which domain has eukaryotic cells?

A

domain eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the five I’s?

A 
innoculation
incubation
isolation
inspection
information gathering
identification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is innoculation?

A

introduce bacteria into a sterile broth or solid media with the use of a loop or needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is incubation?

A

the placement of an innoculated specimen in a specific temperature to allow growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is isolation?

A

isolate a single colony on a petri plate to obtain a pure culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is inspection?

A

observe the cultures for macroscopic growth of the bacteria, observe microscopically for results of stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is information gathering?

A

testing of cultures for biochemical and enzyme characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is identification?

A

Use Bergey’s manual to identify the genus and species of the microorganism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Bergey’s manual used for?

A

provides keys and charts to aid in identifying a microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a pure culture?

A

one microbe growing in a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a mixed culture?

A

more than one microbe growing in a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a colony?

A

a cluster of cells growing in a culture medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three ways to classify culture media?

A

physical
chemical
functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the physical forms of culture media?

A

liquid
semisolid
solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the functional types of culture media?

A

general purpose
enriched media
selective media
differential media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is general purpose media?

A

designed to grow a broad spectrum of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is enriched media?

A

designed to support the growth of fastidious media (picky)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is selective media?

A

designed to allow growth of one type of bacteria while inhibiting others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is differential media?

A

designed to grow several types of organisms but causes their appearance to change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is agar?

A

a complex polysaccharide isolated from the red algaea gelidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who’s lab was agar first introduced into and who suggested agar as a possible substitute?

A

Robert Koch’s lab

Fanny and Walter Hesse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the charge of a cell wall?

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Negative stains:

A

use an acidic stain
the stain is repelled from the cell wall
microbe is clear and background is colored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is an example of a negative stain?

A

india ink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Positive stains:

A

use a basic dye

microbe is colored, background is clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Two types of positive stains:

A

simple

differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

simple stains:

A

use a single dye

distinguishes shape arrangement and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

differential stains:

A

use two different colored dyes

distingushes cell types and cell parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is an example of a simple stain?

A

methelyne blue

crystal violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are some examples of differential stains?

A

gram
acid fast
endospore stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is a primary stain?

A

the first dye you use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is a counter stain?

A

the second dye you use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Who is Hans Christian Gram?

A

he developed the Gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Gram positive cells will stain:

A

purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Gram negative cells will stain:

A

pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

prokaryotic cells:

A

have no nucleus
one one piece of chromosomal DNA
no organelles
includes all bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

eukaryotic cells

A

have a nucleus
many pieces of chromosomal DNA
organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the three bacterial shapes?

A

coccus
bacillus
spiral or curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the atypical shape?

A

pleomorphic rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

coccus are shaped:

A

round or oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

bacillus are shaped:

A

rod shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

vibrio are shaped:

A

like a comma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

spirillum are shaped:

A

rigid spiral or helix shape
cells do not bend
amphitricious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

spirochette are shaped:

A

flexible spring shape

endoflagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the shape of pleomorphic rods?

A

cells vary in size and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

single coccus:

A

one round cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

diplococcus:

A

two round cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

streptococcus:

A

chain of round cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

staphylococcus:

A

irregular cluster of round cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

tetrad:

A

packet of four round cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

sarcina:

A

cube of eight or sixteen round cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

single bacillus:

A

one oblong cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

diplobacillus:

A

two oblong cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

streptobacillus:

A

chain of oblong cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

palsade:

A

match sticks or picket fence of oblong cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is motile?

A

bacteria will flip, rotate, or go straight

“run and tumble”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is nonmotile bacteria?

A

will only exhibit brownian movement (vibrate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what protein is found in flagella?

A

flagellin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

atricous:

A

no flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

monotricious

A

one flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

lophotricious

A

a tuft of flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

amphitricious

A

flagella at both ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

petricious

A

flagella placed all over the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

in a straight run which direction does the flagella spin?

A

flagella spins counterclockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

in a tumble, which way does the flagella spin?

A

clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is periplasmic flagella?

A

2 or more flagella that lie in the periplasmic space between the cell wall and outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the movement of periplasmic flagella?

A

corkscrew motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what are fimbriae?

A

many short hairs used for attachment to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are pili?

A

A single, long, hollow appendage used for attachment to another bacteria during conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is a postive chemotaxi?

A

bacteria swims towards attactants like food molecules. Causes fewer tumbles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is a negative chemotaxis?

A

bacteria swims away from repellants like poisons

causes more tumbles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the composition of the cell envelope?

A

cell wall

cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the function of the glycocalyx?

A

to allow bacterial cell to adhere to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Do all cells have a glycocalyx?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the slime layer of the glycocalyx?

A

a loose structure that easily washes off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the capsule layer of the glycocalyx?

A

firmer structure that is bonded to the cell

111
Q

what is the function of the cell wall?

A

determines shape and prevents lysis due to changing osmotic pressures

112
Q

All bacteria have a cell wall except:

A

mycoplasma

113
Q

What is the major molecule in the cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan

114
Q

What is the structure of the cell wall in gram positive bacteria?

A

thick peptidoglycan layer
teichoic acid
no outer membrane

115
Q

What is the structure of the cell wall in gram negative bacteria

A

thin peptidoglycan layer
no teichoic acid
has an outer membrane external to the cell wall

116
Q

What composes the cell membrane?

A

phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins

117
Q

what is the function of the cell membrane?

A

decides what goes in and comes out of the cell.
serves as DNA anchor during bionary fusion
contains enzymes for cell wall synthesis
forms mesosomes
anchors bacterial flagella

118
Q

what are mesosomes?

A

finger-like pockets in the cytoplasm that increase surface area

119
Q

Do all bacterial cells have a cell membrane?

A

yes

120
Q

what is cytoplasm?

A

dense, gelatinous solution of sugars, amino acids and salts

121
Q

where do all chemical reactions occur?

A

cytoplasm

122
Q

what is a chromosome?

A

single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that contains all of the genetic information required by the cell

123
Q

what is a plasmid?

A

free small circular double stranded DNA
very important to bacterial resistance
used in genetic engineering

124
Q

how do prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic?

A

prokaryotic are smaller

125
Q

what is the size of prokaryotic ribosomes?

A

70S =50S +30S

126
Q

what is the size of a eukaryotic ribosome?

A

80S= 60S + 40S

127
Q

what is poly B hydroxybutyrate

A

carbohydrate store

128
Q

what is polysaccharide granules

A

starch or glycogen store

129
Q

what is metachromatic granules?

A

phosphate stores

130
Q

what is magnetosome?

A

iron stores

131
Q

what are gas vesicles?

A

various gases for bouyancy

132
Q

What are inclusions and granules?

A

intracellular storage bodies. the cell can use them when the environmental sources are depleted

133
Q

What are endospores?

A

inert resting cells produced by some G+ genera

134
Q

what species produces endospores?

A

bacillus and clostridium

135
Q

what environment would cause sporulation?

A

extrreme environments where nutrients are scarce

136
Q

what environment would cause germination

A

one where nutrients are abundant

137
Q

What are the six factors that effect microbes existence whether in the labratory or in their habitat:

A 
nutrients
osmotic pressure
temperature
pH
gas
other organisms or microbes
138
Q

what is nutrition?

A

a process by which nutrients are aquired from the environment and used in cellular activites such as metabolism and growth

139
Q

what is a macronutrient?

A

they are required in large quantities and play principal roles in cell structure and metabolism

140
Q

what is a micronutrient?

A

they are required in smaller amounts and are needed for enzyme function and maintenence of protein structure

141
Q

what are some examples of a macronutrient?

A 
carbon 
hydrogen
oxygen
nitrogen
phosphorus
sulfer 
CHNOPS
142
Q

what are some examples of micronutrients?

A 
calcium
sodium
potassium
zinc 
copper
nickel
143
Q

photoautotroph:

A

carbon source: CO2

energy source: sunlight

144
Q

Examples of photoautotroph:

A

cyanobacteria
sulfer bacteria
algae
plants

145
Q

chemoautotroph

A

carbon source: C02

energy source: inorganic

146
Q

examples of chemoautotroph

A

methanogens

147
Q

photoheterotroph:

A

carbon source: organic

energy source: sunlight

148
Q

examples of photoheterotroph:

A

green and purple photosynthetic bacteria

149
Q

chemoheterotroph:

A

carbon source: organic

energy source: organic

150
Q

examples of chemoheterotroph:

A

fungi
protozoa
many bacteria
animals

151
Q

what are the two types of chemoheterotroph?

A

saprobes

symbiotic

152
Q

what are saprobes:

A

free-living microbes that get organic recycled material from dead organisms

153
Q

what are symbiotic chemoheterotrophs:

A

obtian organic material from living organisms

154
Q

diffusion:

A

the net movement of solute molecules from their area of higher concentration to lower concentration

155
Q

osmosis:

A

the net movement of water molecules from their area of higher concentration to lower concentration

156
Q

facilitated difusion:

A

the movement of larger molecules from an area of higher oncentration to lower concentration with the use of a transport protein

157
Q

isotonic:

A

the environment is equal in concentration to the cell’s internal environment. No net movement of water into or out of the cell

158
Q

hypotonic:

A

the solute concentration of the external environment is lower than the cell’s internal environment; net movement of water into the cell

159
Q

hypertonic

A

the environment has a higher solute concentration that the cytoplasm; net movement of water out of the cell

160
Q

endocytosis:

A

things move inside the cell

161
Q

exocytosis:

A

things move out of the cell

2 types: phagocytosis and pinocytosis

162
Q

pinocytosis

A

cell drinking

163
Q

phagocytosis

A

cell eating

164
Q

How have organisms adapted to living in hypotonic environments?

A

amobeas and paramecium have contractile vacuoles that constantly fill with water and expel it to the exterior of the cell

165
Q

How have organisms adapted to living in hypertonic environments?

A

they increase the solute concentration by storing salt

166
Q

What kind of environment do most bacteria live in?

A

hypotonic

167
Q

What would happen to a bacterial cell living in a hypertonic environment?

A

lysis

168
Q

What is optimum growth temperature?

A

promotes the fastest rate of growth and environment

169
Q

halophiles:

A

live in high salt environments

170
Q

psychrophiles

A

live in -15C to 20C

171
Q

mesophiles

A

live in 10C to 50C

172
Q

thermophiles

A

live in 45C to 80C

173
Q

hyperthermophiles

A

live in 67C to 105C up to 250C

174
Q

neutrophiles

A

pH 6-8

175
Q

acidophiles

A

pH 0-2

176
Q

alkalinophiles

A

pH 8-11

177
Q

mutualistic:

A

both members benefit; normal flora

178
Q

commensalism:

A

one member benefits, the other is not harmed; nomal flora

179
Q

parasitic:

A

one member benefits, the host is harmed; pathogens

180
Q

synergism:

A

members cooperate and share nutrients

181
Q

antagonism:

A

some members are inhibited or destroyed by others

182
Q

what are symbiotic relationships:

A

mutualistic
commensalism
parasitic

183
Q

what are nonsymbiotic relationships?

A

synergism

antagonism

184
Q

what is generation time?

A

period of time for one cell to become two cells

185
Q

what are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve?

A

lag phase
exponential phase
stationary phase
death phase

186
Q

lag phase

A

no rise in number of cells

187
Q

exponential phase

A

cells divide at maximum rate

188
Q

stationary phase

A

growth equals death

189
Q

death phase

A

cell death is greater than cell growth

190
Q

Bacteria reproduce only byasexual reproduction called

A

bionary fission

191
Q

what is bionary fission?

A

a. early phase of cycle
b. parent cell enlarges, cell wall notch develops that becomes septum, chromosome attaches to the cell membrane and replicates
c. septum grows inward and chromosomes are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell. cell enlarges
d. septum synthesized completely through cell center
e. two seperate daughter cells

192
Q

aerobe:

A

must have oxygen for growth

193
Q

microaerophile

A

requires less oxygen that is found in air

194
Q

facilitative anaerobe

A

grows with or without oxygen

195
Q

strict anaerobe

A

does not use oxygen for growth; dies in presence of oxygen

196
Q

Is Staphylococcus auerus gram positive or negative?

A

gram positive

197
Q

what is the arrangement of staphylococcus aureus

A

clusters

198
Q

What toxins are found in staphlyococcus aeurus?

A

entertoxins
exfoliative toxin
toxic shock toxin

199
Q

what is the transmission of staphylococcus aureus?

A

it can invade through skin wounds, follicles, skin glands

200
Q

what diseases come from staphylococcus aureus?

A

staphylococcal food poisoning
staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
toxic shock syndrome

201
Q

what vaccines are used for staphylococcus aureus?

A

staphvax

202
Q

How do you treat staphylococccus?

A

susceptibility test

203
Q

what does entertoxin damage?

A

intestinal lining (food poisoning)

204
Q

what doese exfoliative toxin damage?

A

seperates the epidermal layer from the dermis (SSSS)

205
Q

what does toxic shock toxin damage?

A

several organs

206
Q

what is folliculitis?

A

a mild infection of hair follicles or glands (pimples) (staph)

207
Q

what is a boil or furnacle?

A

infection of a single follicle progresses into a large, red, tender abscess or pustule (staph)

208
Q

what is a carbuncle?

A

cluster of furnucles usually found on the back of the neck (staph)

209
Q

what is impetigo?

A

infection of the skin with bubble like epidermal swellings. most common in newborns (staph)

210
Q

what is a wound?

A

any potential cut, scrape or bug bite

211
Q

what is staphylococcal food poisoning?

A

food intoxication

aquired by contaminated food

212
Q

what is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

a disease aquired in a newborn by infection of umbilical stump or eyes.

213
Q

When was toxic shock syndrome first identified?

A

1978 in women using tampons

214
Q

what are some special characteristics of streptococcus?

A 
facultative anaerobes
do not form catalase
requires enriched media
small non-pigmented colonies
sensitive to drying, heat and disinfectants
215
Q

is streptococcus gram positive or negative?

A

gram positive

216
Q

What is the arrangement of streptococcus?

A

in pairs or chains of varying length

217
Q

What is group A streptococcus?

A

streptococcus pyogenes

218
Q

What is the transmissson of streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

contact, droplets food or fomites

219
Q

What are some localized diseases caused by streptolococcal pyrogenes?

A

pyoderma
erysipelas
necrotizing fasciitis
streptococcal pharyngitis

220
Q

What is pyoderma?

A

streptococcal impetigo

highly contagious rash aquired by contact with blisters or crusts (contaminated fingers)

221
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

highly contagious rash that enters through a break in the skin

222
Q

what is necrotizing fasciitis?

A

flash eating disease aquired by a cut, scrape or insect bite. Effects connective tissue of the dermis

223
Q

what is streptococcal pharyngytis?

A

strep throat

aquired by droplets

224
Q

what are some systemic diseases caused by streptolococcal pyrogenes?

A

scarlet fever
pneumonia
toxic shock syndrome

225
Q

what is scarlet fever?

A

occurs after strep throat due to pyrogenic toxin or erythrogenic toxin. bright red rash that lasts ten days

226
Q

what is pneumonia?

A

caused by strep usually a secondary infection to influenza or other respiratory disease (strep)

227
Q

what is toxic shock syndrome (strep)?

A

more severe than S. aureus TSS

228
Q

what are some long term complications of streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

rheumatic fever

acute glomerulonephritis

229
Q

what is rheumatic fever?

A

inflammatory condition of joints, heart and subcutaneous tissues. due to cross reacting antibodies that attack connective tissue (follows strep throat) (strep)

230
Q

what is acute glomerulonephritis?

A

disease of kidney and tubular epithelia

due to immune complex deposittion in the kidney

231
Q

what is treatment for streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

penecillin V

vaccine in the works

232
Q

what is streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

major virulence factor: capsule
most people carry it as normal flora
affects people living in close quarters
aquired by droplets or endogenous

233
Q

what is pneumonia?

A

occurs when cells are aspirated into the lungs of susceptible individuals
pneumococci multiply and induce an overwhelming inflammatory response
s. pneumoniae s. pyrogenes

234
Q

what is otitis media?

A

middle ear infections in children s. pneumonia

235
Q

what is bacterial meningitis?

A

bacteria progress via bloodstream via CSF. Inflames the meninges, excess CSF creates pressure on the brain and spinal cord. permanent damage or death may occur s. pneumoniae

236
Q

what is the treatment for streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

penicillin G or V

237
Q

what vaccines are used for streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

pneumovax

prevnar

238
Q

What group is streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

group A

239
Q

What group is streptococcus agalactiae?

A

group B

240
Q

what is streptococcus agalactiae?

A

regulary resides in vagina, pharynx and large intestine

241
Q

How are pregnant women treated for streptococcus agalactiae?

A

screened during 3rd trimester; treated with IV antibiotics

242
Q

How is steptococcus agalactiae treated?

A

penicillin

243
Q

What bacteria belongs in the viridians group?

A

streptococcus mutans

streptococcus salivarus

244
Q

What are streptococcus mutans and streptococcus salivarus?

A

bacteria that affects the gums and teeth.

245
Q

How do you treat streptococcus mutans and streptococcus salivarus?

A

persons with preexisting heart conditions should receive antibiotics before dental surgeries

246
Q

what diseases are caused by streptococcus salivarus and streptococcus mutans?

A

dental caries

endocarditis

247
Q

What is enterococcus faecalis?

A

normal colonist of the large intestine; causes nosocomial infections

248
Q

what is the treatment of enterococcus?

A

combo of drugs: VRE vancomycin resistant enterococcus

249
Q

What are some characteristics of Family neisseriaceae?

A

gram negative
bean shaped diplococci
resides in mucous membrane

250
Q

what are the two pathogens in family neisseriaceae?

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

neisseria meningitidis

251
Q

what are some characteristics of genus neisseria?

A

gram negative bean shaped diplococci
capsules on pathogens
aerobic or microaerobic
produce catalase and cytochrome oxidase

252
Q

neisseria gonorrheae causes

A

genital gonorrhea in males
genitourinary gonorrhea in female
extragenital
gonococcal eye infections in newborn

253
Q

what are some characteristics of genital gonorrhea in males?

A

painful urination
scarring and infertility possible
10% are asymptomatic

254
Q

what are some characteristics of genitourinary gonorrhea in women?

A

painful urination, discharge
50% of women are asymptomatic
can continue to pelvic inflammatory disease

255
Q

what are some characteristics of extragenital gonorrhea?

A

different sexual practices can cause infections outside of the reproductive system (throat/anus)

256
Q

what is gynococcal eye infections of the newborn?

A

born to infected mother
can cause blindness
treated with silver nitrate or antibiotics

257
Q

how do you treat neisseriae gonorrhea?

A

penicillin

tetracycline

258
Q

Neisseria meningitidis causes

A

meningitis

259
Q

How is meningitis aquired?

A

droplets; usually people living in close quarters

260
Q

How does menngitis begin?

A

bacteria enters the bloodstream, crosses the blood-brain barrier, permeates the meninges and grows in the CSF

261
Q

What is meningcoccemia?

A

serious complecation that occurs when endotoxin causes hemorrhage and shock. Can be fatal

262
Q

What is the treatment for meningococcemia?

A

penicillin

263
Q

what are the two most common causes for meningitis?

A

steptococcus pneumoniae

nesseria meningitidis

264
Q

Louis jablot:

A

believed even microbes have parents

265
Q

Francesco Redi

A

spontaneous generation (meat in a jar)

266
Q

VBNC

A

viable but nonculturable

267
Q

biofilms

A

microbes cling together in complex masses

268
Q

What binds biofilms?

A

glycocalyx

269
Q

Biofilms are sometimes

A

impervious to disinfectants and antibiotics

270
Q

Culture Club/Boy George

A

I’ll tumble for ya

“run and tumble”

271
Q

Queen and David Bowie

A

“Under pressure”

Osmotic Pressure

272
Q

Snow Patrol

A

Chasing Cars

psychrophiles

273
Q

PPNG:

A

pennicillinase producing neisseriae gonorrheae

274
Q

TRNG

A

tetracycline producing neisseria gonorrhea

microbiology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions