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microbiology > Lab Practical 2 > Flashcards

Lab Practical 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is the optimum growth temperature?

A

temp where bacteria have the fastest rate of binary fission; where their generation time is the fastest

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2
Q

what are mesophiles?

A

optimum growth temp of 20 and 50 degrees

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3
Q

what are psychrophiles?

A

bacteria that grow in the range -15 to 20 degrees

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4
Q

what are thermophiles?

A

45 to 80 degrees

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5
Q

what are hyperthermophiles?

A

67 to 105

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6
Q

what is prodigiosin?

A

red pigment protein produced by serratia marcescens

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7
Q

In the temperature on bacteria growth lab, what could go wrong?

A

you may have incubated at the wrong temperature

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8
Q

what is the optimal growth temperature of s. marcescens?

A

25 degrees

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9
Q

what is the optimal growth temp of e coli?

A

37 degrees

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10
Q

what is the danger zone of food safety?

A

40 degrees to 140 degrees farenheight

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11
Q

what is the peak growth of a pshycrophile?

A

0 degrees celcius

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12
Q

what is the peak growth of a thermophile?

A

80 degrees celcius

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13
Q

what is osmolarity?

A

a measure of how much solute is dissolved in the solvent

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14
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the movement of water into or out of a cell

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15
Q

what is an isotonic solution?

A

the concentration of solute inside and outside the cell is equal so there is no movement of water

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16
Q

what is a hypotonic solution?

A

the concentration of solute inside the cell is greater than outside the cell so there is a net gain of water for the cell

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17
Q

what happens if a cell only has a membrane in an hypotonic solution?

A

bursting

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18
Q

How can cells survive in a hypotonic solution?

A

the presence of a cell wall

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19
Q

what is a hypertonic solution?

A

there is more solute outside of the cell than inside so water moves outside of the cell.

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20
Q

what happens to cells in an hypertonic solution?

A

the cell shrinks

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21
Q

why doesn’t a jar of jam in the refrigerator spoil?

A

the concentration of sugar is so high that the solution is hypertonic and the bacteria cannot grow

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22
Q

what are halophiles?

A

bacteria capable of growing in high salt concentrations

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23
Q

what are osmophiles?

A

bacteria that can tolerate hypertonic solutions (both salt and sugar)

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24
Q

where do most halophiles live?

A

the ocean

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25
Q

what is the ultraviolet range?

A

400 and 4 nanometers

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26
Q

what is the greatest source of ultraviolet light?

A

the sun

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27
Q

what do pyrimidine dimers do?

A

cause mutations in the genes in DNA replication sometimes causing cancer

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28
Q

What is UV light used to treat?

A

wastewater, clean room disinfection, air in hospitals

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29
Q

what is non-ionizing UV light?

A

UV light that penetrates surfaces poorly

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30
Q

what is ionizing UV light?

A

UV light that penetrates surfaces

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31
Q

what needs to happen for a microorganism to be classified as resistant?

A

the concentration of a drug required to inhibit or kill the microbe is greater than can safely be achieved in a patient without causing side effects

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32
Q

what is the Kirby-Bauer antibiotic sensitivity test?

A

determines what the best antibiotic and dose to use for a patient

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33
Q

What is the accepted standard media used for the Kirby-Bauer?

A

Muellar-Hinton agar

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34
Q

what is the zone of inhibition?

A

where the antibiotic kills the microbe around the antibiotic disk

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35
Q

what are narrow spectrum drugs?

A

effective against a limited array of different microbes

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36
Q

what are broad spectrum drugs?

A

active against a wider range of different microbes

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37
Q

what are some broad spectrum drugs?

A

tetracycline and ciproflaxin

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38
Q

what are some narrow spectrum drugs?

A

penicillin and vancomycin

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39
Q

How can drug resistance be circumvented?

A

having antibiotics prescribed after a culture and susceptibility test and having patients finish all of their antibiotics

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40
Q

what are some good forms of antiseptics?

A

first aid antiseptic and iodine

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41
Q

what disinfectants work the best?

A

chlorine and lysol

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42
Q

if an agent had no effect does that mean that it is an ineffective form of disinfectant?

A

no because there is probably more bacteria on the media than what the product is normally used to treat

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43
Q

how was the disinfectant test biased?

A

the product must be absorbed into cotton and must be water soluble

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44
Q

what is sepsis?

A

growth of a microorganism in blood and other tissues

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45
Q

what is asepsis?

A

any practice that prevents the entry of infectious agents into sterile tissues to prevent infection

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46
Q

what is disinfection?

A

reducing pathogenic microbes in or on nonliving material to a level where they are no longer a hazard

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47
Q

what is sterilization?

A

removing or killing all the organisms and viruses on an object

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48
Q

what is bactericide?

A

destroys bacteria with the exception of endospores

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49
Q

what is fungicide?

A

destroys fungal spores, hypae and yeast

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50
Q

what is virucide?

A

inactivates viruses

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51
Q

what is sporicide?

A

kills bacterial spores

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52
Q

where does most of Houston’s drinking water come from?

A

surface water of the San Jacinto and Trinity rivers

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53
Q

what is a coliform?

A

gram-negative, lactose fermenting bacteria

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54
Q

why is e coli a good indicator of fecal contamination?

A

e. coli is not found in soil so if it is in water it must have come from sewage; it is easily grown outside laboratory conditions; e. coli survives longer outside the body than other organisms

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55
Q

what is the presumptive test?

A

tests for lactose

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56
Q

what is the confirmed test?

A

tests for the presence of gram negative bacteria

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57
Q

why are differential and selective agars used for the confirmed test?

A

they contain chemicals that are toxic to gram positive bacteria

58
Q

what is a completed test?

A

identifies the species

59
Q

Does a high MPN in the presumptive test mean the water is unsafe to drink?

A

no, you will not know if coliforms are present until the confirmed test

60
Q

what are some sources of error on the fecal matter test?

A

not having enough water, contaminating your bottle or pipets, putting wrong amount of water in the test tubes or mislabeling

61
Q

what is an example of a coliform?

A

e. coli

62
Q

what is an example of a non-coliform?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

63
Q

what are some prokaryotic pathogens that can be present in sewage water?

A

e. coli
salmonella
shigella disentarie
vibrio cholera

64
Q

what are some eukaryotic pathogens that can be found in sewage water?

A

giardia lamblia
entamoeba histolytica
cryptosporidum parvum

65
Q

what are some viral pathogens that can be found in sewage water?

A

rotavirus, norwalk virus, hepatitis A

66
Q

How can you be certain that your bacteria is e coli during the confirmed test?

A

because of the colors on the plate,

67
Q

On the Levine EMB agar, what color is a positive result for e coli?

A

dark black colonies with a green sheen

68
Q

On the endo agar, what color is positive for e coli?

A

dark red nucleated colonies

69
Q

what is the bacterial count?

A

the concentration of bacteria present in milk

70
Q

what is pasteurization?

A

kills certain types of organisms but does not sterilize the product

71
Q

what is the flash method?

A

71.6 degrees Celsius for 15 seconds

72
Q

why could milk that has always been properly refrigerated have a high bacteria count?

A

Because the milk has not been properly sterilized and bacteria can still reproduce in refrigeration. Also someone could have drank directly from the container

73
Q

Does the batch or flash method sterilize milk?

A

no

74
Q

does the ultra high temperature method sterilize milk?

A

yes

75
Q

why is milk a more suitable vehicle of disease than water?

A

it carries more nutrients allowing the bacteria to feed more proteins

76
Q

what are some infectious diseases that can be transmitted from cows?

A

brucella, tuberculosis, listeriosis

77
Q

what are dental caries?

A

tooth decay

78
Q

why do you form dental caries?

A

production of lactic acid by bacteria in the presence of high levels of sugar

79
Q

what is a good method to test for tooth decay?

A

M.L. Snyders caries suseptibility test

80
Q

what indicates the presence of acid production in M. L. Snyder’s susceptibility test?

A

bromcresol green

81
Q

what factors could affect the reliability of M. L. Snyder’s test?

A

not using enough spit, and it is best to do this test a few hours after brushing

82
Q

To increase the validity of M.L. Snyders test, how many times should it be performed?

A

three times over the course of 72 hours

83
Q

what are some benefits of chewing sugar free gum?

A

more saliva is produced diluting the acids in your mouth and the stickiness pulls the bacteria from your teeth

83
Q

What is trichinella spirosis?

A

Cause trichinosis when ingesting raw or undercooked pork.

84
Q

What phylum is trichinosis spiralis?

A

Nematoda

85
Q

What are the symptoms of trichinosis spiralis?

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, itchy skin, muscle aches, headaches

86
Q

What phylum is enterobius vermicicularis?

A

Nematoda

87
Q

What is enterobius vermicicularis?

A

Pinworm. Causes itching around the anus and difficulty sleeping due to the female laying her eggs. Common in children.

88
Q

What is taenia saginata?

A

Tapeworm. Results from eating undercooked beef.

89
Q

What is the phylum for taenia saginata?

A

Platyhelminthes

90
Q

What is the class of taenia saginata?

A

Cestoda

91
Q

What is the head of a tapeworm called?

A

Scolex

92
Q

What are the individual segments of a tapeworm called?

A

Proglottids

93
Q

What structures are found on the tapeworm?

A

Hooks and suckers

94
Q

What are the symptoms of tapeworm?

A

Abdominal pain, weight loss, proglottids in the feces

95
Q

What is amoeba proteus?

A

Non pathogenic cousin of enteramoeba histolytica which causes amebiasis.

96
Q

What are the symptoms to amebiasis?

A

Cramping, pain, dysentery.

97
Q

What are the structures on amoeba proteus?

A

Pseudopods and nucleus

98
Q

What phylum and class is amoebas proteus

A

Platyhelminthes Cestoda

99
Q

What is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted disease caused by a flagellated protozoan.

100
Q

What are the symptoms of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

If they occur, inflammation of the mucus membranes of the urethra and vagina. Causes purelent discharge in females and dysuria in males.

101
Q

What are the structures of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Nucleus flagella

102
Q

What class and phylum is trichomonas vaginalis in?

A

Platyhelminthes Cestoda

103
Q

What is trypanosoma Brucei?

A

Causes sleeping sickness being transmitted by the tsetse fly in rural Africa.

104
Q

What phylum and class does trypanosoma Brucei belong to?

A

Platyhelminthes Cestoda

105
Q

What are the symptoms of trypanosoma Brucei?

A

Fever, headaches, muscle pain, extreme fatigue

106
Q

What does trypanosomes Brucei do?

A

Crosses the blood brain barrier and causes neurological damage.

107
Q

What two species are in the kingdom fungi?

A

Penicillium rhizopus

108
Q

What are the structures of penicillium?

A

Conida with spores and mycelium

109
Q

What are the structures of rhizopus??

A

Mycelium and sporangium with spores.

110
Q

In the Durham test what is a positive result for acid??

A

Red

111
Q

In the Durham test what is a negative result for acid?

A

Yellow

112
Q

In the Durham test what is a positive result for co2?

A

Air bubble

113
Q

In the Durham test what is a negative for co2?

A

No air bubble

114
Q

What is the indicator of pH in the Durham test?

A

Phenol red

116
Q

During the methyl red test, what is the results for mixed acid fermentation?

A

Red is positive

Yellow is negative.

116
Q

In the urea hydrolysis test, what colors are the result?

A

Bright pink– positive for urease

Orange– negative for urease

117
Q

What are the results for kligler’s iron agar?

A

Black is positive

Red, yellow or half and half is negative.

118
Q

What reagent is used for mixed acid fermentation?

A

Methyl red in the mrvp tube.

119
Q

What are the results in the vogues proskauer test?

A

Red is postive

Yellow is negative.

120
Q

What reagent is used for the vogues proskauer test?

A

Vp-a vp-b

121
Q

What are the results from the tryptone test?

A

Red oily layer is positive

Yellow oily layer is negative

122
Q

What reagent is used in the tryptophan test?

A

Indole

123
Q

What are the results of the Simmons citrate test?

A

Blue is positive

Green is negative.

124
Q

What are the results of the phenylalanine test?

A

Green is positive

Yellow is negative.

125
Q

What is the reagent used in the phenylalanine test?

A

Ferric chloride

126
Q

What are the results of the nitrate reduction test?

A

Red is positive

Yellow is negative

127
Q

What reagents are used for the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrase a and b

128
Q

What does the durham test test for?

A

sugars the organism can ferment

129
Q

what does the mixed acid fermentation test for?

A

mixed acids

130
Q

what does the Vogues-Proskauer test for?

A

2, 3 butanediol fermentation

131
Q

what does the catalase test for?

A

catalase

132
Q

what is the reagent for catalase?

A

hydrogen peroxide

133
Q

what does the citrate utilization test for?

A

citratase

134
Q

what is metabolism?

A

all chemical reactions that take place in a cell

135
Q

what is anabolism?

A

a building up reaction that requires energy

136
Q

what is catabolism?

A

breakdown of large organic molecules that releases energy

137
Q

what are obligate aerobes?

A

humans– must have oxygen to survivve

138
Q

what are obligate anaerobes?

A

bacteria living deep underground that do not need oxygen to survive

139
Q

what are facultative anaerobes?

A

can live with or without oxygen

140
Q

what is anaerobic respiration?

A

most efficient catabolic process for extracting energy from a carbon source

141
Q

what does the nitrate reduction test for?

A

aerobic respiration

microbiology (7 decks)

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