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microbiology > lecture test 3 part 2 > Flashcards

lecture test 3 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

is bacillus gram positive or negative?

A

gram positive

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2
Q

bacillus forms:

A

endospores

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3
Q

where do you normally find bacillus?

A

soil

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4
Q

is bacillus aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

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5
Q

what is the function of bacillus?

A

degrading complex macromolecules and a source of antibiotics

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6
Q

what are the two types of bacillus?

A

bacillus anthracis

bacillus cereus

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7
Q

what is the shape of bacillus anthracis?

A

large block shaped rods

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8
Q

does bacillus have endospores?

A

yes

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9
Q

bacillus have spores that develop under al conditions except:

A

the human body

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10
Q

what are the virulence factors of bacillus?

A

polypeptide capsule

exotoxins

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11
Q

bacillus anthracis causes

A

anthrax

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12
Q

how do humans aquire bacillus anthracis?

A

contact with infected animals

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13
Q

who used bacillus anthracis in his work?

A

robert koch

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14
Q

what are the portal of entries of bacillus?

A

cutaneous
pulmonary
gastrointestinal

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15
Q

what is the cutaneous portal of entry?

A

spores enter through skin; least dangerous

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16
Q

what is the pulmonary portal of entry?

A

inhalation of spores

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17
Q

what is the gastrointestinal portal of entry?

A

ingested spores

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18
Q

what is cutaneous anthrax?

A

spores enter the skin or small cuts when handling animal hides or hair

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19
Q

what are the symptoms of cutaneous anthrax?

A

growth of microbe in the skin forms a pupil that turns into a black eschar

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20
Q

what is pulmonary anthrax also known as?

A

wool-sorter’s disease

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21
Q

how is pulmonaru anthrax aquired?

A

spores are inhaled and grow in the lungs. the bacillus is phagocytized killing microphages and causing the release of cytokines

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22
Q

what are the effects of pulmonary anthrax?

A

thrombosis
cardiovascular shock
and rapid death in 99% of cases

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23
Q

what are the symptoms of pulmonary anthrax?

A

fatigue, malaise, fever, aches and cough. later, high fever, labored brreathing and shock

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24
Q

what is gastrointestianal anthrax?

A

occurs when contaminated meat is ingested

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25
Q

what are the symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax?

A

the same as pulmonary but also bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain and vomitting

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26
Q

what is bacillus cereus?

A

common airborne and dustborne bacteria that is resistent to disinfection and antisepsis

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27
Q

where does bacillus cereus multiply?

A

cooked foods like rice, potatoes and meat dishes. the spores survive cooking and reheating

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28
Q

what does bacillus cereus produce?

A

enterotoxin

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29
Q

what is the treatment for bacillus cereus?

A

there isn’t one

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30
Q

what are the symtoms of bacillus cereus?

A 
nausea
vomitting 
abdominal cramps
diarrhea 
(24 hours)
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31
Q

who is most at risk for bacillus cereus?

A

immunosuppressd intubated patients

drug addicts

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32
Q

what is Lab ID?

A

gram positive bacilli that produce endospores from sputum or skin scraping

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33
Q

what is the antibiotic treatment for Lab ID?

A

penicilliin
tetracycline
ciproflaxin

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34
Q

what is the vaccine for Lab ID?

A

biothrax

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35
Q

what is clostridum?

A

gram postitive, spore forming rods that live in soil and are strict anaerobes

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36
Q

where are clostridum spores produced?

A

only under anaerobic conditions

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37
Q

what is the function of clostridum?

A

synthesize organic acids, alcohols and exotoxins

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38
Q

what does clostridum cause?

A

wound infections, tissue infections and food intoxications

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39
Q

what are the most common types of clostridum?

A

clostridum perfringes
clostridum tetani
clostridum botulinum
clostridum difficle

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40
Q

what which clostridum infects wounds and tissues?

A

perfringens
tetani
difficile

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41
Q

what is clostridum perfringens?

A

causes gas gangrene

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42
Q

where are clostridum perfingens spores found?

A

soil, human skin, intestine and the vagina

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43
Q

how is clostridum perfingens acquired?

A 
surgical incision 
punture 
gunshot wound
crushing trauma
compound fracture
diabetic sore
frostbite
septic abortions
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44
Q

what is the most potent toxin that perfingens produces?

A

alpha toxin

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45
Q

what does alpha toxin do?

A

kills tissue

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46
Q

what are the two forms of perfingens?

A

anaerobic cellulitis

myonecrosis

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47
Q

what is anaerobic cellulitis?

A

bacteria spread in damaged necrotic muscle tissue produces toxins and gas but remains localized

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48
Q

what is myonecrosis?

A

bacteria spread in damaged necrotic muscle tissue produces toxins and gas and progresses into a health issue

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49
Q

what are the symptoms of perfringens

A

pain, edema, bloody exudate in lesion along with fever, tachycardia, blackened necrotic tissue with gas bubbles

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50
Q

how do you treat perfringens?

A

immediate cleansing of wounds.
amputation
hyperbaric oxygen therapy

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51
Q

what antibiotics are used to treat perfringens?

A

cephlasporin

penicillin

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52
Q

what vaccines are available for perfringens?

A

none

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53
Q

what is clostridum tetani?

A

causes tetanus or lock jaw

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54
Q

what toxin does clostridum tetani produce?

A

the neurotoxin tetanospasmin

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55
Q

who is most at risk for tetanus?

A

geriatric patients and drug users

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56
Q

how is clostridum tetani acquired?

A

spores enter wound through accidental puncture, burn, frostbite, crushed body or umbilical stump

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57
Q

what is tetanospasmin?

A

neurotoxin that causes paralysis by bonding to motor nerve endings in the spinal cord

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58
Q

what does tetanospasmin cause?

A

rigid paralysis

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59
Q

what are the symptoms of clostridum tetani?

A

clenching of jaw, arching of the back, flexion of the arms, extension of the legs and death due to paralysis in respiratory muscles

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60
Q

how is clostridum tetani treated?

A

antitixiin therapy inactivates circualting toxin but does not counteract the damage already done.

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61
Q

what antibiotics are prescribed for clostridum tetani?

A

penicillin and tetracycline

muscle relaxants

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62
Q

what is the vaccine for tetani?

A

DTaP

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63
Q

what is clostridum difficile?

A

normal resident of the colone usually kept in low numbers that causes antibiotic associated colitis

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64
Q

how is clostridum difficile acqured?

A

superinfection caused by antibiotics kill too much bacteria allowing difficile to overgrow

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65
Q

what are the symptoms of clostridum difficile?

A

diarhea, abdominal cramps, fever, patches of colon lining sloughs off

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66
Q

where is clostridum difficile most commonly found?

A

in hospitals. increasingly common in in community acquired diarrhea

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67
Q

what is the treatment for clostridum difficile?

A

fluid and electrilyte replacement

withdrawl of antimicrobials

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68
Q

what antibiotics are used for clostridum dificile?

A

vancomycin

metranidazole

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69
Q

what is two bacterias cause clostridal food poisoning?

A

clostridum botulinum

clostridum perfringens

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70
Q

what isclostridium botulinum food poisoning?

A

rare but severe poisoning usually from home canned foods

71
Q

what is clostridum perfringens food poisoning?

A

mild intestinal illness; second most common form of food poisoning in the world

72
Q

what is clostridum botulinum?

A

causes botulism

73
Q

what toxin does clostridum botulinum produce?

A

the neurotoxin botulin

74
Q

how is clostridum botulinum acquired?

A

eating food contaminated with spores, mostly home canned

75
Q

what does botulin do?

A

prevents the release of acetycholine causing flaccid paralysis

76
Q

what are the symptoms of botulism?

A

double vision, difficulty swallowing and speaking, nausea and vomitting, progressive muscular paralysis and respiratory paralysis

77
Q

what is infant botulism?

A

affects infants up to 12 months

78
Q

how is infant botulism acquired?

A

ingesting spores from the dust of vegetables or raw honey

79
Q

what is wound botulism?

A

spores enter a wound and cause food poisoning symptoms

80
Q

what is the treatment for botulism?

A

penicillin
antitoxin
respiratory support

81
Q

what does botulin produce?

82
Q

what is botox?

A

lunch hour face lift

83
Q

what are some side effects of botox?

A

help with headaches and migrane

84
Q

what is corynebacterium diptheriae?

A

gram positive irregular bacteria that causes diptheria

85
Q

potential for diptheria is

A

always present

86
Q

who is mostly at risk for diptheria?

A

non immunized children living in unsanitary conditions

87
Q

how is diptheria acquired?

A

respiratory droplets

88
Q

what toxin does corynebacterium diphtheriae produce?

A

the exotoxin diphtherotoxin

89
Q

what are the two stages of diptheria?

A

local infection

diptherotoxin production and toxemia

90
Q

what is the local infection pertaining to diptheria?

A

upper respiratory tract inflammation

91
Q

pseudomembrane formation can cause

A

asphyxiation

92
Q

what is the treatment for diptheria

A

penicillin
antitoxin
surgery

93
Q

what is the vaccine for corynebacterium?

94
Q

what are propionibacterium?

A

gram positive rods that are common residents of the pilosebacceous glands. nontoxigenic and anaerobic or aerotolerant

95
Q

what does propionibacterium cause?

96
Q

which bacteria are acid fast and strict anaerobes?

A

mycobacteria (gram positive)

97
Q

mycobacteria posess

A

mycolic acids in the cell walls

98
Q

do mycobacteria contain endospores?

99
Q

what is mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

disease that causes tuberculosis but produces no exotoxins or enzymes

100
Q

what are the virulence factors of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

mycolic acids and cord factor

101
Q

what are the three stages of tuberculosis?

A

primary
secondary
disseminated

102
Q

what is primary tuberculosis?

A

after 3-4 weeks tubercules form

103
Q

if the center of the tubercle breaks down…..

A

it forms caseous lesions that gradually heal by calcification

104
Q

what is the infectious dose of primary tuberculosis?

105
Q

what is secondary tuberculosis?

A

tubercles expand and drain into the bronchial tubes and upper respiratory tract/

106
Q

what are the symptoms of secondary tuberculosis?

A 
coughing
greeninsh or bloody sputum
fever
anorexia
weight loss 
fatigue
107
Q

if untreated what is the mortality rate of secondary tuberculosis?

108
Q

what is dessimated TB?

A

bacilli dessimate to regional lymph nodes, kidneys, long bones, genital tract, brain and meninges and create tubercles

109
Q

how do you diagnose tuberculosis?

A

mantoux test
xrays
acid fast test of specimen
biochemical testing

110
Q

what is the mantoux test?

A

injection of purified protein derivative. look for red wheal to form in 48-72 hours.

111
Q

what is the treatment for tuberculosis?

A

combination of isoniazid and rifampin

112
Q

what is the vaccine for tuberculosis?

A

BCG vaccine

113
Q

what is MDR-TB?

A

multidrug resistant tuberculosis

114
Q

what is XDR-TB?

A

extremely drug resistant

resistant to isoniazid and rifampin

115
Q

what is microbacterium leprae?

A

a strict parasite that lives in 30 C. Slowest growing of all species and cannot be grown on artificial media

116
Q

what does micro bacterium leprae cause?

117
Q

what is leprosy?

A

disease that is not highly contagious and they’re not sure how it is acquired. It may be associated with a specific genetic marker

118
Q

what are the two types of leprosy?

A

tuberculoid leprosy

lepromateous leprosy

119
Q

what is tuberculoid leprosy?

A

asymmetrical, shallow lesions that damages nerves and results in loss of pain receptors

120
Q

what is the treatment for tuberculoid leprosy?

A

easily treated with rifampin and dapsone for six months

121
Q

what is lepromatous leprosy?

A

a deeply nodular infection that causes severe disfigurement of the face and extremities

122
Q

what is the treatment for lepromatous leprosy?

A

rifampin and dapsone for a minimum of two years then dapsone for additional ten years

123
Q

how do you diagnose leprosy?

A

detection of acid fast bacilli in skin lesions, nasal discharges and tissue samples

124
Q

what are some problems with Cdiff?

A

bowel issues, relentless diarrhea and abdominal pain

125
Q

Cdiff causes

A

Crohn’s disease or ulcers

126
Q

what is the treatment of Cdiff?

A

fecal transplant

127
Q

what is Treponema pallidum?

A

gram negative spirochete that causes syphillus and is acquired through sexual intercourse

128
Q

what are the three stages of syphilis?

A

primary
secondary
tertiary

129
Q

what is primary syphilis?

A

appearance of chancre, fluid from chancre is highly contagious, chancre heals and moves into the blood then there is a latent period

130
Q

what is secondary syphilis?

A

spirochete is multiplying in the bloodstream, rash forms on the skin and palms and soles of the feet, the rash disappears spontaneoulsly

131
Q

what is tertiary syphilis?

A

damage to multiple tissues and organs. gummas have developed

132
Q

what is neurosyphilis?

A

involves the nervous system and has diverse symptoms including an irregular shaped pupil

133
Q

what is congenital syphilis?

A

syphilis can pass from mother to child most commonly in the second and third trimester. Causes miscarriage and still birth

134
Q

what is the treatment for syphilis?

A

penicillin

135
Q

what is leptospira interrogans?

A

disease causing leptospirosis acquired by contact with infected urine of wild animals.

136
Q

what is the first phase of leptospira interrogans?

A

pathogen appears in the blood and CSF. high fever, chills headaches, muscles aches, eye infections and vomitting

137
Q

what is the second phase of leptospira interrogans?

A

blood infection is cleared, milder fever, headaches, kidney disease, hepatic disease, neurological problems

138
Q

what is the outcome of leptospira interrogans?

A

long term disability or death

139
Q

what is the treatment for leprospira interrogans?

A

penicillin

140
Q

what is borrelia burgdorferi?

A

disease that causes Lyme’s disease acquired by tick bites. nonfatal

141
Q

what are the early stages of Lymes disease?

A

bull’s eye rash, headache, fever, stiff neck

142
Q

what is the second stage of Lymes disease?

A

palpations in heartbeat and loss of muscle tone in one side of the face. Polyarthritis in all joints

143
Q

what is the treatment for borrelia burgdorferi?

A

tetracycline

144
Q

what is vibrio cholerae?

A

disease that causes cholera acquired by contaminated food, water and shellfish.

145
Q

what toxin does vibrio cholerae emit?

A

the exotoxin chloragen

146
Q

what does chloragen do?

A

releases large amounts of electrolytes which causes severe water loss

147
Q

what are the symptoms of cholera?

A

vomitting, diarrhea, nausea, and stomach cramps

148
Q

what is the treatment for cholera?

A

tetracycline

149
Q

what is helicobacter pylori?

A

a gastric pathogen that causes curved cells causing ulcers.

150
Q

what does helicobacter produce?

151
Q

who first identified heliobacter pylori?

A

barry marshall and robin warren

152
Q

what did barry marshall and robin warren do?

A

drank a culture of heliobacter

received the nobel prize

153
Q

what is the treatment for heliobacter pylori?

A

clarithromycin

154
Q

what is rickettsial thyphi?

A

causes typhus, a disease acquired from infected fleas of rats. Causes a skin rash

155
Q

what is the treatment of typhi?

A

tetracycline

156
Q

what is the great pox?

157
Q

what is rickettsia rickettsii?

A

causes rocky mountain spotted fever, a disease caused by a tick bite.

158
Q

what are the symptoms of rickettsia rickettsii?

A

distinctive spotted rash

159
Q

what is the treatment for rickettsia rickettsii?

A

tetracycline

160
Q

what is bartonella henselae?

A

causes cat scratch disease

161
Q

what are the symptoms of bartonella henselae?

A

1-2 weeks after bitten, cluster of small pupules at site of scratch

162
Q

what is the treatment of cat scratch disease?

A

tetracycline

163
Q

what is chlamydia trachmydiosis?

A

causes chlamydiosis, a disease acquired by sexual intercourse.

164
Q

what are the symptoms of chlamydiosis?

A

males: urithritis
females: pelvic inflammatory disease

165
Q

what is ocular trachoma?

A

an eye infection of chlamydia in adults and children spread by fingers and fomites

166
Q

what is inclusion conjunctivitis?

A

eye infection of chlamydia caused by newborn passing through the birth canal

167
Q

what is the treatment for chalmydia trachmydiosis?

A

tetracycline

168
Q

what is mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

walking pneumonia. a bacteria that has no cell wall acquired by droplets

169
Q

what are the symptoms of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

fever, sore throat, headache, chest pain, earache

170
Q

what is the treatment of mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

tetracycline

171
Q

what is the bonus song “another one bites the dust”

A

freddy mercury

chemial agent

172
Q

what is the bonus song “Set fire to the rain”

A

adele

incineration

173
Q

what is the bonus song cat scratch fever?

A

ted nugent

cat scratch disease

microbiology (7 decks)

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