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microbiology > FINAL!!!! > Flashcards

FINAL!!!! Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of microbiology?

A

specialized area of biology that deals with living things too small to be seen with the naked eye.

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2
Q

What is the study of bacteria?

A

bacteriology

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3
Q

what is the study of vises?

A

virology

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4
Q

what is the study of fungi?

A

mycology

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5
Q

what is the study of algae?

A

phycology

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6
Q

what is the study of protozoa?

A

protozoology

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7
Q

what is the study of helminths?

A

parasitology

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8
Q

what is bacteria measured in?

A

micrometers

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9
Q

what are viruses measured in?

A

nanometers

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10
Q

what is spontaneous generation?

A

living things appear from nonliving matter

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11
Q

what is biogenesis?

A

living things arise from other living things of the same kind

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12
Q

What did Anthony van Leeuwenhoek contribute to microbiology?

A

Invented the first handheld microscope.

Father of bacteriology and protozoology

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13
Q

What did Louis Pasteur contribute to microbiology?

A
  • disproved spontaneous generation
  • pasteurization
  • germ theory of disease
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14
Q

What did Robert Koch contribute to microbiology?

A
  • verified germ theory of disease
  • Koch’s postulates
  • developed lab techniques
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15
Q

what etiological agent did Robert Koch use in his experiments?

A

Bacilus anthracis (anthrax)

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16
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

an organism that can cause disease in a normal healthy individual

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17
Q

what is normal flora?

A

microbes that normally live in or on a human and do not normally cause disease

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18
Q

what is taxonomy?

A

formal system for organizing, classifying and naming living things

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19
Q

what is the order of the taxa?

A 
Did Popeye come over for green spinach
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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20
Q

What is the domain bacteria?

A

prokaryotic; true bacteria

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21
Q

what is domain archaea?

A

prokaryotic; bacteria that lives in extreme environments

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22
Q

what is domain eukarya?

A

eukaryotic; has a nucleus and organelles

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23
Q

what are the five I’s?

A 
Innoculation
Incubation
Isolation
Inspection
Information gathering
Identification
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24
Q

what is inoculation?

A

introduce bacteria into media using a loop or needle

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25
Q

what is incubation?

A

heating the media at 37 degrees allowing bacteria to grow

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26
Q

what is isolation?

A

isolate a single colony to obtain a pure culture

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27
Q

what is a pure culture?

A

one microbe growing on the culture media

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28
Q

what is a mixed culture?

A

more than one microbe growing on the culture media

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29
Q

what are the three types of media?

A

liquid
semisolid
solid

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30
Q

which type of media has the most agar?

A

solid

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31
Q

where is agar derived from?

A

red algae gelidium

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32
Q

who first used agar?

A

fanny hesse robert koch’s assistant’s wife

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33
Q

what is the difference between simple and differential stains?

A

a simple stain only uses one dye and distinguishes cell shape arrangement and size. Differential uses two dyes and distinguishes cell types or parts

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34
Q

What is the primary stain?

A

first stain you use

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35
Q

what is a counter stain?

A

the second stain you use

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36
Q

what stain did hans christian gram invent?

A

the gram stain

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37
Q

who developed the petri dish?

A

richard petri

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38
Q

What are the three basic bacterial shapes?

A

coccus
bacillus
spiral or curved shape

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39
Q

what is the atypical shape?

A

pleomorphic rods

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40
Q

what are pleomorphic rods?

A

cells of the same species vary in shape and size

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41
Q

what are the three spiral shapes?

A

vibrio
spirillum
spirochete

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42
Q

what is vibrio?

A

comma shaped

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43
Q

what is spirillum?

A

rigid spiral or helix shape. Cells do not bend; amphitricious

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44
Q

what is spirochette?

A

flexible spring shape; endoflagella

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45
Q

what is a single coccus?

A

single round cell

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46
Q

what is diplococcus?

A

two round cells

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47
Q

what is streptococcus?

A

chain of round cells

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48
Q

what is staphylococcus:?

A

cluster of round cells

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49
Q

what is a tetrad?

A

packet of four round cells

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50
Q

what is a sarcina?

A

cube of 8 or 16 round cells

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51
Q

what is a single bacillus?

A

one oblong cell

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52
Q

what is a diplobacillus?

A

two oblong cells

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53
Q

what is a streptobacillus?

A

chain of oblong cells

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54
Q

what is a palisade?

A

match sticks or picket fence of oblong cells

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55
Q

Motile bacteria will

A

flip, rotate, and go straight (run and tumble)

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56
Q

Non motile bacteria will:

A

vibrate (Brownian’s movement)

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57
Q

what are fimbriae?

A

many short hairs used for attachment to the environment

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58
Q

what are pili?

A

a single, long, hollow appendage used for attachement to another bacteria to exchange DNA during conjugation

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59
Q

What is comprised of the cell envelope?

A

cell wall

cell membrane

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60
Q

what is the glycocaylyx?

A

a coating of molecules external to the cell wall, made of sugars and proteins

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61
Q

Do all cells have a glycocaylyx?

A

no

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62
Q

what is the function of the glycocaylyx?

A

to allow cell to adhere to the environment

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63
Q

what is the function of the cell wall?

A

to determine the shape and prevent lysis due to changing osmotic pressures

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64
Q

what is the major molecule in the cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan layer

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65
Q

Gram positive bacteria?

A

thick peptidoglycan layer
teichoic acid
no outer membrane

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66
Q

Gram negative bacteria:

A

thin peptidoglycan layer
no teichoic acid
outer membrane exteranal to the cell wall

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67
Q

what is the cell membrane composed of?

A

phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins

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68
Q

what is the primary function of the cell membrane?

A

selectively allows passage of molecules into and out of the cell

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69
Q

what are the two types of DNA found in the nucleoid?

A

chromosome

plasmid

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70
Q

what is a chromosome?

A

single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that contains all of the genetic information required of the cell

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71
Q

what is a plasmid?

A

Free, small, circular, double stranded DNA that is very important to bacterial resistance

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72
Q

what is the function of a plasmid?

A

genetic engineering–readily manipulated and transfered from cell to cell

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73
Q

what is the function of a ribosome?

A

it is the site of protein synthesis

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74
Q

what is the function of endospores?

A

when exposed to adverse environments, it is capable of high resistance and long term survival

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75
Q

what are the six environmental factors that effect microbes existance?

A 
nutrients
osmotic pressure
temp
pH
gas
other organisms
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76
Q

what are macronutrients?

A

required in large quantities and play principle roles in cell structure and metabolism

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77
Q

what are micronutrients?

A

required in smaller amounts for enzyme function and maintenece of protein structure

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78
Q

what are some examples of macronutrients?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfer

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79
Q

what are some examples of micronutrients?

A

calcium, sodium, potassium, zinc, copper, nickel

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80
Q

what are some examples of passive transport?

A

diffusion
facilitated diffusion
osmosis

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81
Q

what is diffusion?

A

net movement of solute molecules from their area of higher concentration to lower concentration

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82
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

the movement of larger solute molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration with the help of a transport protein

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83
Q

what is osmosis?

A

net movement of water molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration

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84
Q

what are some examples of active transport?

A

active transport and bulk transport

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85
Q

what is active transport?

A

the movement of solute molecules from an area of lower concentration to higher concentration with the help of a membrane protein pump

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86
Q

what is bulk transport

A

endocytosis and exocytosis

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87
Q

what is endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis and pinocytosis

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88
Q

what is phagocytosis?

A

cell eating

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89
Q

what is pinocytosis?

A

cell drinking

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90
Q

what is exocytosis?

A

things move out of the cell

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91
Q

what is a halophile?

A

lives in high salt environment

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92
Q

what is an osmophile?

A

lives in high concentration of several solutes

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93
Q

what is a psycrophile?

A

-15-20 degrees celcius

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94
Q

what is a mesophile?

A

10-50 degrees celcius

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95
Q

what is a thermophile?

A

45 to 80 degrees celcius

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96
Q

what is a hyperthermophile?

A

67 to 105 degrees

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97
Q

what is a neutrophile?

A

pH 6-8

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98
Q

what is a acidophile?

A

pH 0-2

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99
Q

what is a alkalinophile?

A

pH 8-11

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100
Q

what is an aerobe?

A

requires oxygen for growth

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101
Q

what is a microaerophile?

A

requires less oxygen than is found in air

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102
Q

what is a falcutative anaerobe?

A

grows with or without oxygen

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103
Q

what is an aerotolerant anaerobe?

A

does not use oxygen for growth; can tolerate oxygen

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104
Q

what is a strict anaerobe?

A

dies in the presence of oxygen

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105
Q

what are the four parts of the growth curve?

A

lag phase
exponential phase
stationary phase
death phase

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106
Q

what is the lag phase?

A

no rise in the number of cells

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107
Q

what is the exponential phase?

A

cells divide at maximun rate

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108
Q

what is the stationary phase?

A

growth=death

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109
Q

what is the death phase?

A

cell death is greater than cell growth

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110
Q

what is binary fission?

A

the bacteria’s way of asexual division

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111
Q

what is metabolism?

A

all chemical and physical workings of a cell

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112
Q

what are the two types of chemical reactions?

A

catabolism and anabolism

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113
Q

what is cataboliasm?

A

breaks the bonds of larger molecules forming smaller molecules; releases energy

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114
Q

what is anabolism?

A

synthesis; forms larger molecules from smaller molecules; requires ATP

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115
Q

what is the biological catalyst?

A

the enzyme composed of protein

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116
Q

what are coenzymes?

A

NAD and FAD

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117
Q

when carrying their electrons, NAD is rewritten as

A

NADH

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118
Q

when carrying their electrons, FAD is rewritten as

A

FADH

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119
Q

NAD and FAD will carry their electrons in the form of

A

two hydrogen atoms

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120
Q

what are the three paths of aerobic respiration?

A

glycolysis
Kreb’s cycle
respiratory chain

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121
Q

what are the three paths of anaerobic respiration?

A

glycolysis
Kreb’s cycle
respiratory chain

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122
Q

what are the paths of fermentation?

A

glycolysis

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123
Q

what is glycolysis?

A

9 chemical reactions in a branched pathway

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124
Q

does glycolysis need oxygen?

A

no

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125
Q

what is the starting molecule of glycolysis?

A

glucose

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126
Q

what is the product of glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvic acids

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127
Q

what is the energy used in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

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128
Q

what is energy made during glycolysis?

A

4 ATP

2NADH

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129
Q

what is the net energy of glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

2 NADH

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130
Q

where does glycolysis occur?

A

the cytoplasm

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131
Q

what is kreb’s cycle?

A

9 chemical reactions occuring in a cycle pathway.

occurs in the cytoplasm

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132
Q

what is the starting molecule for Kreb’s?

A

2 pyruvic acid

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133
Q

what is the product of Kreb’s?

A

6 CO2

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134
Q

what is the energy used during Kreb’s?

A

none

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135
Q

what is the energy made during Kreb’s?

A

8 NADH
2 FADH
2ATP

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136
Q

what is the net energy of Kreb’s?

A

8 NADH
2 FADH
2 ATP

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137
Q

what is the electon transport chain?

A

linear shaped pathway that occurs in the cell membrane

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138
Q

what is the exchange rate for coenzymes in the electron transport chain?

A

1 NADH = 3 ATP

1 FADH = 2 ATP

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139
Q

what is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration?

A

several possibilities but never oxygen

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140
Q

what is the total energy made during aerobic respiration?

A

38 ATP

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141
Q

what is the total energy made during anaerobic respiration?

A

less than 38 ATPs

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142
Q

what is the total energy made during fermentation?

A

small amount of ATP

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143
Q

does fermentation need oxygen?

A

no

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144
Q

what are some fermentative products?

A

sacchromyces cereviseae
lactobacillus acidopholus
acetobacterium
propionibacterium

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145
Q

what is sacchromyces cereviseae?

A

CO2+ethanol; used to make bread and adult beverages

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146
Q

what is lactobacillus acidophilus?

A

lactic acid; used to make yogurt and buttermilk

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147
Q

what is acetobacterium?

A

acetic acid; used to make dill pickles and sauerkraut

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148
Q

what is propionibacterium?

A

propionic acid; used to make swiss cheese

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149
Q

what DNA is replicated by rolling circle?

A

plasmid during conjugation

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150
Q

what DNA is replicated during replicon?

A

chromosome during binary fission

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151
Q

what is a spontaneous mutation?

A

a random change in the DNA arising from mistakes in replication

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152
Q

what are induced mutations?

A

exposure to known mutagens

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153
Q

what are mutagens?

A

any chemical or radiation that causes changes in DNA

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154
Q

what is a beneficial mutation?

A

creates an advantage for the microbe

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155
Q

what is a neutral mutation?

A

no significant change

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156
Q

what is a harmful mutation?

A

creates a disadvantage for the microbe

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157
Q

what is a lethal mutation?

A

kills the microbe

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158
Q

what is conjugation?

A

donor transfers plasmid through pilus

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159
Q

what is transformation?

A

chromosome fragements from a lysed cell are accepted by a recipient cell

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160
Q

who had a classic experiment with transformation?

A

frederick griffin

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161
Q

what is transduction?

A

involves a virus picking up a bacterial donor’s DNA and transferring it to a recipient bacterium

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162
Q

what is a bacteriophage?

A

type of virus that only affects bacteria

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163
Q

what is transposons?

A

DNA segments that have the capability of moving from one location in the genome to another (jumping genes)

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164
Q

who discovered transposons?

A

barbara mclintock

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165
Q

what is the hardest microbial structure to kill?

A

endospores

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166
Q

what is an anitseptic?

A

chemicals applied to directly exposed body surfaces to inhibit bacterial growth

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167
Q

what is a disinfectant?

A

physical process or chemical agent that kills vegetative cells but not endospores

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168
Q

what is a sterilant?

A

kills all viable microorganisms

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169
Q

what is a virucide?

A

kills or inactivates viruses

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170
Q

what is a bactericide?

A

kills bacteria but not endospores

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171
Q

what is a fungicide?

A

kills hypae, yeasts and fungal spores

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172
Q

what is a sporocide?

A

kills endospores

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173
Q

what is a germicide?

A

kills pathogenic organisms on animate and inanimate objects

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174
Q

what is bacteriostatic?

A

prevents the growth of bacteria

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175
Q

what is fungistatic?

A

prevents the growth of fungi

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176
Q

what are the areas of the bacterial structure on which agents can kill the microbe?

A

cell wall
cell membrane
nucleic acid synthesis
alter protein structure

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177
Q

what are the physical antimicrobial agents?

A 
heat
cold
desiccation
radiation
filtration
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178
Q

what are tht two types of heat?

A

dry

moist

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179
Q

what are some examples of moist heat?

A

autoclaving
intermittent sterilization
pasteurization

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180
Q

what is autoclaving?

A

a type of sterilization that uses steam under pressure in a specialized chamber

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181
Q

what is intermittent sterilization?

A

a type of disinfectant created by John Tyndall where the specimen is exposed to free flowing steam over a course of three days

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182
Q

what is pasteurization?

A

involves special vats to heat liquid quickly to reduce the microbial load

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183
Q

what are the three methods of pasteurization?

A

batch
flash
ultrahigh temperature

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184
Q

what is boiling water?

A

type of disinfection that uses a bath for 30 min

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185
Q

what are some examples of dry heat?

A

dry oven

incineration

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186
Q

what is dry oven?

A

type of sterilization

2-4 hours at 150-180

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187
Q

what is incineration?

A

type of sterilization

bunsen burners or furnace incinerators

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188
Q

what is the cold method?

A

slows the gorwth of microorganisms

refrigeration and freezing

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189
Q

what is the dessication method?

A

gradual removal of water from cells

not an effective method because cells will regrow when water is reintroduced

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190
Q

what is the radiation method?

A

causes mutations

ionizing or noniionizing

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191
Q

what is ionizing radiation?

A

penetrates barriers

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192
Q

what is nonionizing radiation?

A

does not penetrate barriers

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193
Q

what is the filtration method?

A

straining liquid or air through a filter

type of sterilization

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194
Q

what are halogens?

A

chlorine
iodine
fluorine
bromine

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195
Q

what is chlorine?

A

liquid and gas used for large scale disinfectant of drinking water, swimming pools, restarants, canning, wounds and root canals

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196
Q

what is an example of chlorine?

A

chlorox

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197
Q

what is iodine?

A

iodophor
tincture iodine
aqueous iodine

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198
Q

what is iodophor?

A

betadine and povidone

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199
Q

what is tincture iodine?

A

2-3% iodine in 70% alcohol

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200
Q

what is aqueous iodine?

A

2-3% iodine in water

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201
Q

what is iodine used for?

A

skin prep, burns, vaginal infections, surgical hand scrubbing, disinfect equipment

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202
Q

what is fluorine?

A

used in toothpaste and drinking water

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203
Q

what is bromine?

A

used in hot tubs

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204
Q

what is phenol?

A

originally used by Joseph Lister. Used in antibacterial soaps and disinfectants.

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205
Q

what are some examples of phenol?

A

pHisoHex
lysol
triclisan

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206
Q

what is chlorohexidine?

A

chlorine and two phenolic rings; cleanser of choice for MRSA

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207
Q

what are some examples of chlorohexidine?

A

hibiclens

hibitane

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208
Q

what are alcohols?

A

have OH functional group. reduces microbes on skin, thermometers, hand sanitizers

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209
Q

what do we use to disinfect our lab tables?

A

70% ethanol

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210
Q

what is hydrogen peroxide?

A

colorless caustic liquid that decomposes in the presence of light or metals.

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211
Q

what are aldehydes?

A

glutaradehyde

formaldehyde

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212
Q

what is glutaradehyde?

A

yellow acidic liquid used in a chemiclave that kills endospores.

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213
Q

what are some examples of a glutaraldehyde?

A

cidex and sporacidin

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214
Q

what is formaldehyde?

A

gas that dissolves to form formalin; main ingredient in embalming fluid

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215
Q

what are some gaseous agents?

A

ethylene oxide

chlorine dioxide

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216
Q

what is ethylene oxide?

A

highly explosive gas classified as a carcinogen that sterilizes prepackaged plastic medical supplies and disinfects spices, dried fruits, and drugs

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217
Q

what is chlorine dioxide?

A

gas that was used to decontaminate the senate offices after the anthrax attacks in 2001

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218
Q

what are some heavy metals?

A

mercury, silver and zinc

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219
Q

what is mercury used for?

A

mercurochrome

merthiolate

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220
Q

what is mercuochrome?

A

monkey’s blood

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221
Q

what is merthiolate?

A

thimerosal

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222
Q

what is silver?

A

silver nitrate in newborns

siver sulfadiazine in burn patients

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223
Q

what is zinc?

A

zinc oxide in bourdeaux’s butt paste

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224
Q

what are the best detergents?

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

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225
Q

what is the most common detrgent?

A

benzalkonium chloride

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226
Q

what are some common soaps?

A

sodium lauryl sulfate

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227
Q

what is a chemotheraputic agent?

A

any chemical used in the treatment of a disease

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228
Q

what is an antibiotic?

A

metabolic product of one microorganism that inhibits or destroys other microorganism

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229
Q

what are the most prolific producers of antibiotics?

A

bacteria and molds

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230
Q

what are the three ways an antibiotic is produced?

A

natural, semisynthetic and synthetic

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231
Q

what are the mechanisms of action of chemotheraputic drugs?

A 
cell wall
cell membrane
protein synthesis
nucleic acid
cytoplasm
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232
Q

what does penicillin consist of?

A

thiazolidine ring
beta-lactam ring
variable side chain

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233
Q

what are the primary problems of penicillin?

A

allergy and resistance

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234
Q

what are cephlasporins?

A

four generations that consist of a six carbon ring, beta-lactam ring, and two variable side chains

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235
Q

what are first generation cephlasporins?

A

cephalothin, cefazolin

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236
Q

what are first generation cephlasporins used to treat

A

gram-positive cocci

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237
Q

what are second generation cephlasporins?

A

cefaclor, cefonacid

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238
Q

what are second generation cephlasporins used to treat?

A

gram-negative bacteria

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239
Q

what are third generation cephlasporins?

A

cephalexin, ceftriaxone

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240
Q

what are third generation cephlasporins used to treat?

A

broad spectrum against enteric bacteria with beta-lactamases

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241
Q

what are fourth generation cephlasporins?

A

cefepime

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242
Q

what are fourth generation cephlasporins used to treat?

A

both gram negative and gram positive

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243
Q

what are tetracyclines?

A

broad spectrum drug produced by streptomyces

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244
Q

what are some examples of tetracycline?

A

doxycycline

minocycline

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245
Q

what are the primary problems with tetracycline?

A

GI disruption, staining of teeth, fetal bone development

246
Q

what are aminoglycosides?

A

broad-spectrum, inhibit protein synthesis, useful against aerobic gram negative rods

247
Q

what are some examples of aminoglycosides?

A

streptomycin
gentamycin
tobramycin
neomycin

248
Q

what are the primary problems of aminoglycosides?

A

diarrhea, hearing loss, dizziness, kidney damage

249
Q

what is nystatin?

A

fungal drug used topically or orally for treatment of yeast infections

250
Q

what is amphotericin B?

A

most versatile and effective type of antifungal drug (gold standard)

251
Q

what is acyclovir?

A

viral drug used to treat herpes infections

252
Q

what is azidothymidine?

A

AZT viral drug used to treat AIDS

253
Q

what is a superinfection?

A

infection caused by overgrowth of drug resistant bacteria

254
Q

what is a nosocomial infection?

A

an infection incurred while being treated in a hospital

255
Q

what is a true pathogen?

A

any agent capable of causing disease in a healthy person with a healthy immune system

256
Q

what is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

one that invades the tissues when body defenses are suppressed

257
Q

what is an infection

A

condition in which pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the hosts defenses, enter tissue and multiply

258
Q

what is disease?

A

deviation from health due to malfunction of a tissue or organ caused by microbes

259
Q

what is virulent?

A

the degree of pathogenicity of a parasite

260
Q

what is avirulent?

A

lacking the ability to cause disease

261
Q

what is a mixed infection?

A

several agents establish a simultaneous infection

262
Q

what is a primary infection?

A

initial infection

263
Q

what is a secondary infection?

A

second infection

264
Q

what is a localized infection?

A

microbe confined to a specific tissue

265
Q

what is a systemic infection?

A

pathogen spreads to many sites or systems

266
Q

where would you find normal flora?

A

most areas of the body in contact with the outside environment

267
Q

where would you not find normal flora?

A

internal organs, tissues, fluids

268
Q

what is the route of a pathogen?

A 
portal of entry
infectious dose
virulence factors
establish in organs
disease
portal of exit
269
Q

what is the portal of entry?

A

site at which the parasite enters the host. Most microbes have a specific portal

270
Q

what is the infectious dose?

A

minimum number of microbes needed to cause disease

271
Q

what are the mechanisms of adhesion?

A

fimbriae, flagella, glycocalyx, cilia, suckers, hooks, barbs and spikes

272
Q

what are virulence factors?

A 
adhesion
exoenzyme
exotoxin
endotoxin
antibiotic resistance
antiphagotic factors
273
Q

what are virulence factors used for?

A

tissue penetration

274
Q

what is adhesion?

A

binding between specific molecules on host and pathogen at the portal of entry

275
Q

what is tissue penetration?

A

exoenzymes

276
Q

what are exoenzymes?

A

enzymes that chemically break down the host’s barriers and promote the spread of microbes to deeper tissues

277
Q

what are some examples of exoenzymes?

A

mucinase
keratinase
collagenase
hyaluronidase

278
Q

what is mucinase?

A

dissolves muccous coating

279
Q

what is keratinase?

A

dissolves keratin of the skin or hair

280
Q

what is collagenase?

A

dissolves collagen

281
Q

what is hyaluronidase?

A

digests hyaluronic acid

282
Q

what is exotoxin?

A

protein secreted that goes to the target tissue

283
Q

what are some examples of exotoxin?

A

hemotoxins
enterotoxins
neurotoxins
cytotoxins

284
Q

what are hemotoxins?

A

lyse blood cells

285
Q

what are enterotoxins?

A

affect intestinal tissue

286
Q

what are neurotoxins?

A

affectnerve tissue

287
Q

what are cytotoxins?

A

affect general tissues

288
Q

what is endotoxin?

A

part of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls. Only released when microbe is damaged or falling apart. Causes systemic effects like septic shock

289
Q

what is antibiotic resistance?

A

genes that allow the microbe to avoid destruction by an antibiotic

290
Q

what are antiphagotic factors?

A

used to avoid phagocytosis

291
Q

what is an example of an antiphagotic factor?

A

leukocidins–toxic to white blood cells

292
Q

what makes phagocytosis difficult?

A

slime layer or capsule

293
Q

what is establishment in target organs?

A

microbes settle in their target organ of choice and continue to cause damage at the site

294
Q

what is portal of exit?

A

pathogens depart by a specific avenue many times the same as portal of entry

295
Q

what are some examples of portal of exit?

A 
respiratory droplets
skin scales
fecal
urogenital
blood
296
Q

what are the classic stages of clinical infection?

A

incubation period
prodromal stage
period of invasion
convalescent period

297
Q

what is the incubation period?

A

time from initial contact and the appearance of first symptoms . Agent is multiplying but damage doesn’t cause symtoms

298
Q

what is the prodromal stage?

A

earliest symptoms of infection

299
Q

what is the period of invasion?

A

microbe multiplies at highest rate and is well established in target tissue

300
Q

what is the convalescent period?

A

immune system overpowers the microbe, symptoms begin to fade, strength returns and body goes back to normal

301
Q

what is a communicable disease?

A

contagious

302
Q

what is a noncommunicable disease?

A

not contagious

303
Q

what is immunology?

A

the study of all biological, chemical, and physical events surronding the function of the immune system

304
Q

what is part of the immune system?

A

every organ, tissue and fluid

305
Q

what are the four major subdivisions of the immune system?

A

reticuloendothelial system
extracellular fluid
bloodstream
lymphatic system

306
Q

what is the reticuloendothelial system?

A

connective tissue fibers that interconnect other cells and meshes with the connective tissue network of surrounding organs

307
Q

what inhabits the reticuloendothelial system?

A

mononuclear phagocyte system

308
Q

what is the mononuclear phagocyte system?

A

macrophages ready to attack and ingest microbes that pass the first line of defense

309
Q

what is hemopoiesis?

A

production of blood cells

310
Q

what are stem cells?

A

undifferentiated cells; precurser of new blood cells

311
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

white blood cells

312
Q

what are some types of leukocytes?

A

granulocytes
agranulocytes
lymphocytes
monocytes and macrophages

313
Q

what are granulocytes?

A

lobed nucleus

314
Q

what are some types of granulocytes?

A

neutophils
eosinophils
basophils
mast cells

315
Q

what are neutrophils?

A

55-90% of leukocytes

phagocytes

316
Q

what are eosinophils?

A

1-3% of leukocytes

they destroy eukaryotic pathogens

317
Q

what are basophils?

A

0.5% of leukocytes

they release hystamine

318
Q

what are mast cells?

A

nonmotile elements bound to connective tissue

319
Q

what are agranulocytes?

A

unlobed, rounded nucleus

320
Q

what are lymphocytes?

A

20-35%of leukocytes

they have a specific immune response

321
Q

what are some examples of lymphocytes?

A

B and T cells

322
Q

what do B cells do?

A

produce antibodies

323
Q

what do T cells do?

A

modulate immune functions and kill foreign cells

324
Q

what are monocytes and macrophages?

A

3-7% of leukocytes

largest of WBCs witha kidney-shaped nucleus. phagocytic

325
Q

what are macrophages?

A

final differentiation of monocytes

326
Q

what are dendrite cells?

A

trap pathogens and participate in immune reactions

327
Q

what is the first line of defense?

A

physical barrier
mechanical barrier
chemical barrier
genetic barrier

328
Q

what is a physical barrier?

A

if intact, microbes cannot pentrate

329
Q

what is an example of a physical barrier?

A

skin

mucous membrane

330
Q

what is a mechanical barrier?

A

movement of cilia, flushing with urine or feces, blinking, coughing sneezing

331
Q

what is a chemical barrier?

A

lysosyme, acid, salt, hydrochloric acid, digestive juices

332
Q

what are genetic barriers?

A

many microbes will only infect specifc species (ex Parvo)

333
Q

what is the second line of defense?

A 
inflammation
phagocytosis
compplement system
fever
interferon
natural killer cells
334
Q

what is inflammation?

A

redness
warmth
swelling
pain

335
Q

what is redness?

A

rubor- increased circulation and vasodialation

336
Q

what is warmth?

A

calor- heat given off by increased blood flow

337
Q

what is swelling?

A

tumor- increased fluid escaping into the tissue as blood vessels dialate. prevents the spread of infection

338
Q

what is pain?

A

dolor-stimulation of nerve endings

339
Q

what are the major events of inflammation?

A

injury
vascular reactions
edema
resolution/scar formation

340
Q

what is injury?

A

cytokines released by tissue cells; vasoconstriction

341
Q

what is vascular reaction?

A

vasodialation and seepage of fluid out of vessels

342
Q

what is edema?

A

infiltration of neutrophils and accumulation of pus

343
Q

what is resolution/scar formation?

A

macrophages clean up; tissue is repaired

344
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

migration of cells out of blood vessels into the tissues

345
Q

what a chemotaxis?

A

migration in response to specific chemicals at the site of injury or infection

346
Q

what are cytokines?

A

chemical mediators that regulate, stimulate and limit immune reactions. Produced by WBCs

347
Q

what are some examples of cytokines?

A

histamine
interleukin 1
interleukin 2

348
Q

what is histamine?

A

produced during inflammation and allergy it causes vasodialation and increased permeability

349
Q

what is interleukini 1?

A

produced by macrophages it stimulates T and B cells

350
Q

what is interleukin 2?

A

produced by helper T cells, it stimulates T and B cells

351
Q

what are the general activities of phagocytes?

A

survey tissue compartments and discover microbes, to ingest and eliminate these microbes, to extract immunogenetic information from foreign matter

352
Q

what do neutrophils do?

A

general-purpose; react early to bacteria and damaged tissue

353
Q

what do eosinophils do?

A

attracted to sites of parasitic infections and antigen-antibody reactions

354
Q

what do macrophages do?

A

scavenge and process foreign substances to prepare them for reactions with B and T cells

355
Q

what are toll-like receptors?

A

protein receptors within the cell membrane of macrophages

356
Q

what are PAMPs?

A

pathogen-associated patterns

357
Q

what are teh aspects of the third line of defense?

A

antigen processing cell
helper t cell activation
b cell activation
cytotoxic t cell activation

358
Q

what is the antigen processing and presenting stage?

A

microbes enering the body are recognozed by immune system cells

359
Q

what is the antigen presenting cell (APC) of the body?

A

the macrophage

360
Q

what is the function of the macrophage?

A

to engulf the microbe, digest it and put a part of the microbe on its surface to present to the lymphocyte

361
Q

antigen presentation involves a direct collaboration among:

A

an APC and a T helper cell

362
Q

interleukin 1 is secreted:

A

by APC to activate helper T cells

363
Q

interleukin 2 is produced by:

A

helper T cells to activate B and T cells

364
Q

what are the two steps that activate helper T cell?

A

physical stimulus and chemical stimulus

365
Q

what is the physical stimulus that activates helper T cells?

A

physcial contact between helper T and APC

366
Q

what is the chemical stimulus that activates helper T cells?

A

APC secretes interleukin 1

367
Q

During B cell activation and antibody production,

A

the Bcell phagocytizes and processes the microbe.

368
Q

what is the physical stimulus that activates B cells?

A

physical contact between B cell and helper T cell

369
Q

what is the chemical stimulus that activates b cells?

A

helper t secretes cytokine (interleukin 2)

370
Q

Activated B cell undergoes change and produces two types of cells:

A

plasma cell

memory b cell

371
Q

what is plasma cell?

A

produces antibodies

372
Q

what is memory b cell?

A

lives long term in the lymph tissue and is activated when a subsequent exposure occurs.

373
Q

what is the physical stimulus that activates cytotoxic T cell?

A

APC contacts cytotoxic T cell with antigen

374
Q

what is the chemical stimulus that activates cytotoxic T cells?

A

helper T cell secretes interleukin 2

375
Q

activated cytotoxic t cell produces

A

killer t cells

memory t cells

376
Q

memory cells are needed for

A

long term immunity

377
Q

what is natural active immunity?

A

getting the infection

378
Q

what is natural passive immunity?

A

mother to child

379
Q

what is artificial passive immunity?

A

immunotherapy

380
Q

what is artificial active immunity?

A

vaccination

381
Q

staphylococcus aureus causes which diseases?

A

staphylococcal food poisoning
staphylococal scalded skin syndrome
toxic shock syndrome

382
Q

what is staphylococal food poisoning?

A

food intoxication acquired by contaminated food

383
Q

what are the symptoms of staphylococcal food poisoning?

A

vomitting, diarrhea, cramps

384
Q

what is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

disease aquired in the newborn by infection of umbilical cord or stump

385
Q

what are the symptoms of SSSS?

A

painful, bright red flush over the entire body. Flush will blister and disconnect epidermis

386
Q

what is toxic shock syndrome?

A

caused by women using tampons

387
Q

what are the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

A

sudden high fever, sunburn-like rash

388
Q

what localized diseases does streptococcus pyrogenes cause?

A

pyoderma
erysipelas
necrotizing fascitis
pharyngitis

389
Q

what is pyoderma?

A

impetigo; contagious among preschool and school aged children

390
Q

what are the symptoms of pyoderma?

A

burning, iotching, papules that form into highly contagious crusts

391
Q

what are the symptoms of erysipelas?

A

reddened areas

392
Q

what are the symptoms of necratizing fascitis?

A

raised red area around the cut or scrape, fever, pain and swelling (flesh eating disease)

393
Q

what are the symptoms of pharyngitis?

A

redness of throat, edema, pain, fever, headache, nausea

394
Q

what are some systemic diseases caused by streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

scarlet fever
pneumonia
TSS

395
Q

what is scarlet fever?

A

usually occurs after strep throat due to the pyrogenic toxin or erythrogenic toxin

396
Q

what are the symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

high fever, bright red rash over the face, trunk, inner arms and legs and tongue that lasts ten days

397
Q

what is TSS caused by streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

produces toxic shock syndrome toxin. symptoms are more severe than staphylococcus TSS

398
Q

what are some long term complications of streptococcus pyrogenes?

A

rheumatic fever

acute glomerulonephritis

399
Q

what are symptoms of rheumatic fever?

A

carditis, arthritis, nodules under the skin, fever

400
Q

what is acute glomerulonephritis?

A

disease of the kidney and tubular epithelia caused by immune complex disposition in the kidney

401
Q

what are the symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

low urine output, swelling of the hands and feet, increased blood pressure

402
Q

what diseases does neisseria gonorrheae cause?

A

genital gonorrhea in males
genitourinary gonorrhea in females
gonococcal eye infections of the newborn

403
Q

what are the symptoms of genital gonorrhea in men?

A

urethritis, painful urination, cloudy yellow discharge

404
Q

what are the symptoms of genitourinary gonnorrhea in women?

A

painful urination, discharge could lead to PID

405
Q

what are some extragenital complications of gonorrhea?

A

conjuctivitis
proctitis
pharyngitis
gingivitis

406
Q

what is gonococcal eye infection of the newborn?

A

eye infection that can cause blindness

407
Q

what is neisseria meningtidis?

A

causes meningitis

408
Q

what are the symptoms of meningitis?

A

fever, strep throat, headache, stiff neck, vomitting, convulsions, coma

409
Q

what are the vaccines for neisseria meningtidis?

A

menactra for ages 2-55

menomume for older than 55

410
Q

what diseases does bacillus anthracis cause?

A

cutaneous antrax
pulmonary anthrax
gastrointestinal anthrax

411
Q

what are the symptoms of cutaneous anthrax?

A

small puple to form black eschar

412
Q

what is pulmonary anthrax?

A

wool-sorter’s disease

413
Q

what are the symptoms of pulmonary anthrax?

A

fatigue, malaise, fever, aches, and cough, diffuculty breathing, shock

414
Q

what are the symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax?

A

flu like symptoms, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain

415
Q

what is the vaccine for bacillus anthracis?

416
Q

what is clostridium perferinges?

A

causes gas gangrene

417
Q

what are the symptoms of gas gangrene?

A

pain, edema, bloody exudate in lesion, fever, tachycardia, blackened tissue with gas bubbles

418
Q

what is clostridum tetani?

A

causes tetanus or lockjaw

419
Q

what are the symptoms of clostridum tetani?

A

clenching of jaw, arching of back, flexion of arms, death

420
Q

what is the vaccine for clostridum tetani?

421
Q

what are the symptoms of clostridum difficle?

A

diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, patches of colon sloghs off

422
Q

what diseases does clostridium botulinum cause?

A

botulism

infant botulism

423
Q

what are the symptoms of botulism?

A

double vision, difficulty swallowing and speaking, muscular paralysis and respiratory paralysis

424
Q

what is the vaccine for clostridium botulinium?

425
Q

what diseases does corynebacterium diptheriae cause?

426
Q

what are the symptoms of diptheria?

A

sore throat, nausea, vomitting, swollen lymph nodes, asphyxiation

427
Q

what is the vaccine for corynebacterium diptheriae?

428
Q

what diseases does mycobacterium tuberculosis cause?

A

primary tuberculosis
secondary tuberculosis
dessimated tuberculosis

429
Q

what are the symptoms of primary tuberculosis?

A

tubercle forms

430
Q

what are the symptoms of secondary tuberculosis?

A

violent coughing, green or bloody sputum, fever, anorexia and weight loss

431
Q

what are the symptoms of dissemated tuberculosis?

432
Q

what is the vaccine for mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

BCG vaccine

433
Q

what diseases does mycobacterium leprae cause?

A

tuberculoid leprosy

lepromateous leprosy

434
Q

what are the symptoms of tuberculoid leprosy?

A

shallow lesions, damaged nerves

435
Q

what are the symptoms of lepromatous leprosy?`

A

severe disfigurement in the face and extremities

436
Q

what diseases does psedomonas aeruginosa cause?

A

rash, UTI, external ear infections, nosocomial infections

437
Q

what are the symptoms of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

grapelike odor and greenish-blue pigment

438
Q

what diseases does bordatella pertusis cause?

A

whooping cough

439
Q

what are the symptoms of whooping cough?

A

nasal drainage, congestion, sneezing, cough

440
Q

what is the vaccine for bordatella pertusis?

A

DTaP and boostrix

441
Q

what diseases does legionella pneumophila cause?

A

legionaires disease

442
Q

what are the two forms of legionaires disease?

A

pontiac fever

legionairres pnemonia

443
Q

what are the symptoms of pontiac fever?

A

rising fever, cough, diarrhea, abdominal pain

444
Q

what are the symptoms of legionaires pneumonia?

A

same as pontiac but leads to pneumonia

445
Q

what diseases does e. coli cause?

A 
infantile diarrhea
traveller's diarrhea
urinary tract infections 
bloody diarrhea illness
hemolytic uremic syndrome
446
Q

what are the symptoms for infantile diarrhea?

A

nausea, vomitting, watery diarrhea, low grade fever in infants

447
Q

what are the symptoms of travelers diarrhea?

A

nausea, vomitting, watery diarrhea, low grade fever in travelers

448
Q

what are the symptoms of urinary tract infections?

A

increased frequency to urinate, bladder pressure, pain or burning among voiding

449
Q

what are the symtpoms of bloody diarrheal illness?

A

mild gastroenteritis with fever or bloody diarrhea with fever

450
Q

what are the symptoms of hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

kidney damage and failure

451
Q

what diseases does salmonella typhi cause?

A

thphoid fever

452
Q

what are the symptoms of typhoid fever?

A

fever, diarrhea, abdomianal pain, ulcerations and perferation of the small intestine

453
Q

what diseases does shigella dysentariae cause?

A

bacterial dysentary or shigellosis

454
Q

what are the symptoms of shigella dysentariae?

A

crippling abdominal pain, frequent defecation of watery stool filled with blood and heavy mucous

455
Q

what diseases does yersina pestis cause?

A

bublonic plague
pnemonic plague
septicemic plague

456
Q

what are the symptoms of bublonic plague?

A

bubo develops, fever, chills, headache, weakness

457
Q

what are the symptoms of the pnemonic plague?

A

fever, chills, cough, difficulty breathing, rapid shock and death

458
Q

what are the symptoms of the septicemic plague?

A

fever, chills, prostration, abdominal pain , shock and bleeding into other organs. gangrene (black death)

459
Q

what diseases does haemophilus influenzae cause?

A

acute bacterial meningitis

460
Q

what are the symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis?

A

fever, vomitting, stiff neck, neurological impaiment, coma, death

461
Q

what is teh vaccine for haemophilus influenzae?

A

Hib given with DTaP

462
Q

what diseases does treponema pallidum cause?

A

primary syphilus
secondary syphilus
tertiary syphilus

463
Q

what are the symptoms of primary syphilus?

A

appearnce of chancre at innoculation site

464
Q

what are the symptoms of secondary syphilus?

A

rash forms on the skin, palms and soles. fever headache, sore throat

465
Q

what are the symptoms of tertiary syphilus?

A

gummas develop

466
Q

what diseases does borrelila burgdorferi cause?

A

lymes disease

467
Q

what are the symptoms of lyme disease?

A

bulls eye rash, changes in the heartbeat, muscletone to one or both sides of the face are affected

468
Q

what diseases does vibrio cholerae cause?

469
Q

what are the symptoms of cholera?

A

vomitting, diarrhea, nausea, stomach cramps

470
Q

what diseases does heliobacter pylori cause?

A

somach ulcers and cancer

471
Q

what diseases does chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A 
chlamydia
nongonococcal urethritis
PID
ocular trachoma
inclusion conjuctivitis
472
Q

what are the symptoms of PID?

A

cervicitis, white drainage, inflammed tubes

473
Q

what are the symptoms of ocular trachoma?

A

infection of the epithelial cells of eyelids, cornea damage

474
Q

what are the symptoms of inclusion conjuctivitis?

A

eye infection of the newborn

475
Q

what diseases does mycoplasma pneumoniae cause?

A

walking pneumonia

476
Q

what are the symptoms of walking pneumonia?

A

fever, dore throat, headache, chest pain, earache

477
Q

what diseases does rickettsia typhi cause?

478
Q

what are the symptoms of typus?

A

fever, headache, mucle aches, malaise, rash that starts on the trunk and spreads to the extremities

479
Q

what diseases does rickettsia rickettsii cause?

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

480
Q

what are the symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

fever, chills, headache, distinctive spotted rash

481
Q

what diseases does bartonella henselae cause?

A

cat scratch disease

482
Q

what are the symptoms of catscratch disease?

A

cluster of small pupules at the site, lymph nodes swell and become pus filled

483
Q

what does the fungal pathogen histoplasma capsulatum cause

A

Spelunker’s disease

484
Q

what are the symptoms of spelunker’s disease?

A

aches pain, coughing, fever, night sweats and weight loss

485
Q

what does the fungal pathogen coccidioides immitis cause?

A

california disease

486
Q

what are the symptoms of california disease?

A

cold like symptoms

487
Q

what diseases does blastomyces dermatitidis cause?

A

chicago disease

488
Q

what are the symptoms of chicago disease?

A

cough, chest pain, horseness and fever

489
Q

what disease does the fungal pathogen sporothrix cause?

A

rose gardener’s disease

490
Q

what are the symptoms of rose gardener’s disease?

A

hard, non-tender nodule at prick site.

491
Q

what diseases does the fungal pathogen canida albicans cause?

A

oral thrush
vulvovaginal candidiasis
cutaneous candidiasis
diaper rash

492
Q

what are the symptoms of oral thrush?

A

thick, white adherent growth on the mucous membranes of the mouth and throat

493
Q

what are the symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

yellow to white patchy discharge, itching

494
Q

what are the symptoms of cutaneous candidiasis?

A

occurs in chronically moist areas of skin and in burn patients

495
Q

what are the symptoms of diaper rash?

A

moist wet area allows the yeast to overgrow if baby in on antibiotics or in moist folds on adults

496
Q

what diseases does criptococcus neoformans cause?

A

criptococcosis

497
Q

what are the symptoms of cryptoccosis?

A

cough, fever and lung nodules

498
Q

what diseases does the fungal pathogen pneumocystis carinii cause?

A

pneumonia PCP in AIDS patients

499
Q

what are the symptoms of pneumonia PCP?

A

secretions in the lungs that block breathing

500
Q

what is tinea capitis?

A

ringworm of the scalp

501
Q

what are the symptoms of tinea capitis?

A

itchy scalp to destruction of the hair follicle

502
Q

what is tinea barbae?

A

ringworm of the beard “barber’s itch”

503
Q

what is tinea cruris?

A

ringworm of the groin “jock itch”

504
Q

what is tinea pedis?

A

ringworm of the foot “athlete’s foot”

505
Q

tinea manuum:

A

ringworm of the hand

506
Q

tinea unguium:

A

ringworm of the nails

507
Q

what is tinea coporis?

A

ringworm of the body

508
Q

what diseases does entamoeba histolytica cause?

A

amoebic dysentary

509
Q

what are the symptoms for amobic dysentary?

A

dysentary, abdominal pain, fever, diarrhea, weight loss perferation of the small intestine

510
Q

what diseases does giardia lambia cause?

A

beaver fever

511
Q

what are the symptoms of beaver fever?

A

voluminous flatulence watery diarrhea

512
Q

what diseases does trichomonas vaginalis cause?

A

trichomoniasis

513
Q

what are the symptoms of trichomoniasis in females?

A

foul smelling, green to yellow discharge, vulvitis, cervicitis, urinary frequency and pain

514
Q

what are the symptoms of trichmoniasis in males?

A

urethritis, thin, milky discharge, prostate infection

515
Q

what diseases does trypanosoma brucei cause?

A

african sleeping sickness

516
Q

what are the symptoms of african sleeping sickness?

A

chancre at bite site, swollen lymph nodes, fever, headaches, lethargy, lying prostate, drooling, insensitive to pain personality changes, trouble walking, death

517
Q

what diseases does cryptosporidium parvum cause?

A

cryptosporidiosis

518
Q

what are the symptoms of cryptosporidiosis?

A

headache, sweating, vomitting, severe abdominal cramps, diarrhea

519
Q

what does taenia saginata cause?

A

tapeworm infection

520
Q

what are the symptoms of a tapeworm infection?

A

little to no symptoms

521
Q

what does nectar americanus cause?

A

hookworm infection

522
Q

what are the symptoms of a hookworm infection?

A

skin itch, pnemonia, nausea, vomitting, cramps, pain, bloody diarrhea

523
Q

what does enterobius vermicularius cause?

A

pinworm infection

524
Q

what are thesymptoms of a pinworm infection?

A

mild nausea, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, irritability due to anal itching

525
Q

what does ascaris lubricoides cause?

A

roundworm infection

526
Q

what are the symptoms of a roundwormn infection?

A

bronchospasm, asthma, skin rash, nausea

527
Q

what does trypasnosoma cruzi cause?

A

chaga’s disease

528
Q

what are the symptoms of chagas disease?

A

romana’s sign
enlarged spleen
congestive heart failure

529
Q

what does toxoplasma gondii cause?

A

toxoplasmosis

530
Q

what are the symptoms of toxoplasmosis?

A

still birth, water in the brain cavity (caused by pregnant women changing cat box)

531
Q

what does trichinella spiralis cause?

A

trichinellosis

532
Q

what are the symptoms of trichinellosis?

A

intense muscle and joint pain

533
Q

why are viruses not considered to be alive?

A

no kingdom or domain
cannot multiply w/o host
cannot exist without host
they bear no resemblance to cells

534
Q

what is the size of a virus?

A

nanometers

535
Q

what are the two parts of a virus?

A

covering

central core

536
Q

what is in the covering of a virus?

A

capsid

envelope

537
Q

what is a capsid?

A

surrounds the nucleic acid, composed of proteins. all viruses have one

538
Q

what is a viral envelope?

A

surrounds the capsid composed of the host’s cell membrane. Not all viruses have one

539
Q

what is in the central core of a virus?

A

nucleic acid molecule

various proteins

540
Q

what is the nucleic acid molecule?

A

genetic info for the virus, can be DNA or RNA

541
Q

what are the various proteins in the central core?

A

contain enzymes for specific operations

542
Q

what is the lytic phase of multiplication?

A

replicate and make more proteins

543
Q

what is the lysogenic phase of multiplication?

A

virus inserts its genes into the host’s genes

544
Q

what is variola?

545
Q

what are the symptoms of smallpox?

A

fever, malaise, prostration and a rash

546
Q

what are the symptoms of herpes simplex 1?

A

fever blisters in the oral area

547
Q

what are the symtpoms of herpes simplex 2?

A

genital warts

548
Q

what is the epstein barr virus?

A

kissing disease

549
Q

what are the symptoms of epstein barr?

A

sore throat, fever, swollen nodes, can continue to burkitt lymphoma or nasopharageal carcinoma

550
Q

what is varicella zoster virus?

A

causes chickenpox and shingles

551
Q

what are the symptoms of chickenpox?

A

skin lesions that crust over

552
Q

what are the symptoms of shingles?

A

tingling at site, painful vesicles erupt

553
Q

what is the vaccine for varicella?

554
Q

what is the vaccine for shingles?

555
Q

what disease does infectious hepatitis cause?

A

hepatitis A

556
Q

what are the symptoms of hepatitis A?

A

anorexia, general mailaise, jaundice

557
Q

what is the vaccine for hepatitis A?

558
Q

what disease does the DNA virus serum hepatitis cause?

559
Q

what are the symptoms of hep B?

A

jaundice, cirrhosis and liver cancer

560
Q

what are the vaccines for hep B?

A

ebgerix B
recombivax
twinrix

561
Q

what disease does the RNA virus post-transfusional hepatitis cause?

562
Q

what are the symptoms of hep C?

A

jaundice, dark urine, cirrhosis and cancer

563
Q

what does human papilloma virus cause?

564
Q

what are the symptoms of papiloma?

A

seed wart on the hands
plantar warts on the feet
genital warts

565
Q

what do parvoviruses cause?

A

erythrovirus (5th disease)

566
Q

what are the symptoms of fifth disease?

A

slapped face rash, fever

567
Q

what does human herpes virus six cause?

568
Q

what are the symptoms of roseola?

A

maculopapular rash on neck, trunk and buttocks of babies

569
Q

what does human herpes 8 cause?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

570
Q

what are the symptoms of kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

red to purple splotches

571
Q

what does orthomyxoviruses cause?

A

Influenza A, b and c

572
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza A?

A

myalgia, pharyngeal pain, shortness of breath

573
Q

what is the vaccine for influenza A?

A

traditional and flumist

574
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza B?

A

milder version of the flu

575
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza C?

A

minor respiratory disease

576
Q

what are some complications of the flu?

A

reye syndrome

guillain barre syndrome

577
Q

what are the symptoms of reye syndrome?

A

listlessness, personality changes, disorientation, convulsions, loss od conciousness

578
Q

what are the symptoms of guillain barre syndrome?

A

weakness, tingling in legs, paralysis

579
Q

what does paramyxovirus cause?

A

mumps

parainfluenza

580
Q

what are the symptoms of the mumps?

A

inflammation of salivary glands, myalgia

581
Q

what are the symptoms of parainfluenza?

A

causes a barking cough like a seal

582
Q

what does morbilivirus cause?

583
Q

what is the vaccine for mumps?

584
Q

what are the symptoms of measles?

A

conjuctivitis, Koplick spots, red rash

585
Q

what is a complication of the measles?

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitit which causes death

586
Q

what is the vaccine for measles?

587
Q

what does rubivirus cause?

588
Q

what are the symptoms of rubella?

A

german measles

induces miscarriage or birth defects

589
Q

what is the vaccine for rubivirus?

590
Q

what does lyssavirus cause?

591
Q

what are the symptoms of rabies?

A

agitation, disorientation, hydrophobia, seizures, coma or death

592
Q

what is the vaccine for rabies?

A

rabies drop in bait for wild animals

593
Q

what is severe acute respiratory syndrome?

594
Q

what are the symptoms of SARS?

A

fever, body aches, mailaise

595
Q

what does the west nile virus cause?

A

viral encephalitis

596
Q

what are the symptoms of viral encephalitis?

A

<1% causes severe symptoms

597
Q

what does retrovirus cause?

598
Q

what are the symptoms of HIV?

A

opportunistic infections, cancer, lesions

599
Q

what does the poliovirus cause?

600
Q

what are the symptoms of polio?

A

less than 2%=paralysis

601
Q

what are the vaccines fot polio?

A

IPV OPV and sabin vaccine

602
Q

what does norovirus cause?

A

Norwalk agent

603
Q

what are the symptoms of norwalk agent?

A

diarrhea, vomitting, cramps

common in cruise ships

604
Q

what does rotavirus cause

A

viral gastroenteritis

605
Q

what are the symptoms of viral gastroenertitis?

A

watery diarrhea, vomitting, fever

606
Q

what are the vaccines for rotavirus?

A

rotateq

rotarix

607
Q

Song: Ringworm

A

Artist: Van Morrison
Theme: fungal disease

608
Q

Song: Brown eyed girl

A

Artist: Van Morrison
Theme: identify singer of ringworm

609
Q

Song: Disease

A

Artist: matchbox 20
Theme: diseases

610
Q

Song: Cheeseburger in Paradise

A

Artist: Jimmy Buffett
Theme: E. coli 0157:H7

611
Q

Song: Danger Zone

A

Artist: Kenny Loggins
Theme: Food Safety

microbiology (7 decks)

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