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microbiology > lecture test 3 part 1 > Flashcards

lecture test 3 part 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is decontamination?

A

physical, chemical and mechanical methods to destroy or reduce undesireable microbes in a given area

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2
Q

what has the highest resistance to decontamination?

A

prions

bacterial endospores

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3
Q

what is sterilization?

A

process that destroys or removes all viable microorganisms

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4
Q

what is sterilization used on?

A

inatimate objects

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5
Q

what is bactericide?

A

chemical that destroys bacteria; except endospores

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6
Q

what is fungicide?

A

chemical that destroys fungal spores, hyphae and yeasts

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7
Q

what is virucide?

A

chemical that destroys or inactivates viruses

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8
Q

what is sporicide?

A

chemical that destroys endospores

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9
Q

what is microbistasis?

A

prevents microbes from multiplying

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10
Q

what is bacteriostatic?

A

agent that prevents the growth of bacteria

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11
Q

what is fungistatic?

A

agent that prevents the growth of fungi

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12
Q

what is germicide?

A

any chemical that kills pathogenic microorganisms

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13
Q

what is a germicide used on?

A

inanimate and animate objects

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14
Q

what is disinfection?

A

physical process or chemical agent that destroys vegetative cells but not endospores

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15
Q

what is a disinfectant used on?

A

inanimate objects

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16
Q

what are antiseptics?

A

chemicals applied directly to exposed body surfaces to inhibit vegetative pathogens

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17
Q

what are antiseptics used on?

A

animate objects

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18
Q

what is sanitization?

A

any cleansing technique that mechanically removes microorganisms to reduce the level of contaminates

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19
Q

what is sanitization used on?

A

inanimate objects

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20
Q

what is microbial death?

A

considered to be a permanent loss of reproductive capability

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21
Q

what are the four modes of antimicrobial agents?

A

cell wall
cell membrane
nucleic acid synthesis
alter protein function

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22
Q

what is significant of the cell wall?

A

damage causes the cell wall to become fragile and will lyse by osmotic pressure. Growing cells are more vulnerable

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23
Q

what is significant of the cell membrane?

A

If disrupted the cell loses its selective permeability and cannot prevent the loss of vital molecules or the entry of damaging chemicals

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24
Q

what is nucleic acid synthesis?

A

binding irreversably to DNA or causing mutations in DNA preventing transcription and translation

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25
Q

what are some examples of nucleic acid synthesis:?

A

UV radiation

gamma rays

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26
Q

what is alter protein function?

A

denaturing protein prevents from working meaning no chemical reactions occur

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27
Q

what are the physical agents?

A 
heat
cold
dessication
radiation
filtration
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28
Q

what are the two types of heat??

A

dry heat

moist heat

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29
Q

what are some examples of moist heat?

A

autoclaving
intermittent sterilization
pasteurization
boiling water

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30
Q

what is autoclaving?

A

sterilization process that uses steam under pressure. Special machine that heats objects to 121 C at 15 psi for 10-40 minutes

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31
Q

what is autoclaving used on?

A

media
used media
glassware
surgical equipment

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32
Q

what is intermittent sterilization?

A

type of disinfectant developed by John Tyndall. Special chamber with boining water that heats to 100 C for 30-60 minutes on three days with incubation periods in between

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33
Q

what is intermittent sterilization used for?

A

media that cannot withstand high temperatures

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34
Q

what is pasteurization?

A

heating liquid quickly to reduce the microbial load

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35
Q

what are the three methods of pasteurization?

A

batch method
flash method
ultrahigh temperature method

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36
Q

what is the batch method?

A

63-66 degrees for 30 minutes
original method
nonsterile

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37
Q

what is the flash method?

A

71.6 degrees for 15 seconds
current method
nonsterile

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38
Q

what is the ultrahigh temperature method?

A

134 degrees for 1-2 seconds
used for military and coffee creamers
sterile

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39
Q

what is the boining water method?

A

a type of disinfection where water is boiled at 100 C for 30 minutes

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40
Q

what is the boiling water method used for?

A

unsafe drinking water

home canning

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41
Q

what are some examples of dry heat?

A

dry oven

incineration

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42
Q

what is the dry oven method?

A

a type of sterilization

2-4 hours at 150 C to 180 C

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43
Q

what is the dry oven method used on?

A

glassware
powders
oils
metals

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44
Q

what is the incineration method?

A

type of sterilization

bunsen burners or furnace incinerators

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45
Q

what is the incineration method used for?

A

needles or loops

medical waste

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46
Q

what is the cold method?

A 
microbiostatic
refridgeration (0-15) or freezing (less than 0)
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47
Q

what is the cold method used for?

A

preserve food, media and cultures

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48
Q

what is the dessication method?

A

gradual removal of water from cells, leads to metabolic inhibition.

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49
Q

what is microbiostatic?

A

slows the growth of microbes

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50
Q

what is lyophilization?

A

freeze drying

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51
Q

what is the dessication method not an effective microbial control?

A

many cells retain the ability to grow when water is reintroduced

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52
Q

what is the radiation method?

A

damages molecules most sensitive is DNA

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53
Q

what is a mutation?

A

creates bonds or causes breakages

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54
Q

Some types of radiation cause

A

electrons to be released creating ions

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55
Q

what are the two types of radiation?

A

ionizing and nonionizing

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56
Q

what is ionizing radiation?

A

deep penetrating power that has sufficient energy to cause electrons to leave their orbit, breaks DNA

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57
Q

what is a radura?

A

symbol used to identify that radiation has been used

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58
Q

what is used for ionizing radiation?

A

gamma rays that can penetrate barriers

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59
Q

what is ionizing radiation a type of?

A

cold sterilization

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60
Q

what is nonionizing radiation?

A

little penetrating power so it must be directly exposed

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61
Q

what is used for nonionizing radiation?

A

UV light that creates pyrimidine dimers which interfer with replication but does not penetrate barriers

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62
Q

what are pyrimidine dimers?

A

abnormal bonds

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63
Q

most germicidal UV lights are at

A

260 nm

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64
Q

what is nonionizing radiation used for?

A

surgery rooms

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65
Q

what is filtration?

A

straining a liquid or air through a layer of material with openings large enough for liquid or air to pass but too small for microorganisms (sterilization)

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66
Q

what are the two types of filters?

A

depth filters

membrane filters

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67
Q

what are depth filters?

A

sand
charcoal
diatomaceous earth

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68
Q

what are membrane filters?

A

cellulose acetate

plastic

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69
Q

what si filtration used for?

A

beer, wine, milk, blood products, vaccines

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70
Q

what are the chemical agents?

A 
halogens
phenol
chlorhexidine
alcohols
hydrogen peroxide
aldehydes
gaseous agents
heavy metals
detergents and soaps
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71
Q

water=

A

aqueous

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72
Q

alcohol=

A

tincture

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73
Q

what are halogens?

A

the active ingredients in nearly 1/3 of all antimicrobial chemicals currently being marketed

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74
Q

what are some examples of halogens?

A

fluorine
bromine
chlorine
iodine

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75
Q

what are the most commonly used halogens?

A

chlorine and iodine

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76
Q

what is chlorine?

A

disinfectant and antiseptic used for over 200 years

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77
Q

what are the major forms of chlorine?

A

liquid agent

gas

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78
Q

what are the two types of liquid agents

A

hypochlorites

chloramine

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79
Q

what is iodine?

A

pungent blue-black element that forms a brown solution when dissolved in water

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80
Q

what are the three types of iodine solutions?

A

iodophor
tincture iodine
aqueous iodine

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81
Q

what is iodophor?

A

iodine complexed with neutral protein polymer that is less toxic and irritating to tissues

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82
Q

what are some common iodophor products?

A

betadine

povidone

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83
Q

what is tincture iodine?

A

2-3% solution of iodine in 70% alcohol used as an antiseptic

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84
Q

what is aqueous iodine?

A

2-3% solution of iodine in water used as an antiseptic

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85
Q

what is iodine used for?

A

skin preparation for surgery, burns, vaginal infections, surgical hand scrubbing

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86
Q

what is fluorine?

A

halogen used in toothpaste and drinking water

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87
Q

what is bromine?

A

halogen used in hot tubs

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88
Q

what is phenol?

A

acrid poisonous compound derived from distilling coal tar

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89
Q

what is phenol used for?

A

antibacterial soaps and disinfectants

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90
Q

what are some examples of phenol?

A

pHisoHex
lysol
triclisan

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91
Q

who first used phenol?

A

joseph lister as a way to sterilize surgical hands

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92
Q

what is chlorhexidine?

A

complex comppound of chlorine and two phenolic rings

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93
Q

chlorhexidine is also called

A

chlorhexidine gluconate

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94
Q

what isi chlorhexadine used to control?

A

MRSAand acinetobacter outbreaks in hospitals

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95
Q

what are some examples of chlorhexidine?

A

hibiclens

hibitane

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96
Q

what are alcohols?

A

have OH functional group

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97
Q

what are alcohols used for?

A

reduction of microbes on skin, thermometers, surfaces

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98
Q

what si hydrogen peroxide

A

H2O2; colorless, caustic liquid that decompses in presence of light or metals

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99
Q

what is hydrogen peroxide used for?

A

antiseptic for skin, wound, bedsore, mouth wash, toothpaste, contact lens cleaner

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100
Q

what are aldehydes?

A

has a CHO functional group

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101
Q

what are the two most popular aldehydes?

A

glutarldehyde

formaldehyde

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102
Q

what is glutaraldehyde

A

yellow acidic liquid with a mild odor

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103
Q

what does glutaraldehyde kill?

A

endospores in three hours

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104
Q

how do you use glutaraldehyde?

A

in a chemiclave

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105
Q

what is glutaraldehyde used for?

A

respiratory therapy and kidney dialysis equipment, endoscopes, alternative for vaccine preservative

106
Q

what are some examples of glutaraldyhyde?

A

cidex and sporicidin

107
Q

what is formaldehyde?

A

sharp irritating gas that dissolves readily to form an aqueous solution called formalin

108
Q

what is formaldehyde classified as?

A

carcinogen

109
Q

what is formaldehyde used for?

A

surgical instruments
biological specimens
embalming fluid

110
Q

what are gaseous agents?

A

ethylene oxide

chlorine dioxide

111
Q

what is ethylene oxide?

A

colorless substance that is a gas at room temperature

highly explosive in air and is mixed with carbon dioxide when used in ETO sterilizer

112
Q

ethylene oxide is one of the few

A

gases accepted as a chemical sterilization agent

113
Q

ethylene oxide is classified as

A

a carcinogen

114
Q

what is ethylene oxide used for?

A

prepackaged medical supplies that are plastics and disinfectant of foods such as spices fruits and drugs

115
Q

what is chlorine dioxide?

A

used as a sterilizing gas

116
Q

what is chlorine dioxide used for?

A

treatment of drinking water, wastewater, food-processing equipment and medical waste

117
Q

what is chlorine dioxide’s most notable use?

A

decontamination of senate offices after anthrax attack of 2001

118
Q

what are heavy metals?

A 
mercury
silver
gold
copper
aresenic
zinc
119
Q

what are the most commonly used heavy metals?

A

mercury

silver

120
Q

what is mercury?

A

mercury tinctures .001-.2% in alcohol

121
Q

what is mercury used for?

A

skin antiseptics, preservative in cosmetics and ophthalmic solutions. preservative in the vaccine thimerosal

122
Q

what are some examples of mercury?

A

mecurochrome

merthiolate (thimerosol)

123
Q

what is mercurochrome?

A

monkey’s blood
developed in 1919
banned in 1998

124
Q

what is mertiolate?

A

thimersol

developed in 1929. Has been used as a preservative in vaccines; phased out in 1999

125
Q

what is the active ingredient in mertiolate?

A

benzalkonium chloride

lidocane

126
Q

what is silver?

A

silver nitrate

silver sulfadiazine

127
Q

what is silver nitrate used for?

A

prevention of eye infections of newborns

128
Q

what is silver sulfadiazine used for?

A

ointments for burn patients

129
Q

what is zinc?

A

used in Bourdeaux’s Butt Paste for diaper rash

130
Q

what is the active ingredient of zinc?

A

zinc oxide

131
Q

what is the active ingriedient in detergent?

A

ammonium chloride

isopropyl alcohol

132
Q

what is the best detergent?

A

quartenary ammonium compound

133
Q

what is the most common detergent?

A

benzalkonium chloride

134
Q

what are soaps?

A

alkaline compounds made when combining sodium or potassium salts and fatty acids

135
Q

what is the most common soap?

A

sodium lauryl sulfate

136
Q

what is a chemotheraputic agent?

A

any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or porphylaxis of a disease

137
Q

what is the natural way an antibiotic is produced?

A

product is unchanged from organism that produces it. Streptomyces is the most prolific

138
Q

what is the semisynthtic way an antibiotic is produced?

A

drug that is chemically modified in the lab after being isolated from the natural source

139
Q

what is the synthetic way a antibiotic is made?

A

drug is made totally in the lab

140
Q

what is an antibiotic?

A

metabolic product of one microorganism that inhibits or destroys other microorganisms

141
Q

what are the characteristics of the ideal antibiotic?

A 
selectively toxic
microbicidal not microbistatic
soluble and functions when diluted
remains potent enough to act
not subject to resistence
complements host's defences
readily delivered to site of infection
not excessive in cost
doesn't cause allergies
142
Q

what is the mechanism of the mode of action for chemotheraputic drugs?

A 
cell wall
cell membrane
protein synthesis
nucleic acid
cytoplam
143
Q

what happens to the cell wall when antibiotics are introduced?

A

the cell develops weak points at growth sites and become osmotically fragile

144
Q

what happens to the cell membrane when antibiotics are introduced?

A

damage to the cell membrane causes disruption in metabolism or lysis

145
Q

what are some examples of cell wall antibiotics?

A

penicillin

cephlasporins

146
Q

what are some examples of cell membrane antibiotics?

A

polymyxins
amphotericin B
nystatin

147
Q

what is protein synthesis (antibiotics)?

A

most inhibitors of translation react with the ribosome -mRNA complex

148
Q

what are two possible targets of protein synthesis?

A

30S

50S

149
Q

what are some examples of protein synthesis antibiotics?

A 
streptomycin
gentamycin
tetracyclines
chloraphenicol
erythromycin
150
Q

what happens with nucleic acids when antibiotics are introuced?

A

antibiotics block the synthesis of nucleotides and inhibit replication

151
Q

what are some examples of nucleic acid antibiotics?

A

chloroquine

AZT (antiviral drugs)

152
Q

what happens to the cytoplasm when antibiotics are introduced?

A

some drugs act as an analog to an enzyme in a metabolic pathway

153
Q

what are some examples of cytoplasm antibiotics?

A

sulfonamides

trimethoprim

154
Q

what drugs are in the antibacterial family?

A

penicillin
cephlasporin
Beta-lactam drugs
Non Beta-lactam cell wall inhibitors

155
Q

what are antibacterial drugs?

A

antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis by interfering with peptidoglycan formation

156
Q

what are non beta-lactam cell wall inhibitors?

A

vancomycin
bacitracin
isoniazid (INH)

157
Q

what is vancomycin?

A

narrow spectrum used to treat resistent staph and enterococcus

158
Q

what is MRSA?

A

methicillin resistent staphylococcus aeurus

159
Q

what is VRE?

A

vancomycin resistant enterococcus

160
Q

what is VRSA

A

vancomycin resistant staphylococcus aureus

161
Q

what are the primary problems of vancomycin?

A 
nausea
rash
dizziness
kidney damage
hearing loss
162
Q

what is bactracin?

A

narrow spectrum produced by a strain of Bacillus subtilis used topically in ointments

163
Q

what is isoniazid?

A

works by interferring with mycolic acid synthesis;

164
Q

how is bactracin used?

A

topically in ointments

165
Q

how is isonazid used?

A

to treat infections with mycobacterium tuberculosis

166
Q

what are some examples of antibiotics that damage bacterial cell membranes?

A

polymixins

167
Q

what are polymixins?

A

narrow-spectrum peptide antibiotics with a unique fatty acid component

168
Q

what do polymixins treat?

A

drug resistant pseudomonas aeruginosa and severe UTI. used in topical ointments

169
Q

what are antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

A 
aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
chloramphenical
macrolide and related antibiotics
erythromycin
170
Q

what are aminoglycosides?

A

produced by streptomyces (sterptomycin)

produced by micromoriospora (gentamycin)

171
Q

aminoglycosides are especially useful in treating

A

aerobic gram negative rods

172
Q

what does streptomycin treat

A

bubonic plague and tuberculosis

173
Q

what does gentamycin treat

A

less toxic than streptomycin used to treat gram negative rods

174
Q

what is a newer type of aminoglycoside?

A

tobramycin

175
Q

what is neomycin?

A

aminoglycoside

topical ointment

176
Q

what are the primary problems of aminoglycosides?

A

diarrhea
hearling loss
dizziness
kidney damage

177
Q

what are tetracyclines?

A

broad spectrum produced by streptomyces

178
Q

what are some examples of tetracycline?

A

doxycycline

minocycline

179
Q

what does tetracyline treat?

A 
STDs
rocky mountain spotted fever
lyme disease
thyphus
acne
protozoa
180
Q

what are the primary problems of tetracycline?

A

GI disruption
staining of teeth
fetal bone development

181
Q

what is chloramphenical?

A

entirely synthesized through chemical processes. very toxic, restricted use, can cause irreversabile damage to bone marrow

182
Q

what does chloramphenical treat?

A

thyphoid fever
brain abscesses
ricketts
chlamydia

183
Q

what is the primary problem with chloramphenicals?

A

injury to white and red blood cell precursors

184
Q

what is macrolide and related antibiotics?

A

erythromycin

185
Q

what is erythromycin?`

A

broad spectrum, fairly low toxicity

used for penicillin resistant gonococci, syphilis and acne

186
Q

what are some newer semi-synthetic macrolides?

A

clarithromycin

azithromycin (zithromax)

187
Q

what are some examples of antibiotics that act on DNA or RNA?

A

fluoroquinolones

rifampin

188
Q

what are fluoroquinolones?

A

broad spectrum effectiveness
synthetic
ciproflaxin
levafloxacin

189
Q

what are fluoroquinolones used for?

A

UTIs, STDs, GI infections, respiratory infections and soft tissue infections

190
Q

what are the primary problems with fluoroquinolones?

A

headaches, dizziness, tremors and GI distress

191
Q

The CDC is recommending what concerning fluoroquinolones?

A

careful monitoring of them to prevent ciprofloxacin resistent bacteria

192
Q

what are the main problems with erythromycins?

A

stomach pain, nausea and diarrhea

193
Q

what is ribampin?

A

narrow spectrum

propylaxis of neisseria meningitis carriers

194
Q

what does rifampin treat?

A

mainly tuberculosis and leprosy but also

legionella, brucella and staph

195
Q

what are some antibiotics that block the metabolic pathway?

A

sulfonamides

196
Q

what are sulfonamides?

A

sulfa drugs (first antimicrobial drug)
most are synthetic
narrow spectrum
blocks the synthesis of folic acid by bacteria

197
Q

what is sulfisoxazole?

A

treats shigellosis, UTI, and protozoan infection

198
Q

what are the primary problems with sulfonamides?

A

rash, formation of crystals in kidneys, hemolysis of RBC and reduced platelets

199
Q

what is silver sulfadiazine?

A

treats burns and eye infections

200
Q

what are antifungal drugs?

A

fungal cells are eukaryotic. a drug that is toxic to fungal cells is also toxic to human cells

201
Q

what types of diseases do antifungal drugs treat?

A

superficial and systemic

202
Q

what is the mode of action of antifungal drugs?

A

disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus

203
Q

what are some types of antifungal drugs?

A 
microlide polyenes
griseofulvin
synthetic azoles
flucytosine
echinocandins
204
Q

what are microlide polyenes?

A

found in creams or solutions for topical treatment of athletes foot, ring worm, and oral or vaginal candidiasis

205
Q

what are some examples of microlide polyenes

A

amphotericin B

nystatin

206
Q

what is amphotericin B?

A

most verstile and effective; works on most fungal infections.
systemic fungal infections “gold standard”

207
Q

what is nystatin?

A

used topically or orally for treatment of yeast infections

208
Q

what is griseofulvin?

A

stubborn cases of dermatophyte (ringworm)

nephrotoxic (poisonous to the kidney)

209
Q

where is griseofulvin used?

A

deposited in the skin, hair and nails

210
Q

what is synthetic azoles?

A

broad spectrum OTC or prescribed for dermatopyte or mucous membrane infection

211
Q

what are some examples of prescribed synthetic azoles?

A

ketoconazole
clotrimazole
miconazole

212
Q

what are some examples of OTC synthetic azoles?

A

gyne-lotramin
monistat
micatin
nizoral

213
Q

what is flucytosine?

A

used for cutaneous mycoses or in combination with amphotericin B for systemic mycoses

214
Q

what is echinocandins?

A

bew category of antifungal drugs that damages the cell walls of fungal cells so not toxic to humans

215
Q

what is the first liscensed echinocandin?

A

capsofungin

216
Q

what are enchinocandins used for?

A

invasive fungal disease where patient cannot take amphotericin B or flucytosine. (invasive yeast infection)

217
Q

what are some types of antiparasitic drugs?

A

antimalarial drugs
antiprotozoan drugs
antihelinthic drugs

218
Q

what are antimalarial drugs?

A

quinine

219
Q

what is quinine?

A

used for hundreds of years to treat malaria. extracted from the brak of the cinchona tree

220
Q

what replaced quinine?

A

synthetics called quinolones

221
Q

what are some examples of antimalarial drugs?

A

chloroquine
primaquine
mefloquine for chloroquine resistant strains

222
Q

what are antiprotozan drugs?

A

metronidazole or flagyl

223
Q

what do antiprotozoan drugs treat?

A

parasitic infections such as mild to severe intestinal infections and STD

224
Q

what are antihelinthic drugs?

A

mebendazole used to treat roundworm and tapeworm infections

225
Q

antiviral drugs are all:

A

synthetic

226
Q

what are the three major modes of action of antiviral drugs?

A

inhibition of viral entry
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
inhibition of viral assembly

227
Q

what antiviral drugs inhibit viral entry?

A

amantadine

tamiflu

228
Q

what is amantidine?

A

used in the treatment of influenza A

229
Q

what is tamiflu?

A

used in the treatment of influenza infections

230
Q

what antiviral drugs inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

acyclovir
famiciclovir
AZT

231
Q

what is acyclovir?

A

zovirax

used to treat herpes

232
Q

what is famiciclovir?

A

famvir

used to treat chickenpox and shingles

233
Q

what is AZT?

A

azidothymidine

used to treat AIDS

234
Q

what antiviral drugs inhibit viral assembly or release?

A

saquinavir (protease inhibitor)

235
Q

what does saquinavir do?

A

blocks enzymes needed to assemble virus particles

236
Q

what does saquinavir treat?

A

AIDS

237
Q

what are some side effects of antiviral drugs?

A

damage to tissues of kidney or liver
allergic reations such as hives
superinfection

238
Q

what is a superinfection?

A

disruption of balance of the normal flora

239
Q

what are the two ways to test a microbes sensitivity to a drug?

A

kirby-bauer technique

tube dilution technique

240
Q

what is kirby bauer technique?

A
  • make a lawn of bacteria on petri plate
  • place different antibiotic discs on lawn and observe growth for 24-48 hours
  • look for zone of inhibition around antibiotic disks
  • measure zone and compare to chart for susceptability or resistence
241
Q

what is the tube dilution technique?

A

more sensitive and quantative

  • serial dilutions of antibiotics in test tubes
  • all tubes innoculated with same amount of bacteria
242
Q

what does the tube dilution method determine?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

243
Q

what is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?

A

smallest concentration of the drug that inhibits growth

244
Q

what is a theraputic index?

A

the ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans as compared to its minimum effective dose

245
Q

what is the TI ratio?

A

mic

246
Q

How do you create drug abuse?

A

over prescribe
drugs prescribed without suseptibility test
broad spectrum usually prescribed
regulations in other countries
patients do not finish or take them later
antibiotics used in livestock

247
Q

how is drug resistence aquired?

A

mutations in critical chromosomal genes

248
Q

what are the most prominent beta lactams?

A

penicillin and cephlasporins

249
Q

what are the three parts of penicillin?

A

thiazolidine ring
beta-lactam ring
variable side chain dictating microbial activity

250
Q

what are some semisynthetic penicillins?

A

ampicillin, carbenicillin, amoxicillin

251
Q

what penicillins are used for penicillinase resistant bacteria?

A

methicillin
nafcillin
cloxacillin

252
Q

what are the primary problems of penicillin?

A

allergy

resistance

253
Q

what are the three parts of cephlasporins?

A

six carbon ring
Beta-Lactam ring
two variable side chains dictating microbial activity

254
Q

what are the four types of cephlasporins?

A

first generation
second generation
third generation
fourth generation

255
Q

what are first generation cephlasporins?

A

cephlalothin and ceflazolin–most effective against gram positive and a few gram negative

256
Q

what are second generation cephlasporins?

A

cefaclor and cefonacid– more effective against gram negative bacteria

257
Q

what are third generation cephlasporins?

A

cephalexin and ceftriaxone– broad spectrum activity against enteric bacteria

258
Q

what are fourth generation cephlasporins?

A

cefepime–widest range; both gram negative and gram positive

259
Q

what are the primary problems of cephlasporins?

A

allergies

260
Q

what are carbapenems?

A

imipenum–broad spectrum drug for infections with aerobic and anaerobic pathogens; low dose, administered orally with few side effects

261
Q

what are monobactams?

A

aztreonam–narrow spectrum drug for infections of gram-negative aerobic bacilli used for people allergic to penicillin

microbiology (7 decks)

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