Review for path Flashcards

1
Q

What is single nucleotide polymorphism

A

A single nucleotide polymorphism, also known as simple nucleotide polymorphism, (SNP, pronounced snip; plural snips) is a DNA sequence variation occurring commonly within a population (e.g. 1%) in which a single nucleotide — A, T, C or G — in the genome (or other shared sequence) differs between members of a biological species or paired chromosomes. For example, two sequenced DNA fragments from different individuals, AAGCCTA to AAGCTTA, contain a difference in a single nucleotide. In this case we say that there are two alleles. Almost all common SNPs have only two alleles.

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2
Q

Why is SNP important

A

Variations in the DNA sequences of humans can affect how humans develop diseases and respond to pathogens, chemicals, drugs, vaccines, and other agents. SNP are co-herited with a disease associated gene as a result of physical proximity: SNP and the causative gene are in linkage disequilibrium. SNPs are also critical for personalized medicine.[5] However, their greatest importance in biomedical research is for comparing regions of the genome between cohorts (such as with matched cohorts with and without a disease) in genome-wide association studies

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3
Q

What is Copy number variation

A

Copy-number variations (CNVs)—a form of structural variation—are alterations of the DNA of a genome that results in the cell having an abnormal or, for certain genes, a normal variation in the number of copies of one or more sections of the DNA. CNVs correspond to relatively large regions of the genome that have been deleted (fewer than the normal number) or duplicated (more than the normal number) on certain chromosomes. For example, the chromosome that normally has sections in order as A-B-C-D might instead have sections A-B-C-C-D (a duplication of “C”) or A-B-D (a deletion of “C”).

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4
Q

What is CNV important

A

in genetic variation, CNV is associated with susceptibility or resistance to disease like cancer cells.

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5
Q

What is epigenetics

A

heritable changes in gene expression that are not caused by alterations in DNA sequence. Involved in tissue specific expression of Genes and genomic imprinting. is the study, in the field of genetics, of cellular and physiological phenotypic trait variations that are caused by external or environmental factors that switch genes on and off and affect how cells read genes instead of being caused by changes in the DNA sequence.

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6
Q

What is an epigenome

A

An epigenome consists of a record of the chemical changes to the DNA and histone proteins of an organism; these changes can be passed down to an organism’s offspring. Changes to the epigenome can result in changes to the structure of chromatin and changes to the function of the genome. tumors develop due to the disruption of DNA methylation or histone modification.

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7
Q

What is a microRNA

A

is a small non-coding RNA molecule (containing about 22 nucleotides) found in plants, animals, and some viruses, which functions in RNA silencing and post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression.[1][2] don’t not encode protein and it inhibits gene expression by silencing gene expression. Encoded by eukaryotic nuclear DNA in plants and animals and by viral DNA in certain viruses whose genome is based on DNA, miRNAs function via base-pairing with complementary sequences within mRNA molecules.[3] As a result, these mRNA molecules are silenced by one or more of the following processes: 1) cleavage of the mRNA strand into two pieces, 2) destabilization of the mRNA through shortening of its poly(A) tail, and 3) less efficient translation of the mRNA into proteins by ribosomes

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8
Q

What processes does microRNA influence

A

cell proliferation, differentiation development and Apoptosis

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9
Q

What happens if there is problems with the microRNA

A

It can lead to diseases like cancer

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10
Q

What is mulitfactoral inheritance

A

it is a disease that is influenced by genetic and environmental factors. Environmental factor: may be small or large but is required. Genetic factor: involves additive results of multiple genes of small effect

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11
Q

What are examples of disease multifactoral inheritance

A

Diabetes Mellitus, Cleft lip, pyloric stenosis, congenital heart disease and Hypertension

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12
Q

What are the different types of chromosomal aberrations

A

Numerical and structural

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13
Q

What are the types of numerical genetic disorders

A

MAP - Mocsaicism, Aneuploidy and Polyploidy

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14
Q

What is mosaicism

A

denotes presence of 2 population of cells with different karyotypes in one individual . mitotic errors in early development give rise to 2 or more population of cells in the same individual.

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15
Q

What is aneuploidy

A
  • is a change in the number of the chromosomes that can lead to a chromosomal disorder. chromosome complement that is not an exact multiple of 23. the mechanism is nondisjunction and anaphase lag. increase material age causes this.
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16
Q

What is polyploidy

A

chromosomes complement is a multiple of 23 - triploid - 69 tetraploid- 92

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17
Q

What is Turner Syndrome

A

45 (XO)
Complete or partial monosomy of X chromosome
2nd X is necessary for oogenesis & normal ovary development
Most common sex chromosome abnormality in females
Causes female hypogonadism

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18
Q

What are the clinical features of Turners syndrome

A

Failure to develop secondary sex characteristics, Short stature, Broad chest and widely spaced nipples, Atrophic “streak” ovaries (menopause before menarche), Cubitus Valgus (elbow angle), Primary amenorrhea, Infertility, Webbing of the neck, Hypothyroidism, Congenital heart disease

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19
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome

A

(47,XXY or 48,XXXY)
Defined as male hypogonadism
Affected individuals have at least 2 X chromosomes and at least one Y chromosome

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20
Q

What are some of the clinical features of Klinefelter syndrome

A

Tall stature (Increase in length between the soles and the pubic bone) and abnormally long legs, Hypogonadism – present in all pt’s with Klinefelter Syndrome, small atrophic testes often associated with a small penis, lack of secondary male characteristics such as deep voice, Beard, and Male distribution of pubic hair, Gynecomastia may be present, Infertility R/T azoospermia

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21
Q

What is triple X syndrome? what are the clinical features

A

(47,XXX)Nondisjunction during meiosis.
Delayed puberty, Tall stature, Relatively small head, Epicanthal folds, GU tract malformations, Psychosocial problems, Learning disabilities, Recurrent miscarriages, Fertility problems, Premature deliveries, Autoimmune thyroid disorders

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22
Q

What is XYY syndrome. What are some of the clinical features

A

On chromsome 47. this person is identified as a boy.
Indication a baby boy has XYY
Hypotonia, delayed motor skill development, delayed speech, not easily excitable, undescended testicles at birth
Indications a young boy/teen has XYY
Autism dx, inability to grow facial/body hair, learning difficulties, attention difficulties, delayed motor skill, delayed speech, emotional issues, gynecomastia, hypotonia, hypogonadism
Indications an adult male has XYY
Decreased sex drive, decreased sperm count, infertility

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23
Q

What are the types of structural abnormalities

A

DIT
Deletion
Inversion
Translocation

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24
Q

What is Trisomy 21? what are the characteristics of the syndrome

A

Down syndrome. One of the major cause of intellectual disability. Oblique palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, low set ears, protruding tongue, epicanthal folds, simian crease, congenital heart disease, 1-2- fold increase risk for acute leukemia, Alzheimer disease-like lesions in all pt’s,

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25
Q

What are the causes of trisomy 21?

A

95% due to trisomy nondisjunction associated with maternal age. 4% due to Robertsonian translocation between chromosome 21 & 14 or 22

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26
Q

What is trisomy 18? what are the characteristics of the syndrome

A

Edwards syndrome. Clinical features: Clinical features
Prominent occiput, Intellectual disability, low set ears, overlapping fingers, short neck, congenital heart diseases, renal malformations, limited hip abduction, rocker feet

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27
Q

What is trisomy 13

A

patau syndrome. Clinical features
Microcephaly, intellectual disability, microphthalmia, cleft lip/palate, polydactyl, cardiac defects, renal defects, umbilical hernia, rocker feet

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28
Q

What is the disorder of chromosome 5? What are the characteristics of the syndrome

A

Cri du chat.
Clinical features
Microcephaly, round faces, characteristic cry of a kitten, mental retardation

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29
Q

What is the syndrome of chromosome 21?

A
DiGeorge syndrome. Deletion in 1 chromosome id detected by FISH
Clinical features
Cardiac
Abnormal faces
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
CATCH!!!
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30
Q

What are chromosomal mutations

A

Rearrangement of genetic material giving rise to visible structural changes
Changes are transmitted only infrequently since most are incompatible with survival

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31
Q

What are the types of chromosomal mutations

A

Missense or point mutation
frameshift
Nonsense

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32
Q

What is a missense or point mutation

A

Alters the code in a triplet of bases leading to replacement of 1 amino acid by another.
Two types: Conservative or Non- conservative
ex. Sickle cell mutation

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33
Q

What is a nonsense mutation

A

change in the DNA sequence that leas to a stop codon. Ex. beta thalassemia

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34
Q

What is a frameshift mutation

A

Small deletions or insertions involving the coding sequence leads to alteration in the reading frame of the DNA strand
NO frameshift: If the number of nucleotides involved is 3 or a multiple of 3
YES frameshift: If the number of nucleotide bases involved is OTHER THAN A MULTIPLE OF 3
Trinucleotide Repeat
Ex. Fragile X

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35
Q

What are enzyme defect

A

these are defects that reduce activity or there may b e a reduce amount of normal enzyme and causes a metabolic block.

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36
Q

What are the 3 consequences of enzyme defects?

A

Accumulation of the substrate, decreased amount of end product, failure to inactivate a tissue damaging substrate.

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37
Q

What are disorders that deal with alteration in structure, function or quantity of non enzyme proteins

A

Marfans
EDS,
Familial hypercholesterolemia

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38
Q

What is Marfan syndrome

A

it is a structural protein defect: disrupted microfibril assembly through a missense mutation. It has a variable clinical presentation, ranging from mild to severe systemic disease.

39
Q

What is the defect in marfan’s syndrome

A

it is with the Fibrillin -1. it is secreted by fibroblast. there is a mutation of the FBN1 gene at chromosome 15q21.

40
Q

What are the consequences of the syndrome?

A

Tall stature, lax joints, tapered fingers, dislocated lens, aortic arch aneurysms. it occurs every 1 in 5000 with the transmission through autosomal dominant.

41
Q

What is microfibril

A

components of the extracellular matrix consisting primarily of fibrillin, essential for the integrity of elastic fibers.

42
Q

What is Beal’s Syndrome

A

Mutation in the FBN-2 gene

43
Q

What are the clinical feature of Beal’s syndrome

A

Congenital Contractural Arachnodactyly (CCA) is characterized by a Marfan-like appearance (tall, slender habitus in which arm span exceeds height) and long, slender fingers and toes
Contractures of major joints (knees and ankles) at birth; Hip contractures, adducted thumbs, and club foot may occur

44
Q

What is EDS?

A

Structural protein defect: defective collagen synthesis
Autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive
Gene: ADAMTS2, COL1A1, COL1A2, COL3A1

45
Q

What are the types of EDS

A
Classical ( type1 and 2 - Type V Procollagen, COL5A1 and A2) : characterized with skin hyper extensibility, joints and ligament hyper mobility, widened atrophic scarring.
Hyper mobility (type 3 - tension X and TNX-B): characterized by joint hyper mobility 
Vascular (type 4 - Type 3 Procollagen and COL3A1) Excessive Brusing, Arterial Fragility
Kyphoscoliosis ( type 6 Lysyl Hydroxylase 1, LH-1 (PLOD1)) characterized by scleral Fragility, Hypotonia
46
Q

What is familial Hypercholesterolemia

A

Receptor Protein Defect: LDL Receptor defect
Causing: elevated Plasma LDL levels, impaired cholesterol transport across liver cells, accumulation of cholesterol leading to Xanthomas, increased risk of Myocardial Infarction
“Scavenger System” for cholesterol clearance includes phagocytosis by Macrophages (foamy macrophages)

47
Q

What are the types of Familial hypercholesterolemia

A

Types
Class I mutations: relatively uncommon, complete failure of synthesis of the receptor protein (null allele)

Class II mutations: fairly common, the receptor protein is synthesized, but its transport from Endoplasmic Reticulum to Golgi Apparatus is impaired

Class III mutations: affect the LDL-binding domain of the receptor

Class IV mutations: Receptors fail to internalize after binding

48
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

Transport Protein Defect: impaired transport system for chloride ions
Leads to serious injury to the lungs and pancreas, viscid mucous secretions block airways and ducts, meconium ileus, steatosis, infertility
Mutations in transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene at chromosome locus 7q31.2
CFTR gene inheritance is Autosomal Recessive

49
Q

What is pleiotropism

A

Single gene mutation causes multiple phenotypic changes

50
Q

What is an example of pleiotropism

A

Phenylketoruria

51
Q

What is phenylketotonuria

A

Inborn error of metabolism
Caused by any mutation (pretty much) in the gene that codes for phenylalanine hydroxylase
Normally converts phenylalanine to tyrosine
Mutation will result in diminished or absent conversion
Phenylalanine concentrations will hit toxic levels and cause systemic tissue damage

52
Q

What is lysosomal storage disease

A

When one of the lysosomal enzymes is missing, complete breakdown of the molecule is not possible. This leads to the accumulation of the incompletely digested molecule within the cell. The lysosomes and subsequently the cell and the organ increase in size. Normal cellular function is compromised significantly.

53
Q

What is an example of lysosomal storage disease

A

Ex: Gaucher disease
Most prevalent lysosomal storage disorder.
Deficiency of glucocerebrosidase, which is a lysosomal enzyme.
Inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Accumulation of glucocerebroside in the cells of the bone marrow, liver, and spleen.
Hallmark of Gaucher disease, a lipid-filled macrophage containing the undigested glucosylceramides that accumulates

54
Q

What are inborn errors

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzymes normally required for the degradation of glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides). The glycosaminoglycans are dermatan sulfate, heparin sulfate, keratin sulfate, and chondroitin sulfate. There are 10 subtypes of this disorder, all but 1 of which are transmitted as autosomal recessive.

55
Q

What are glycogen storage diseases

A

There is a hereditary deficiency of one of the enzymes involved in the synthesis or degradation of glycogen. As in most enzyme deficiencies, the majority of the subtypes are transmitted as autosomal recessive. In the hepatic forms of the condition, enzyme deficiency results in organomegaly, principally hepatomegaly, and impaired glucose release into the circulation, leading to hypoglycemia

56
Q

What are examples of glycogen storage disease

A

Ex: Type I aka Von Gierke Disease
Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase
Enzyme required for the conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose,
Glucose 6-phosphate & glycogen accumulates within the liver (hepatocytes)

Defects in Receptors and Transport Systems

57
Q

What is innate immunity

A

Found in places that prevent microbe entry: epithelial barriers of skin, GI & respiratory tracts
Cells: neutrophils, macrophages, NK cells

58
Q

What is adaptive immunity

A

Cells: lymphocytes and their products
“Immune system” and “immune response” refer to adaptive immunity
Two types: Humoral & Cellular

59
Q

What is humoral response

A

Humoral
B cells
Antibody mediated
Antibodies provide protection against extracellular microbes in the blood, mucosal secretions, and tissues

60
Q

What is cellular response

A

T cells
Cell mediated
T lymphocytes are important in defense against intracellular microbes
Cytotoxic T cell: kill directly
Helper T cells: activate macrophages to kill

61
Q

What are macrophages

A

Type of antigen presenting cell
Ingest microbes and other particulate antigens
Display peptides for recognition by T cells which then activate the macrophages to kill microbes

62
Q

What are T cells

A

Mature in thymus
DO NOT detect free circulating antigens
95% only recognize peptide fragments of protein antigens bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Function by interacting with other cells
To kill infected cells
To activate phagocytes or B cells
Peptide antigens presented by self MHC molecules are recognized by the T cell receptor (TCR),
TCR is a heterodimer composed of disulfide-linked a and b protein chains

63
Q

What are B cells

A

Mature in bone marrow
A type of antigen presenting cell
Present peptides to helper T cells and receive signals that stimulate antibody responses to antigens
Found in Follicles of lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, mucosal tissues and bone marrow
Antigens
IgG: crosses maternal membrane in pregnancy
IgM
IgA: major isotope in mucosal secretion
IgE: found attached to surfaces of Mast cells
IgD: expressed on the surfaces of B cells but is not secreted

64
Q

What are antigen Presenting Cells

A

Cell types that are specialized to capture microbial antigens and display these to lymphocytes

65
Q

What are the types of antigen presenting cells

A

Types: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

66
Q

What are NK cells

A

Cells that are in the innate immunity that are not expressed high variable and colonially distributed receptors for antigens. they don’t have adverse specificities.

67
Q

What are the 2 types of receptors for the NK cells

A

Inhibitory and activatting

68
Q

What are inhibitory receptors

A

Inhibitory: recognize self MHC I molecules, which are expressed on all healthy cells

69
Q

What are the activating receptors

A

Activating: recognize molecules that are expressed or upregulated on stressed or infected cells or cells with DNA damage

70
Q

Which receptors are more powerful? the Inhibitory or the activating

A

Inhibitory

71
Q

What are the effects of infection and stress on the NK cells and the receptors

A

Infections (ESP viral) and stress= reduced expression of MHC I molecules, thus:
Releasing the NK cells from inhibition
Increased engagement of ACTIVATING receptors

72
Q

What are cytokines

A

are a broad and loose category of small proteins (~5–20 kDa) that are important in cell signaling. They are released by cells and affect the behavior of other cells. Cytokines can also be involved in autocrine signaling.
Synthesized and secreted in response to external stimuli: microbial products, antigen recognition, or other cytokines
Secretion typically is transient and controlled by transcription and post-translational mechanisms

73
Q

What are the types of cytokines

A

Innate Immunity and Inflammation

TNF, IL-1, Chemokines, IL-12, IFN-g, IL-6, IL-23, IL-17 (Recruits Neutrophils)

74
Q

What are the adaptive immunity induction and regulation

A

IL-2 (Stimulates T cell Proliferation), IL-4 (Proliferation and Differentiation of Lymphocytes, Stimulates B cells to Differentiate into IgE-secreting Plasma cells), IL-5 (Activates Eosinophils), IFN-g (Activates Macrophages, Stimulates B cells to produce antibodies), IL-13 (Activates Mucosal Epithelial Cells, Activates Macrophages to Secrete Growth Factors)
Hematopoiesis Stimulation: Colony Stimulating Factors

75
Q

What is Th1 cells

A

Cell-mediated immunity and inflammation
Induced by: IL-12, IFNγ
Triggered reaction: macrophage activation, stimulation of IgG production
Host defense against: intracellular microbes viruses, bacteria
Role in disease: immune-mediated chronic inflammation diseases (often autoimmune)

76
Q

What is Th2 cells

A

Antibody-mediated immunity
Induced by: IL-2
Triggered reaction: stimulation of IgE production, activation of mast cells and eosinophils
Host defense against: helminthic parasites
Role in disease: allergies, asthma

77
Q

What are Th17

A

Extracellular bacteria on skin, lining of intestine
Induced by: IL-17, IL-22, chemokines
Triggered reaction: recruitment of neutrophils, monocytes
Host defense against: extracellular bacteria, fungi
Role in disease: immune-mediated chronic inflammation diseases (often autoimmune)

78
Q

What is a type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Type I: Immediate
IgE mediated hypersensitivity
Initiation time: 20-30 minutes
Phases
Exposure to allergen phase
Th2, CD4 + T cell activation leads to B cell production of IgE
IgE binds to Fc receptors on mast cells
Immediate phase: mast cell degranulates releasing histamine, vasodilation, vascular leakage, smooth muscle contraction, broncho spasm
Late phase (hours, days): eosinophils, PMNs, T cells
Ex: acute allergic reaction, systemic bee venom, drug anaphylaxis
S/sx: itching, urticaria (hives), skin erythema, bronchoconstriction, mucus hypersecretion, laryngeal edema, abdominal cramps, hypotension, anaphylactic shock

79
Q

What is a type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Type II
Antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Initiation time: 5-8 hours
Antibodies bind to fixed tissue or cell surface antigens
OPSONIZATION of cells by antibodies
PHAGOCYTOSIS of opsonized cells
COMPLEMENT FIXATION (cascade of C1q, C1r, C1s, C2, C3, C4, C5….. )
Antibodies bind Fc Receptors of Leukocytes
Ex: Good pasture Syndrome, Pemphigus Vulgaris
LYSIS: destruction of cells by membrane lysis
ANTIRECEPTOR Antibodies disturb receptor function
Anti-TSH Receptor
Anti-Ach Receptor
Ex: Graves Disease, Myasthenia Gravis

80
Q

What is a type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Type III
Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
Initiation time: 2-8 hours
Antibodies bind to antigens these complexes circulate and deposit in: kidneys, blood vessels, skin, joint fluid (synovium)
Vasculitis if it occurs in blood vessels
Glomerulonephritis if it occurs in renal glomeruli
Arthritis if it occurs in the joints
Compliment activation and acute inflammation

81
Q

What is a type 4 hypersensitivity

A
Type IV
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Initiation time: 24-72 hours
Cells involved: CD4+ Th1 & Th17, CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
Ex: TST reaction 
Direct antigen contact with cells
Granuloma formation
Contact dermatitis
82
Q

What is hyper acute rejection

A

Occurs within minutes hours of transplant
Occurs when preformed antidonor antibodies are present in recipient circulation
Early lesions point to an antigen-antibody reaction
Accumulation of neutrophils within arterioles, glomeruli, and peritubular capillaries
Fibrinoid necrosis of arterial wall/necrosis of renal cortex

83
Q

What acute rejection

A

Occurs within Days of transplant
Cell mediated and antibody mediated reactions
Acute cellular rejection and acute rejection vasculitis
Acute cellular rejection – interstitial mononuclear cell infiltration (lymphocytes), edema and hemorrhage
Acute rejection Vasculitis – alterations in the intima of the arteries – thickened by – proliferating fibroblasts, monocytes & macrophages – luminal narrowing / immunoglobulin and complement deposits on the wall

84
Q

What is chronic rejection

A

Occurs over a period of 4-6 Months after transplant
Vascular changes – intimal Fibrosis of cortical arteries – renal Ischemia – interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy and shrinkage of renal parenchyma
Chronic cell mediated rejection, interstitial mononuclear cell infiltrates, plasma cells and numerous eosinophils

85
Q

What are some local autoimmune diseases

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis, Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia, Multiple Sclerosis, Autoimmune Orchitis, Goodpasture Syndrome, Autoimmune Thrombocytopenia (Itp), “Pernicious” Anemia, Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus, Myasthenia Gravis, Graves Disease

86
Q

What are your systemic autoimmune disease

A

SLE, RA, Shjogren syndrome

87
Q

What is HLA with MHC

A

It is the human leukocyte system in the MHC

88
Q

Where is the HLA located

A

It is located on Chromosome 6

89
Q

What are the classes of HLA

A
Class I (A, B & C) antigens are expressed on all nucleated cells and platelets
Class II (DR, DP & DQ) antigens are expressed only on APCs
90
Q

What is HLA Matching and what is it important

A

Each person expresses a unique MHC antigenic profile on his or her cells
HLA matching is important in transplantation
Any cell displaying some other HLA type is “non-self” and is “foreign”, resulting in the rejection

91
Q

What is the process of the lymphocyte activation

A

At the site of microbe entry, epithelia serve as physical barriers to infections and eliminate microbes through production of peptide antibiotics and the actions of intraepithelial lymphocytes
The microbes encounter phagocytes and neutrophils, rapidly recruited from the blood into the tissues being invaded
The microbes also encounter resident macrophages which ingest microbes and destroy them
In response to recognition of microbes, phagocytes, dendritic cells, and many other cell types secrete cytokines
Promote inflammation and enhance protective immune responses
Immune Cells Recognize bacterial and viral components through Toll-like Receptors (TLRs)
Natural Killer (NK) Cells Kill virus-infected cells and produce the macrophage-activating cytokine IFN-γ
If the microbes enter the blood, many plasma proteins recognize the microbes and are activated
Their products kill microbes and opsonize (coat) the microbes for phagocytosis
Microbes are captured by dendritic cells that are resident in and under epithelia
Protein antigens are proteolytically digested in the APCs to generate peptides that are displayed on the surface of the APCs bound to MHC molecules
Antigen-bearing dendritic cells then Migrate to draining Lymph Nodes

92
Q

What is T cell Migration

A

the principle co-stimulators for T cell are B7 molecules

93
Q

What are the types of signal

A

Signal one: through T cell receptor
Signal two: through B7 molecules
If T cell fails to receive signal two, cell dies by apoptosis
If second signal is not provided, T cells can be tricked to not respond causes CA

94
Q

What happens with Activation and Migration of T cells

A

Antigen recognition in lymphoid organs
T cell proliferation and differentiation
Differentiated effector and memory T cells enter circulation
Migration of effector T cells to site of antigen
Results
CD4+ effector T cells & phagocytes= macrophage activation: killing ingested microbes
Cytokine secretion= inflammation
CD8+ T cells & infected cell with microbe in cytoplasm= killing of infected cell