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PAT 310 > REVIEW > Flashcards

REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

143- Grave’s disease is characterized by

a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Folicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

A

d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

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2
Q

144- Diagnosis of follicular carcinoma is based on detection of

a. Nuclear clearing and grooving
b. Amyloid formation
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
d. Undifferentiated malignant cells, spindle cells and giant cells

A
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3
Q

145- The following condition forms a breast mass that may be
histologically mistaken for a tumor:

a. Traumatic fat necrosis
b. Apocrine metaplasia
c. Usual ductal hyperplasia
d. Adenosis

A

a. Traumatic fat necrosis

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4
Q

146- The following is TRUE about Sclerosing adenosis:

a. It never accompanies fibrocystic disease
b. It is considered to be a low-grade adenocarcinoma
c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving a false impression of invasive carcinoma
d. It is adenosis with excess fatty stroma showing fat necrosis and sclerosis

A

c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving

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5
Q

147- These tumors are benign epithelial tumors of the breast EXCEPT:

a. Fibroadenoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Benign phylloides tumor
d. Duct papilloma

A

b. Pleomorphic adenomab.

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6
Q

148- ….is NOT one of the risk factors of breast cancer:

a. Hyperestrinism
b. Fibrocystic disease with florid ductal hyperplasia
c. Multiple duct papillomas with atypia
d. Apocrine metaplasia

A

d. Apocrine metaplasia

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7
Q

149- Paget’s disease of the breast:

a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen
b. Show skin changes including BOTH peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma

A

c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm

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8
Q

150- A 20-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound shows a dilated endometrial cavity. Evacuation of the uterus by suction curettage reveals grape like clusters and fetal parts. Cytogenetic examination of this tissue will most likely demonstrate which of the following genetic patterns?

a. Triploid
b. Euploid
c. Diploid
d. Aneuploid

A

a. Triploid

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9
Q

151- Which of the following ĮS NOT a complication of puerperal sepsis:

a. Septicemia
b. Septic thrombophelibitis
c. Infertility
d. Endometrial carcinoma

A

d. Endometrial carcinoma

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10
Q

152- Theca cell Tumor (thecoma/fibroma) is:

a. Malignant in more than 95% of cases.
b. It mostly occurs in young women
c. Always well defined cystic mass grossly
d. The tumor may produce estrogen

A

d. The tumor may produce estrogen

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11
Q

153- A 29 year old woman presents with severe pain during menstruatior (dysmenorrhea). During work up, an endometrial biopsy is obtained. The pathology report from this specimen makes the
diagnosis of chronic endometritis. Which of the following cells is reported for diagnosis of chronic endometritis in endometrial biopsy:

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Decidualized stromal cells

A

c. Plasma cells

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12
Q

154- Which of the following is the most common histologic type of cervical cancer

a. Adenosquamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenoacanthoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

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13
Q

155- Which of the following is NOT TRUE about endometrial hyperplasia:

a. It is less common in females around menopause
b. It is precancerous
c. It can be associated with polycystic ovaries
d. It can be complicated with abnormal uterine bleeding

A

a. It is less common in females around menopause

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14
Q

156- Which of the following ovarian tumors can be bilateral:

a. Serous cystadenoma
b. Krukenberg tumor
c. Ovarian carcinoma
d. All of the above

A

a. Serous cystadenoma

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15
Q

157- Which of the following is true about choriocarcinoma

a. It mostly arise from progression of partial vesicular mole
b. Serum HCG level is mildly elevated
c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens
d. It is composed microscopically cytotrophoblasts anaplastic syncytiotrophoblasts together with chorionic villi and

A

c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens

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16
Q

158- Which of the following is true about Condyloma accuminata of the vulva:

a. It is precancerous
b. Koilocytosis is not evident
c. It is caused by HPV 16 and 18
d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions

A

d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions

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17
Q

159- Which of the following is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy:

a. Ovary
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Douglas pouch

A

b. Fallopian tubes

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18
Q

160- Which of the following mammary neoplasms has the highest incidence of bilaterality:

a. Lobular carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Paget’s disease
d. Apocrine carcinoma

A

a. Lobular carcinoma

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19
Q

161- Strüma ovarii is a:

a. Type of mature cystic teratoma
b. Type of immature cystic teratoma
c. Type of malignant cystic teratoma
d. Tumor - like lesion with excess formation of ovarian stroma

A

a. Type of mature cystic teratoma

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20
Q

162- A 36-year-old woman cervical biopsy shows dysplastic squamous throughout cells full thickness epithelium, with intact basement membrane. What is appropriate diagnosis?

a. Squamous metaplasia of the transformation zone,
b. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
c. CIN-1 (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 1, Mild dysplasia).
d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).

A

d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).

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21
Q

163- The diagnosis of chronic endometritis rests on the presence of these cells within the endometrium.

a. Neutrophils.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Lymphoid follicles.
d. Plasma cells.

A

d. Plasma cells

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22
Q

164- The endometrial carcinoma caused prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation is:

a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Serous carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma

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23
Q

165- A 25-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever vaginal and discharge. Pelvic examination reveals the bilateral adnexal pain. Cultures taken from vaginal discharge grow Neisseria
gonorrhoeae. What is your diagnosis of the cause of this patient’s adnexal pain?

a. b. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Luteoma of pregnancy
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

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24
Q

166- Pseudomyxomaperitonei is most likely to be associated with:

a. Brenner tumor of the ovary
b. Serous tumors of the ovary.
c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d. Chocolate cyst.

A

c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary

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25
Q

167- Which of the following provides the best serologic marker to Diagnose and monitor the course of yolk sac tumor:

a. Alkaline phosphatase.
b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
c. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)\

A

b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

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26
Q

168- The most likely diagnosis of type of hydatidiform mole with no fetal parts is:

a. Partial hydatidiform mole
b. Complete hydatidiform mole
c. choriocarcinoma
d. Placental site trophoblastic tumor.

A

b. Complete hydatidiform mole

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27
Q

169- Gestational Choriocarcinoma characterized by the following except:

a. It is rare, mostly arise from progression of complete mole
b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.
c. Serum HCG is markedly elevated
d. It has excellent response with recent chemotherapy regimens.

A

b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.

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28
Q

170- Which of the following is a cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB):

a. Failure of ovulation
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Uterine liomyoma
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

a. Failure of ovulation

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29
Q

171- Which of the following is not a feature of endometrial hyperplasia:

a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia
b. The recent World Health Organization (WHO) classification recommends two categories.
c. It is complicated by abnormal uterine bleeding
d. Atypical hyperplasia has risk of progression to endometrial cancer

A

a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia

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30
Q

172- Ovarian granulosa cell tumor is:

a. Benign tumors.
b. Presented as cyst.
c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)
d. Functional and produce HCG.

A

c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)

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31
Q

173- What is true about phyllodes tumor:

a. Large monophasic tumor.
b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.
c. Most tumors are malignant
d. The high number of mitosis in epithelial component indicate malignancy in this tumor.

A

b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.

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32
Q

174- What is true about the prognostic factors of breast carcinoma:

a. ER positive tumors have worse prognosis than ER negative negative tumors.
b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.
c. Tubular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma are of bad prognosis
d. Breast carcinoma during pregnancy or lactation is less aggressive

A

b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.

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33
Q

175- Paget’s disease of the breast:

a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen.
b. Show skin changes including both peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma.

A

c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm

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34
Q

176- Changes of fibrocystic disease of the breast is not associated with increased risk of carcinoma except:

a. Fibrosis.
b. Cyst formation.
c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.
d. Mild ductal hyperplasia.

A

c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.

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35
Q

177- Gynecomastia is:

a. Pathological condition
b. Always unilateral.
c. May be caused by excess estrogen.
d. It is a precancerous lesion.

A

c. May be caused by excess estrogen.

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36
Q

178- The following is not a cause of bleeding per nipple:

a. Duct papilloma.
b. Duct carcinoma.
c. Mammary hyperplasia.
d. Fat necrosis.

A

d. Fat necrosis.

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37
Q

179- Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most likely to be associated with:

a) Clear cell tumor of the kidney
b) Cystic tumor of the gallbladder
c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d) Serous tumor of the ovary.

A

c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary

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38
Q

180- Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) is:

a) A benign germ cell tumor of young women.
b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
c) Composed of trophoblast and cytotrophoblasts
d) Associated with estrogen production

A

b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).

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39
Q

181- Metastatic ovarian tumors are:

a) Rare ovarian tumors
b) Called Krukenberg tumors
c) Unilateral tumors composed of mucin secreting cells. kcera
d) The most common sources of ovarian metastases are liver and brain

A

b) Called Krukenberg tumors

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40
Q

182- Multiple small mucinous cysts of the endocervix that result from blockage of endocervical glands by overlying squamous metaplastic epithelium are called:

a) Bartholin’s cysts
b) Chocolate cysts
c) Follicular cysts
d) Nabothian cysts

A

d) Nabothian cysts

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41
Q

183- Which of the following is TRUE about adult polycystic kidney?

a. Kidney shows smooth outer surface.
b. It is due to autosomal recessive anomaly.
c. The cysts are communicating with renal pelvis.
d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.

A

d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.

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42
Q

184- Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is due to:

a. Blood-borne infection.
b. Ascending infection.
c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
d. Autoimmune reaction.

A

c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.

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43
Q

185- Epithelial crescents are characteristic of:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis.
b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
c. Membranous glomerulonephritis.
d. Minimal change glomerulonephritis

A

b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

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44
Q

186- Fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes is characteristic of:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN.
b. Rapidly progressive GN.
c. Membranoproliferative GN.
d. Minimal change disease.

A

d. Minimal change disease.

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45
Q

187- Gross features of the kidneys in chronic glomerulonephritis include all EXCEPT:

a. Both kidneys are contracted.
b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.
c. Outer surface is granular.
d. Loss of differentiation between cortex and medulla.

A

b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.

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46
Q

188- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adult is:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative.
b. Minimal change disease.
c. Membranous nephropathy.
d. Rapidly progressive GN.

A

c. Membranous nephropathy.

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47
Q

189- In acute ischemic tubular necrosis:

a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.
b. The tubular necrosis is diffuse.
c. The tubules show disruption of basement membrane.
d. The distal tubules show casts.

A

a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.

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48
Q

190- Factors predisposing to pyelonephritis include all EXCEPT:

a. Urinary tract obstruction.
b. Urinary tract instrumentation.
c. Hypertension.
d. Diabetes.

A

c. Hypertension.

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49
Q

191- The following type of renal stones is multiple and spiky:

a. Oxalate stones.
b. Urate Stones.
c. Phosphate stones.
d. Cystine stones

A

a. Oxalate stones.

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50
Q

192- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinoma:

a. It is commonly affect children.
b. The cells contain mucin.
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.

A

d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.

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51
Q

193- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Cystitis cystica.
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Dysplasia.
d. Leukoplakia

A

a. Cystitis cystica.

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52
Q

194- Urothelial carcinoma in situ is

a. Precancerous lesion
b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
c. Flat invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
d. Papillary non invasive tumor

A

b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells

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53
Q

195- Chronic bladder infection with Schistosoma hematobium usually causes

a. Invasive urothelial carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Papillary urothelial carcinoma

A

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

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54
Q

196- Chronic specific orchitis includes:

a. Mumps orchitis
b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis
c. Gonococcal orchitis
d. Chlamydia infection

A

b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis

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55
Q

197- Which is true about classic seminoma?

a. It is the commonest testicular germ cell tumor in males above 60 years
b. It is a malignant tumor
c. It secretes androgens
d. It stains positive for alpha feto protein

A

b. It is a malignant tumor

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56
Q

198- Benign prostatic hyperplasia usually arises in

a. Transitional zone.
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone.
d. Anterior zone

A

a. Transitional zone.

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57
Q

199- Electron microscopy finding that is characteristic of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

a. diffuse foot processes effacement
b. segmental foot processes effacement
c. double contours of glomerular basement membrane
d. Sub-epithelial humps

A

d. Sub-epithelial humps

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58
Q

200-Which is true about minimal change disease:

a. The glomeruli show ed endothelial and mesangial proliferation
b. There is diffuse GBM deposits of C3 in immunofluorescence
c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy
d. It is one of the common causes of nephritic syndrome

A

c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy

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59
Q

201- Histologic features of chronic glomerulonephritis include:

a. Fibrosis of glomeruli
b. Thick walled blood vessels
c. Atrophy of tubules
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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60
Q

202- Gross features of chronic pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT:

a. the kidney is asymmetrically contracted
b. renal capsule strips easily
c. dilated calyces with purulent lining
d. non-demarcated corticomedullary differentiation

A

b. renal capsule strips easily

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61
Q

203-The following type of renal stone commonly cause hematuria:

a. Cysteine stone
b. Phosphate stone
c. Oxalate stone
d. Urate stone

A

c. Oxalate stone

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62
Q

204- All are TRUE about renal cell carcinoma EXCEPT :

a. Commonly affects renal poles
b. Usually multiple
c. Have a characteristic golden-yellow color in cut sections
d. Commonly has areas of hemorrhage and necrosis

A

b. Usually multiple

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63
Q

205- Wilm’s tumor is characterized by:

a. Usually affects adults
b. Presents with a small mass
c. Formed of 3 histologic components
d. Does not spread to para-aortic lymph nodes

A

c. Formed of 3 histologic components

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64
Q

206- Acute renal failure may occur in all the following EXCEPT:

a. Crescentic glomerulonephrilis.
b. acute tubular necrosis
c. poly cystic kidney disease.
d. complete obstruction of urinary Flow

A

c. poly cystic kidney disease.

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65
Q

207- Accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis:

a. Hydrocele.
b. Testicular torsion
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

A

a. Hydrocele

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66
Q

208- Which of the following statements concerning the benign prostatic hyperplasia is TRUE?

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The hyperplastic glands lined by single cell layer.

A

b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.

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67
Q

209- Which of the following statements concerning the prostatic cancer is TRUE?

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The glands lined by double cell layer.

A

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.

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68
Q

210- All the following statements are True regarding the congenital diverticula of urinary bladder EXCEPT:

a. it is usually single
b. Formed of all layers of urinary bladder.
c. Formed only of mucosa.
d. Urinary tract obstruction is causative factor.

A

c. Formed only of mucosa.

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69
Q

211- Which of the following statements concerning the papillary urothelial tumors of urinary bladder is it TRUE?

a. 20% of bladder cancer
b. Developed on top of squamous metaplasia
c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor
d. arise from urachal remnants

A

c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor

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70
Q

212- All the Following statements are True regarding the cryptorchidism EXCEPT:

a. failure of testicular descent to scrotum.
b. The exact cause unknown.
c. Sterility if bilateral.
d. No risk for testicular cancer

A

d. No risk for testicular cancer

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71
Q

213- Tuberculous epididymitis results from:

a. Direct spread.
b. Primary infection
c. Lymphatic spread.
d. Blood spread

A

d. Blood spread

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72
Q

219- The following disease is diagnosed only by electron microscopy:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN
b. Rapidly progressive GN
c. Membranoproliferative GN
d. Minimal change GN

A

d. Minimal change GN

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73
Q

220- Which is TRUE about acute pyelonephritis?

a. Mostly caused by gram-positive bacilli (E. coli)
b. Ascending infection is the most common cause
c. Hematogenous infection is the most common cause
d. May be complicated by hydronephrosis

A

b. Ascending infection is the most common cause

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74
Q

221- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinomak?

a. It is commonly affect children
b. The cells contain mucin
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein

A

d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein

75
Q

222- which is true about an nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumour)?

a. in Most of the cases (90%) in is bilateral
b. It has greyish yellow cut section
c. The tumour cells are clear and arranged in solid sheets
d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone

A

d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone

76
Q

223- Which of the following is non germ cell tumor?

a. Seminoma.
b. teratoma
c. Sertoli cell tumor.
d. Yolk sac tumor

A

c. Sertoli cell tumor.

77
Q

224- Prostatic hyperplasia is characterized by?

a. It occurs in young age
b. It affects the peripheral prostate tissue
c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma
d. The prostate size is not affected

A

c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma

78
Q

225- The following tumor characierized by uniform polyhedron clear cells with large central nuclei with prominent nucleolus and the stroma rich in lymphocytes:

a. Teratoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma
c. Classic Seminoma.
d. Yolk sac

A

c. Classic Seminoma.

79
Q

226- Gleason grading system is used for grading of.

a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Carcinoma of the prostate
c. Carcinoma of urinary bladder
d. Carcinoma of the prostatic urethra

A

b. Carcinoma of the prostate

80
Q

227- The following condition is a risk factor of Testicular cancer:

a. Bilharzial orchitis
b. Mumps orchitis
c. Syphilitic orchitis
d. Cryptorchidism

A

d. Cryptorchidism

81
Q

228- What is the most common risk actor contributing to the development of urothelial carcinoma?

a. HPV infection
b. Cyclophosphamide treatment
c. Irradiation
d. Schistosoma haematobium

A

d. Schistosoma haematobium

82
Q

229- The majority of urinary bladder carcinomas are:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Solid (non-papillary) urothelial carcinoma
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma

83
Q

230- The following are complications of chronic cystitis:

a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Painless hematuria

A

c. Pyelonephritis

84
Q

231- Which of the following features is FALSE regarding nephritic syndrome?

a- Gross hematuria
b- Hypertension
c- Heavy proteinuria
d- Oliguria

A

c- Heavy proteinuria

85
Q

232- Which of the following is non-germ cell tumor

a- Leydig cell tumor
c- Yolk sac tumor
b- Choriocarcinoma
d- Teratoma

A

a- Leydig cell tumor

86
Q

233- Infantile polycystic kidney is characterized by:

a- Is relatively common affecting about 1: 1000
b- Associated with congenital cystic liver
c- Autosomal recessive
d- Usually affects one kidney

A

c- Autosomal recessive

87
Q

234- Which of the following statements is FALSE as regards ischemic acute tubular necrosis

a- Short lengths of the tubules are affected
b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse
c- Distal tubules show casts
d- Tubular cells are flattened and vacuolated

A

b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse

88
Q

235- Nephrotic syndrome characterized by all EXCEPT:

a. Heavy proteinuria
b. Edema
c. Hyperlipidemia.
d. Hematuria.

A

d. Hematuria.

89
Q

236- Accumulation of blood in the tunica vaginalis is called:

a. Hydrocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Hematocele

A
90
Q

237- Prostatic adenocarcinoma usually arises in:

a. Transitional zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone
d. Anterior zone

A

b. Peripheral zone

91
Q

238- Prostatic granulomas may be due to:

a. E.Coli
b. Gonococci
c. Tuberculosis bacilli
d. Staphylococci

A

c. Tuberculosis bacilli

92
Q

239- Corpora Amylacea:

a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Inspissated intratesticular luminal secretions
c. Hallmark of prostatic carcinoma
d. May cause hematuria

A

a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia

93
Q

240- Which is true about Gleason grading system

a. Based on degree of cytological atypia
b. Is used for urothelial carcinoma grading
c. Is graded from 1 to 5
d. Usually one pattern is present

A

c. Is graded from 1 to 5

94
Q

241- Primary Varicocele:

a. More common on the right side
b. May be due to testicular vein obstruction
c. May affect the fertility
d. A disease of elderly

A

c. May affect the fertility

95
Q

242- Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?

a. Proteinuria
b. Lipiduria
c. Hematuria
d. hypoalbuminemia

A

c. Hematuria

96
Q

243- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is

a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
b. Goodpasture syndrome
c. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
d. Ig A nephropathy

A

a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis

97
Q

244- Causes of acute renal failure include

a. Amyloidosis
b. Polycystic kidney
c. Calculous anuria
d. Diabetes mellitus

A

c. Calculous anuria

98
Q

245- The vacuolated cytoplasm in cells of hypernephroma is due to

a. Lipids
b. Water
c. Glycogen
d. Mucin

A

a. Lipids

99
Q

246- Which statement is true about renal stones?

a. Most affected patients are females
b. More common in children
c. May be hereditary
d. Stones are bilateral in 80% of cases

A

c. May be hereditary

100
Q

247- Acute cystitis shows all the following except

a. Contracted bladder
b. Mucosal hyperemia
c. Exudate
d. Neutrophilic infiltrate

A

a. Contracted bladder

101
Q

248- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT

a. Leukoplakia
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Squamous metaplasia
d. Urothelial carcinoma

A

d. Urothelial carcinoma

102
Q

249- Serum level of alpha fetoprotein is elevated in

a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Seminoma
d. Sertoli cell tumor

A

b. Yolk sac tumor

103
Q

250- The commonest testicular germ cell tumor in young males is

a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Seminoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Teratoma

A

b. Seminoma

104
Q

251- Increased alkalinity of urine leads to which of the following renal stones?

a. Cysteine
b. Triple phosphate stones
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid

A

b. Triple phosphate stones

105
Q

252- Which statement is true about nephroblastoma?

a. Most cases are bilateral
b. Forms large well circumscribed mass
c. Characterized by yellow grey cut section
d. Most common primary renal tumor in adults

A

b. Forms large well circumscribed mass

106
Q

253- Lymphatic obstruction by filariasis can cause

a. Hematocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Diverticulitis

A

c. Chylocele

107
Q

254- Microscopic picture of ulcerative colitis in its active phase shows all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Mucosal inflammation,
b. Crypt abscesses
c. Granulomas.
d. Loss of goblet cells.

A

c. Granulomas.

108
Q

255- Which of the following is the diagnosis of a gastric ulcer described as single, small, round, with terraced edges, smooth floor, & microscopically showing necrotic tissue with polymorphs, granulation tissue & fibrosis:

a. Malignant ulcer
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Tuberculous ulcer
d. GIST

A

b. Peptic ulcer

109
Q

256- Leukoplakia of the tongue is:

a. An ulcer.
b. An adenocarcinoma.
c. A squamous cell carcinoma
d. A precancerous lesion.

A

d. A precancerous lesion.

110
Q

257- The following is true about amebic dysentery:

a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between
b. It is caused by Shigella bacilli
c. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d. There is no blood in stools.

A

a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between

111
Q

258- Celiac disease is:

a. Congenital absence of the ganglionic cells in the myenteric plexus of the intestine at the
b. recto-sigmoid junction causing constipation
c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption
d. Malabsorption due to chronic intestinal bacterial infection Characterized by partial villous atrophy of small intestine remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct forming a Tubular blind pouch on antimesenteric border of small intestine

A

c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption

112
Q

259- The following is true about carcinoma of the stomach:

a. H pylori is a predisposing factor.
b. It is classified as intestinal type adenocarcinoma & diffuse type carcinoma
c. It is classified as early or advanced
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

113
Q

260- Liver steatosis is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

A

c. Hepatitis C.

114
Q

261- The following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma:

a. It is more common in females
b. It is an adenocarcinoma
c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.
d. It shows marked (fibrosis).

A

c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.

115
Q

262- In liver cirrhosis, liver decreases in size EXCEPT in:

a. Post-hepatitic cirrhosis.
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Post-necrotic cirrhosis.
d. Alcoholic cirrhosis.

A

b. Primary biliary cirrhosis

116
Q

263- All the following is true about acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis EXCEPT:

a. Causes include Gall stone obstructing the ampulla of Vater
b. Causes include alcohol abuse.
c. Serum amylase is decreased
d. Complications include pancreatic pseudocyst formation.

A

c. Serum amylase is decreased

117
Q

264- Which of the following is true about typical carcinoid tumor?

a. Microscopically, tumor cells have signet ring appearance
b. It is neuroendocrine in origin
c. High incidence of distant metastasis
d. Stomach is the most common site

A

b. It is neuroendocrine in origin

118
Q

265- Which of the following is the most common salivary gland tumor?

a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Warthin tumor
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

b. Pleomorphic adenoma

119
Q

266- Gross picture of Crohn’s disease shows:

a. Fissuring ulcers.
b. Cobble stone appearance.
c. Stricture.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

120
Q

267- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:

a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma.
b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
c. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d. Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium,

A

b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

121
Q

268- Esophageal atresia is defined as:

a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus.
b. Loss of contractility and failure of relaxation of LES
c. Protrusion of the upper part of the stomach into the thorax via the diaphragmatic orifice.
d. Dilated congested tortuous submucosal veins in the lower esophagus, due to portal hypertension.

A

a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus

122
Q

269- The following type of gall stones are usually multiple, 1-1.5 cm in diameter, soft-firm, with faceted surfaces, their cut section is laminated & radiopaque on X-ray:

a. Cholesterol
b. Pigment
c. Mixed
d. Calcium carbonate

A

c. Mixed

123
Q

270- Achalasia of the esophagus means:

a. An outpouching of the wall of the esophagus
b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
c. Failure of embryological canalisation of the esophagus.
d. Intestinal metaplasia in the lower end of the esophagus

A

b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.

124
Q

271- Pleomorphic adenoma is characterized by the following:

a. It is a malignant tumor of salivary glands
b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision
c. Its commonest site is the submandibular gland
d. It is also called adenolymphoma

A

b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision

125
Q

272- H pylori infection is a risk factor for the following:

a. Chronic gastritis.
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Gastric lymphoma
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

126
Q

273- All of the following is true about diffuse gastric carcinoma EXCEPT:

a. The stomach has a leather bottle appearance
b. It has an infiltrative growth pattern.
c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass
d. It is formed of dyscohesive signet ring cells.

A

c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass

127
Q

274- Congenital absence of ganglionic cells in rectosigmoid junction occurs in:

a. Carcinoid syndrome
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis.
c. Hirschsprung’s disease.
d. Zollinger Ellison syndrome.

A

c. Hirschsprung’s disease.

128
Q

275- Volvulus occurs most often in:

a. Sigmoid colon.
b. Transverse colon.
c. Ascending colon
d. Descending colon

A

a. Sigmoid colon.

129
Q

276- Flask-shaped colonic ulcer is pathognomonic in:

a. Typhoid fever
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Amoebic dysentery
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

c. Amoebic dysentery

130
Q

277- Ulcerative colitis is characterized grossly by presence of:

a. Skip lesions
b. Serpentine ulcers
c. Pseudopolyps.
d. Deep fissures and fistula tracts.

A

c. Pseudopolyps.

131
Q

278- Which of the following colonic polyps is precancerous?

a. Juvenile polyp.
b. Adenomatous polyp
c. Hyperplastic polyp
d. Bilharzial polyp

A

b. Adenomatous polyp

132
Q

279- Which of the following hepatitis viruses may predispose to fulminant hepatitis during pregnancy?

a. HBV.
b. HCV.
c. HDV.
d. HEV

A

d. HEV

133
Q

280- Regarding liver cirrhosis, all of the following is true EXCEPT:

a. The color of the liver is yellow in nutritional cirrhosis
b. The liver is formed of regenerating nodules surrounded by fibrous septae.
c. The size of the liver is always increased
d. In Primary biliary cirhosis serum antimitochondrial antibodies are detected.

A

c. The size of the liver is always increased

134
Q

281- Microscopic picture of chronic viral hepatitis shows:

a. Inflammation.
b. Necrosis
c. Fibrosis
d. All of the above

A
135
Q

282- Hepatic steatosis is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

A

d. Hepatitis E.

136
Q

283- 40 years old lady suffering from obesity presents with right hypochondrial pain.US examination reveal multiple gall bladder stones. Which type of stones is most commonly seen:

a. Cholesterol stones
b. Pigment stones
c. Mixed stones
d. Calcium carbonate stones

A

a. Cholesterol stones

137
Q

284- Acute pancreatitis is characterized by the following:

a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes
b. Serum amylase & lipase are decreased
c. It results in hypercalcemia
d. Death always occurs.

A

a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes

138
Q

285- Councilman bodies are found:

a- Wilson’s disease
b- Autoimmune hepatitis.
c- Acute viral hepatitis.
d- Alcoholic hepatitis.

A

c- Acute viral hepatitis.

139
Q

286- Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of squamous carcinoma of the tongue:

a- Leukoplakia
b-Tobacco chewing.
c- Human papilloma virus HPV 16 & 18.
d- Epstein barr virus infection

A

d- Epstein barr virus infection

140
Q

287- Pleomorphic Adenoma of salivary glands is

a- Locally malignant tumor.
b- Formed of mixture of epithelial and myoepithelial cells.
c- Completely capsulated
d- May undergo malignant transformation

A

d- May undergo malignant transformation

141
Q

288- The nature of lesion in Barrett’s oesophagus is:

a- Congenital anomaly.
b- Inflammatory disease
c- Metaplastic process
d- Neoplastic lesion

A

c- Metaplastic process

142
Q

289- The most common site for peptic ulcers is:

a- Stomach.
b- 1st part of the duodenum
c- Distal part of duodenum.
d- Lower esophagus

A

b- 1st part of the duodenum

143
Q

290- Signet ring carcinoma of the stomach:

a- Characterized by excess extracellular mucin.
b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.
c- Is intestinal type adenocarcinoma of the stomach,
d- Has definite precursor lesion.

A

b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.

144
Q

291- Ulcerated peyer’s patches are seen in the following disease:

a- Amoebiasis
b- Shigellosis.
c- Typhoid fever.
d- Bilharziasis.

A

c- Typhoid fever.

145
Q

292- Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is:

a- Neoplastic polyposis syndrome
b- Doesn’t associated extraintestinal manifestations
c- Associated with decreased risk of several malignancies
d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome

A

d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome

146
Q

293- Which of the following is a cause of Melena:

a- Colonic polyps.
b- Piles (hemorrhoids)
c- Peptic ulcers,
d- Ankylostomiasis.

A

c- Peptic ulcers,

147
Q

294-The following hepatotropic virus is a DNA virus:

a- HAV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- HEV

A

b- HBV

148
Q

295- Primary billiary cirrhosis has the following features EXCEPT:

a- Serum anti-mitochondrial antibodies are detected In 95% of cases.
b- Micronodular cirrhosis
c- The condition is more common in men.
d- The disease has autoimmune origin.

A

c- The condition is more common in men.

149
Q

296- Risk factors implicated in the etiology of cholesterol gallstones include the following EXCEPT:

a- Hypercholesterolemia
b- Obesity.
c. Haemolytic anaemia.
d- Diabetes.

A

c. Haemolytic anaemia.

150
Q

297- One of the following is true for classic hepatocellular carcinoma:

a-Found in young
b- Not preceded by cirrhosis
c- The most common primary liver malignancy
d- Good prognosis than fibrolamellar HCC

A

c- The most common primary liver malignancy

151
Q

298- All are true about acute pancreatitis EXCEPT:

a- An acute medical emergency.
b- Marked elevation of serum amylase.
c- Death due to shock.
d- Hypercalcemia.

A

d- Hypercalcemia.

152
Q

299- Majority of pancreatic cancers arise in:

a- The body of the gland.
b- The head of the gland.
c- The tail of the gland.
d-All of the above.

A

b- The head of the gland.

153
Q

300- The following is NOT a predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma

a- Aflatoxin.
b- Hepatitis C virus infection,
c- Hepatitis B virus infection.
d- Smoking.

A

d- Smoking.

154
Q

301- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:

a- The ileum.
b- The duodenum.
c- The jejunum.
d- ‘The caecum.

A

b- The duodenum.

155
Q

302- The following is true about bacillary dysentery:

a- The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
b- It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d- There is no blood in stools.

A

c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation

156
Q

303- Juvenile polyp of the colon is:

a- A hamartomatous polyp,
b- A bilharzial polyp.
c- A carcinoma
d- An adenoma.

A

a- A hamartomatous polyp

157
Q

304- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:

a- It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),
c- Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d- Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium.

A

b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),

158
Q

305- Causes of hematemesis include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Esophageal varices
b- Peptic ulcer disease
c- Carcinoma of the colon.
d- Gastric tumors

A

c- Carcinoma of the colon.

159
Q

306- The following is true about carcinoma of the tongue:

a- Leukoplakia is a predisposing factor.
b- Commonest site is anterior 2/3 of the tongue
c- It is a squamous cell carcinoma.
d-All of the above

A

d-All of the above

160
Q

307- Ground glass appearance of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:

a- Hepatitis A.
b- Hepatitis B.
c- Hepatitis C.
d- Hepatitis E.

A

b- Hepatitis B.

161
Q

308- The principal cell type involved in scar deposition in the liver is:

a- Hepatic sinusoidal endothelial cells.
b- Hepatic stellate cells,
c- Kupffer cells.
d- Hepatocytes

A

b- Hepatic stellate cells,

162
Q

309- All the following is true about Cholangiocarcinoma EXCEPT

a. It is more common in females
b. It forms single or multiple masses grossly
c. It shows bile secretion.
d. It is an adenocarcinoma.

A

c. It shows bile secretion.

163
Q

310- Ulcerative colitis:

a. It is an autoimmune reaction resulting firom eating gluten
b. Is characterized by inflammation of all layers of the colon
c. Affects the ileum and colon
d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea

A

d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea

164
Q

311- The following is true about Amebic dysentery:

a. It is caused by Shigella organism
b. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
d. There is no blood in stools.

A

c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,

165
Q

312- The part of the colon which is more prone to volvulus is:

a. Cecum
b. Ascending colon.
c. Descending colon
d. Sigmoid

A

d. Sigmoid

166
Q

313- The following is true about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD):

a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b. It is the protrusion of part of the stomach into the thorax.
c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus
d. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus

A

c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus

167
Q

314- Causes of Melena include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Esophageal varices
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Carcinoma of the colon
d. Gastric tumors

A

c. Carcinoma of the colon

168
Q

315- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:

a. The ileum.
b. The duodenum
c. The jejunum
d. The caecum

A

b. The duodenum

169
Q

316- The following is true about salivary glands tumors:

a. Up to 80% occur in the parotids
b. Benign tumors are more common than malignant ones.
c. Pleomorphic adenoma is the commonest.
d. All ofthe above.

A

d. All ofthe above.

170
Q

317- Steatosis of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

A

c. Hepatitis C.

171
Q

318- The following is true about gall stones:

a. Cholesterol stones are dark blackish
b. Pigment stones are the commonest type
c. Mixed stones are always single.
d. They predispose to cholecystitis

A

d. They predispose to cholecystitis

172
Q

319- All the following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT:

a. It is more common in females
b. The malignant cells are arranged in trabeculae that are one cell thick.
c. It shows bile secretion
d. It is an adenocarcinoma arising from bile ducts.

A

c. It shows bile secretion

173
Q

320- Which of the following is characterized microscopically by intestinal metaplasia?

a- Barrett’s esophagus
b- Acute esophagitis
c- Esophageal diverticulum
d- Achalasia

A

a- Barrett’s esophagus

174
Q

321- The most common cause of chronic gastritis is:

a- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
b- Helicobacter pylori infection
c- Chronic stress
d- Autoantibodies against parietal cells

A

b- Helicobacter pylori infection

175
Q

322- Complications of duodenal peptic ulcer do NOT include:

a- Bleeding
b- Perforation
c- Fibrosis and stricture
d- Malignant transformation

A

d- Malignant transformation

176
Q

323- Crohn’s disease is characterized by:

a- Pseudomembranous colitis
b- Rectal ulcers and pseudopolyps
c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers
d- Flask shaped ulcers in colonic mucosa

A

c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers

177
Q

324- Which of the following is a predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue?

a-HPV6 & 11
b- Leukoplakia
c- Primary syphilis
d- HIV

A

b- Leukoplakia

178
Q

325- Which of the following is considered a hamartomatous intestinal polyp?

a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp
b- Tubular adenoma
c- Bilharzial polyp
d- Villous adenoma

A

a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp

179
Q

326- Acute viral hepatitis is:

a. Characterized by dense portal fibrosis
b. Commonly caused by HAV
c. Characterized by shrunken liver
d. Usually associated with interface hepatitis

A

b. Commonly caused by HAV

180
Q

327- Which of the following is a metabolic cause of liver cirrhosis?

a- Budd-Chiari syndrome
b- Laennec’s cirrhosis
c- Wilson’s disease
d- Cryptogenic cirrhosis

A

c- Wilson’s disease

181
Q

328- The most common site of pancreatic carcinoma is:

a- Head of pancreas
b- Pancreatic tail
c- Main pancreatic duct
d- Body of the pancreas

A

a- Head of pancreas

182
Q

329- Acute allergic rhinitis, is an immune reaction mediated by:

a. IgG.
b. IgE.
c. Ig M.
d. None of the above

A

b. IgE.

183
Q

330- The following is a a type type of dilatation in bronchiectasis:

a. Saccular
b. Fusiform
c. Cylindrical
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

184
Q

331- The following are predisposing factors for lung cancer; Except:

a. Cigarette smoking
b. Air pollution
c. Pneumoconiosis.
d. Barrett’s disease.

A

d. Barrett’s disease.

PAT 310 (13 decks)

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