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PAT 310 > mcq oh > Flashcards

mcq oh Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is used as basal insulin?

a. Insulin aspart
b. Insulin lispro
c. Insulin glargine
d. Insulin glulisine

A

c. Insulin glargine

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following metabolic processes is suppressed by insulin?

a. Glycogenesis
b. Lipogcnesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

A

d. Gluconeogenesis

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3
Q
  1. In January, a child with Type 1 diabetes mellitus has been convulsing during school time. He was administered his insulin injection as his teacher thought he has missed it. He was sweating, irritable, and pale. The child’s condition worsened. Do you think his teacher was right?

a. Yes, this child is having a hyperglycemic episode.
b. No, the teacher should have given him sweets to eat.
c. Yes, but potassium supplements should be added to insulin.
d. No, the teacher should have given him intramuscular glucagon.

A

b. No, the teacher should have given him sweets to eat.

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4
Q
  1. In a patient with chronic hepatitis B and type 2 diabetes mellitus, lactic acidosis can occur secondary to the administration of which of the following antidiabetics?

a. Metformin
b. Insulin
c. Sulfonylurea
d. Exenatide

A

a. Metformin

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following medications can reduce the effect of oral antidiabetic medications?

a. Insulin sensitizers
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Glucocorticoid antagonists
d. Antithyroid medications

A

b. Oral contraceptives

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of iodides?

a. Inhibition of conversion of iodide to iodine
b. Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones
c. Blocking the conversion of T4 to T3
d. Destruction of thyroid gland cells by radioactivity

A

b. Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following would be a suitable treatment of hyperthyroidism for a 55 years old patient who is unfit for surgery and who failed to be controlled with carbimazole?

a. Propylthiouracil
b. Radioactive iodine
c. Propranolol
d. Thyrotropin

A

b. Radioactive iodine

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8
Q
  1. Chronic administration of corticosteroids (iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome) results in:

a. Opportunistic infection
b. Hyperkalaemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Anemia

A

a. Opportunistic infection

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following characterizes radioactive iodine (I 131)?

a. The onset of action is delayed for 1-2 months.
b. It is useful in the treatment of hypothyroidism.
c. It can be used safely in patients at young age.
d. It can be used safely during pregnancy.

A

a. The onset of action is delayed for 1-2 months

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is a therapeutic indication of glucocorticoids?

a. Anaphylactic shock
b. Cardiogenic edema
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Myopathy

A

a. Anaphylactic shock

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11
Q
  1. A patient on long-term glucocorticoids should take a diet that is low in

a. Protein.
b. Sodium.
c. Calcium.
d. Potassium.

A

b. Sodium.

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12
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a side effect of cortisol?

a. Cataract
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Bronchial asthma

A

a. Cataract

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13
Q
  1. Progesterone is added to estrogen in postmenopausal hormonal therapy to decrease incidence of:

a. Vaginal atrophy
b. Endometrial carcinoma
c. Hot flushes
d. Weight gain

A

b. Endometrial carcinoma

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14
Q
  1. Synthetic progestin preparations can produce the following side effect:

a. Thromboembolic events
b. Androgenic effects
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperglycemia

A

b. Androgenic effects

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15
Q
  1. The estrogen receptor modulator, raloxifene is specially know to be used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

a. Breast cancer
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Infertility
d. Osteoporosis

A

d. Osteoporosis

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16
Q
  1. The release of the gonadotropins follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can be stimulated by:

a. Continuous administration of leuprolide
b. Pulsatile administration of a Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone analogue
c. Intermittent administration of Luteinizing Hormone
d. Subcutaneous progestrogen pill implantation

A

b. Pulsatile administration of a Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone analogue

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17
Q
  1. Aromatase Inhibitors are used in:

a. Contraception
b. Induction of ovulation
C. Postmenopausal hot flushes
d. Osteoporosis

A

b. Induction of ovulation

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18
Q
  1. Selective estrogen receptor modulators may be used in the treatment of osteoporosis instead of oral estrogen to avoid:

a. Esophageal ulcer
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Renal failure
d. Uterine cancer

A

d. Uterine cancer

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19
Q
  1. Bisphosphonates are contraindicated with:

a. Renal impairment
b. Thyroid impairment
c. Liver impairment
d. Bleeding tendency

A

a. Renal impairment

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20
Q
  1. Adverse effects of benzodiazepines include:

a. Convulsions
b. Insomnia
c. Migraine
d. Addiction

A

d. Addiction

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21
Q
  1. One of the following Is a drug that Is useful to initiate sleep:

a- Temazepam
b- Triazolam
c- Diazepam
d- Flurazepam

A

b- Triazolam

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

a. Meperidine
b. Buprenorphine
c. Naloxone
d. Methadone

A

c. Naloxone

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23
Q
  1. Drug used orally to maintain the Opiate-free state of treated addict:

a. Naltrexone
b. Naloxone
c. Diphenoxylate.
d. Loperamide

A

a. Naltrexone

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24
Q
  1. Treatment of tramadol toxicity is:

a. Dapoxetine
b. Ondansetron
c. Diphenoxylate.
d. Loperamide

A

b. Ondansetron

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25
Q
  1. It is recommended to add atropine to morphine when used in:

a. Acute left ventricular failure.
b. Renal colic.
c. Cancer pain.
d. Treatment of morphine addiction.

A

b. Renal colic.

26
Q
  1. Morphine can cause which of the following actions on CVS:

a. Hypotension and bradycardia
b. Hypotension and tachycardia
c. Hypertension and bradycardia
d. Hypertension and tachycardia

A

a. Hypotension and bradycardia

27
Q
  1. NSAID-induced peptic ulcer can be treated by:

a. Zileuton
b. Montelukast
c. Paracetamol
d. Misoprostol

A

d. Misoprostol

28
Q
  1. From advantages of use of diclofenac as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAlDs):

a. It concentrated in synovial fluid 4 more than plasma
b. It is safe on gastric mucosa
c. It increases both Prostaglandins & Leukotrienes
d. It can be used in safely hepatic patient

A

a. It concentrated in synovial fluid 4 more than plasma

29
Q
  1. Paracetamol can produce the following side effect as overdose toxicity sign:

a. Gastric irritation
b. Bronchospasm
c. Bleeding tendency
d. Hepatotoxicity

A

d. Hepatotoxicity

30
Q
  1. An antimalarial drug inhibits activation of T-lymphocytes & Stabilizes the lysosomes can be used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:

a. Methotrexate
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Chloroquine
d. Rituximab

A

c. Chloroquine

31
Q
  1. ‘Cheese reaction’ in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as:

a. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock
b. Hypertensive crisis
c. Acute manic episode
d. Convulsions

A

b. Hypertensive crisis

32
Q
  1. A 34-year-old male patient who was prescribed citalopram for depression has decided he wants to stop taking the drug. When questioned, he said that it was affecting his sexual performance. You ascertain that he is also trying to overcome his dependency on tobacco products. If you decide to reinstitute drug therapy in this patient, the best choice would be….

a. Amitriptyline
b. Bupropion
c. Fluoxetine
d. Imipramine

A

b. Bupropion

33
Q
  1. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause vasospasm and we cannot use it with patient has Raynaud’s disease?

a. Bromocriptine
b. Amantadine
c. Selegiline
d. Anticholinergics

A

a. Bromocriptine

34
Q
  1. Carbidopa is useful in the management of Parkinson’s disease because it is an:

a. Effective D2 agonist
b. Effective D2 antagonist
c. Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
d. Effective competitor at the GABA receptor

A

c. Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor

35
Q
  1. Tardive dyskinesia is related to: -

a. Downregulation of dopamine D2 receptors.
b. Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics.
c. Super-sensitivity to dopamine D2 receptors blockade.
d. Allergic reaction to typical antipsychotics

A

b. Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics.

36
Q
  1. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs might be associated with Steven-Johnson syndrome?

a. Clonazepam
b. Ethosuximidc
c. Lamotrigine
d. Gabapentin

A

c. Lamotrigine

37
Q
  1. Which of the following anesthetic agent Increase intracranial and intraocular pressure:

a. Propofol
b. Thiopentone
c. Midazolam
d. Ketamine

A

d. Ketamine

38
Q
  1. The following is the correct mechanism of action of methylxanthines

a. Inhibits tyrosine kinase enzyme
b. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase enzyme IV
c. Activates adenosine receptors
d. Activates muscarinic receptors

A

b. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase enzyme IV

39
Q
  1. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is effective only against TB bacilli?

a. Rifampicin
b. Amikacin
c. Isoniazid
d. Levofloxacin

A

c. Isoniazid

40
Q
  1. A 66 years old male patient known to be diabetic and hypertensive admitted to the hospital with bronchopneumonia, culture revealed Pseudomonas, Select the most appropriate b-lactam antimicrobials with antipseudomonal activity.

a. Cefoxitin
b. Cefepime
c. Cefotaxime
d. Amoxicillin

A

b. Cefepime

41
Q
  1. The first-generation cephalosporins differ from the third-generation cephalosporins in that they are:

a. More active against gram positive cocci
b. More active against gram negative bacilli
c. Better to penetrate through the blood brain barrier.
d. More active against pseudomonas

A

a. More active against gram positive cocci

42
Q
  1. Typical examples of time-dependent antibiotics are…

a. Aminoglycosides
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Macrolides
d. Penicillins

A

d. Penicillins

43
Q
  1. Red man syndrome Is a side effect of rapid Injection of the following drug

a. Vancomycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Metronidazole
d. Nafcillin

A

a. Vancomycin

44
Q
  1. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects:

a. Pancytopenia
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
d. Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa

A

c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

45
Q
  1. Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits protein synthesis through binding to 50 ribosomal subunits?

a. Gentamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Amoxicillin

A

b. Erythromycin

46
Q
  1. Which of the following cell membrane/cell wall-inhibitors can be given orally or IV In the treatment of prostatitis and UTI?

a. Daptomycin
b. Fosfomycin
c. Bacitracin
d. Cycloserine

A

b. Fosfomycin

47
Q
  1. Which of the following types of bacteria will NOT be affected by aminoglycosides?

a. Anaerobes
b. Gram negatives
c. Gram positives
d. TB bacilli

A

a. Anaerobes

48
Q
  1. Which of the following macrolide has the advantages of once daily dosing and rare drug interactions?

a. Azithromycin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Fidaxomicin

A

a. Azithromycin

49
Q
  1. Which of the following quinolone antibiotics is not fluorinated that commonly used as urinary antiseptic:

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Levofloxacin
c. Nalidixic acid
d. Moxifloxacin

A

c. Nalidixic acid

50
Q
  1. If quinolones arc accompanied with NS AID It will produce:

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Thromboembolism
c. Photosensitivity
d. Seizures

A

d. Seizures

51
Q
  1. A male patient was recently diagnosed to have TB for which several drugs were prescribed In combination. After administration of the drugs, he noticed red discoloration of his urine, which made him afraid and sought medical advice. The doctor reassured him that this Is just an adverse effect of one of anti-tuberculous drugs. Which of these anti-tuberculous drugs is responsible for that?

a. Pyrazinamide
b. Ethambutol
c. Rifampicin
d. Streptomycin

A

c. Rifampicin

52
Q
  1. Which of the following anti tuberculous drugs produces inhibition of HME activity?

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid

A

d. Isoniazid

53
Q
  1. Combination antiviral treatment of human immune deficiency virus is characterized by which of the following?

a. Combining three or more agents so as to maximize virological suppression
b. Lamivudine-lopinavir is the commonest combination.
c. Toxicities come mainly in the form of cardiovascular side effects.
d. Treatment is started in a stepwise approach, one drug at a time

A

a. Combining three or more agents so as to maximize virological suppression

54
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with seborrheic dermatitis was prescribed shampoo containing and antifungal. Which of the following is that shampoo likely to contain?

a. Amphotericin B
b. Ketoconazole
c. Nystatin
d. Terbinafme

A

b. Ketoconazole

55
Q
  1. Development of lipid drug formulation of amphotericin B was done to achieve which of the following?

a. Better distribution to the site of infection
b. Increased spectrum of activity
c. Reduction of infusion reactions
d. Reduction of renal toxicity

A

d. Reduction of renal toxicity

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of nystatin?

a. Binds to ergosterol, causing pores in the fungal cell membrane
b. Inhibits cell wall beta glucan synthesis
c. Inhibits fungal cytochrome enzyme
d. Inhibits fungal DNA synthesis

A

a. Binds to ergosterol, causing pores in the fungal cell membrane

57
Q
  1. The immune-mediating agent approved as first-line therapy for hepatitis B virus is

a. Adefovir
b. Entecavir
c. Interferon
d. Tenofovir

A

c. Interferon

58
Q
  1. Adverse effects of primaquine include:

a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency
c. Seizures
d. Black water fever

A

b. Hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

59
Q
  1. Which of the following would be effective to treat asymptomatic ameba cyst passers?

a. Diloxanide
b. Emetine
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracycline

A

a. Diloxanide

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is a broad-spectrum anti-helminthic?

a. Albendazole
b. Levamisole
c. Mirazid
d. Niclosamide

A

a. Albendazole

PAT 310 (13 decks)

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