Pathology MCQ

Question 1

1- The following is True concerning acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

a) Commonly affects the epiphysis due to sluggish blood flow
b) Infection reaches the bone from the adjacent joint
c) A subperiosteal abscess is formed
d)The subperiosteal new bone formation is called cloaca

Answer 1

c) A subperiosteal abscess is formed

Question 2

2- Pott’s disease is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:

a) Kyphosis.
b) Cold abscess
c) Brodie’s abscess
d) Paraplegia

Answer 2

c) Brodie’s abscess

Question 3

3- The most frequent malignant neoplasms found in bone is

a) Osteosarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma.
c) Metastatic tumors
d) Chondrosarcoma

Answer 3

c) Metastatic tumors

Question 4

4- The following is locally aggressive rarely metastasizing bone tumor:

a) Osteosarcoma.
b) Osteochondroma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s tumor

Answer 4

c) Osteoclastoma

Question 5

5- Enchondromas arise in

a) Bones of hands and feet.
b) Shoulders and ribs
c) Epiphysis of long bone
d) Distal femur

Answer 5

a) Bones of hands and feet.

Question 6

6- Osteophyte (Bony overgrowths capped by cartilage develop in the following type of arthritis

a) Osteoarthritis.
b) Tuberculous arthritis
c) Gout.
d) Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 6

a) Osteoarthritis.

Question 7

7- Tophi of monosodium urate crystals are pathognomonic for:

a) Acute gouty arthritis
b) Tuberculous arthritis
c) Chronic gouty arthritis
d) Osteoarthritis

Answer 7

c) Chronic gouty arthritis

Question 8

8- The following lesions is NOT an example of granulomatous lymphadenitis

a. Tuberculosis.
b. Leprosy.
c. Measles.
d. Syphilis.

Answer 8

c. Measles.

Question 9

9- The following variant of Hodgkin’s

a. Nodular sclerosis.
b. Mixed cellularity.
c. Lymphocyte depletion.
d. Lymphocyte rich.

Answer 9

a. Nodular sclerosis.

Question 10

10- Causes splenomegaly include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Chronic venous congestion due to lent sided heart failure.
b. Portal hypertension.
c. Lymphomas.
d. Amyloidosis.

Answer 10

a. Chronic venous congestion due to lent sided heart failure.

Question 11

11- Acute hemorrhagic anemia is:

a. Normocytic normochromic anemia.
b. Microcytic hypochromic anemia.
c. Macrocytic anemia.
d. Normocytic hypochromic anemia.

Answer 11

a. Normocytic normochromic anemia.

Question 12

12- Bence jones proteinuria is seen in:

a. Polycythemia.
b. Small lymphocytic lymphoma.
c. Multiple myeloma.
d. Metastatic bone diseases.

Answer 12

c. Multiple myeloma.

Question 13

13- The most common malignant tumor of the brain is:

a. Glioblastoma multiforme.
b. Metastatic tumors.
c. Anaplastic astrocytoma.
d. Medulloblastoma.

Answer 13

b. Metastatic tumors.

Question 14

14- Traumatic damage to the middle meningeal artery causes the following type of intracranial bleeding:

a. Epidural hematoma.
b. Subdural hematoma.
c. Intracerebral hemorrhage.
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer 14

a. Epidural hematoma.

Question 15

15- in acute pyogenic meningitis, the ventricles are filled with:

a. CSF.
b. Blood.
c. Pus.
d. Fibrinous exudate

Answer 15

c. Pus.

Question 16

16- Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic for:

a. Rabies.
b. Poliomyelitis.
c. Alzheimer disease.
d. Stroke.

Answer 16

c. Alzheimer disease.

Question 17

17- One the following statements is true about stroke:

a. It is most commonly caused by subarachnoid hemorrhage.
b. A cystic cavity with a gliotic wall appears radiologically within 3 weeks after the primary insult.
c. The circle of Willis is the most frequently affected site.
d. Stroke affecting the region of basal ganglia and the thalamus has better prognosis than other sites.

Answer 17

c. The circle of Willis is the most frequently affected site.

Question 18

18- In the following type of CNS infection, CSF lumbar puncture revealing high pressure, prominent lymphocytic population, moderate protein elevation and normal glucose content are seen:

a. Acute viral meningitis.
b. Acute septic meningitis.
c. Poliomyelitis.
d. Acute brain abscess.

Answer 18

a. Acute viral meningitis.

Question 19

19- The most aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults is:

a. Anaplastic astrocytoma.
b. Meningioma.
c. Metastatic carcinoma.
d. Glioblastoma Multiforme

Answer 19

d. Glioblastoma Multiforme

Question 20

20- Acute severe trauma to the middle meningeal artery leads to:

a. Extradural hematoma.
b. Subdural hematoma.
c. Intracerebral hematoma.
d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer 20

a. Extradural hematoma

Question 21

21- The Rabies virus is transmitted from the bite of a rabid animal to the central nervous system via:

a. Arteries.
b. Veins.
c. Peripheral nerves.
d. Direct implantation.

Answer 21

c. Peripheral nerves.

Question 22

22- Alzheimer’s disease is a:

a. Congenital disease.
b. Inflammatory disease.
c. Degenerative disease.
d. Cerebrovascular disease.

Answer 22

c. Degenerative disease.

Question 23

23- Which of the following statements is true about acute pyogenic meningitis:

a. In young adult commonly caused by E. coli.
b. Leptomeninges are congested, swollen and covered by pus.
c. The SF showed lymphocytes.
d. The ventricles are dilated and full of clear fluid.

Answer 23

b. Leptomeninges are congested, swollen and covered by pus.

Question 24

24- Which is true about acoustic neuroma:

a. It’s a malignant nerve sheath tumor.
b. It’s a benign tumor of Schwann cells
c. Is schwannoma of 7th cranial nerve.
d. It produce fusiform expansion of nerve.

Answer 24

b. It’s a benign tumor of Schwann cells

Question 25

25- Gliomas include all EXCEPT:

a. Astrocytomas.
b. Ependymoma.
c. Glioblastoma.
d. Medulloblastoma

Answer 25

c. Glioblastoma.

Question 26

26- All of the following may be cause of non -communicating hydrocephalus EXCEPT:

a. Congenital
b. Post inflammatory fibrosis and adhesions
c. Tumors
d. Decrease CSF resorption.

Answer 26

d. Decrease CSF resorption.

Question 27

27- Concerning cerebral infarction, all of the following is true EXCEPT:

a. The cause may be thrombotic or embolic
b. It results from cerebral arterial occlusion
c. Thrombotic infarctions are more common than embloic.
d. The size & extent of infarctions may be modified by collateral circulation

Answer 27

c. Thrombotic infarctions are more common than embloic.

Question 28

28- Subarachnoid hemorrhage is due to:

a. Trauma of meningeal artery
b. Trauma of cortical veins
c. Rupture of cerebral saccular (berry) aneurysm
d. Sudden rise in blood pressure

Answer 28

c. Rupture of cerebral saccular (berry) aneurysm

Question 29

29- A child presented with a cerebellar cystic tumor with a mural nodule. Biopsy examination showed diffuse proliferation of glial bipolar cells. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Meningioma.
b. Diffuse astrocytoma
c. Pilocytic astrocytoma,
d. Glioblastoma

Answer 29

c. Pilocytic astrocytoma,

Question 30

30- Hypertensive patients are at high risk of:

a. Extradural hemorrhage
b. Subdural hemorrhage
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage.
d. Acute massive intracerebral hemorrhage

Answer 30

d. Acute massive intracerebral hemorrhage

Question 31

31- Medulloblastoma:

a. Is a benign tumor.
b. Is poorly sensitive to radiation
c. Is an embryonic malignant tumor.
d. Mostly affects the thalamus in children.

Answer 31

c. Is an embryonic malignant tumor.

Question 32

32- Schwannoma (Neurilemmoma):

a. Is a non-capsulated benign tumor.
b. Is one of the glial CNS tumors
c. The most common site is the 8th cranial nerve at the cerebello-pontine angle
d. Arising from both nerve sides causing a fusiform nerve expansion.

Answer 32

c. The most common site is the 8th cranial nerve at the cerebello-pontine angle

Question 33

33- Acute brain abscess on the frontal lobe is most probably due to spread of infection from:

a. Mastoiditis
b. Paranasal sinusitis
c. Acute bacterial endocarditis.
d. Acute otitis media.

Answer 33

b. Paranasal sinusitis

Question 34

34- The most common location for hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage is:

a. Cerebellum
b. Basal ganglia.
c. Cerebral cortex.
d. Brain stem

Answer 34

b. Basal ganglia.

Question 35

35- The Rabies virus is transmitted from the bite of a rabid animal to the central nervous system via:

a. Arteries.
b. Veins
c. Peripheral or cranial nerves
d. Direct implantation.

Answer 35

c. Peripheral or cranial nerves

Question 36

36- Which is true about acoustic neuroma:

a. It is a benign nerve sheath tumor.
b. It is a malignant tumor of schwann cells.
c. It is a schwannoma of 7th cranial nerve.
d. It produce fusiform expansion of nerve

Answer 36

a. It is a benign nerve sheath tumor.

Question 37

37- Psammoma bodies are characteristic of:

a. Astrocytoma
b. Meningioma
c. Ependymoma
d. Medulloblastoma

Answer 37

b. Meningioma

Question 38

38- Gliomas include all EXCEPT:

a. Astrocytomas
b. Ependymoma.
c. Glioblastoma
d. Medulloblastoma.

Answer 38

c. Glioblastoma

Question 39

39- Alzheimer’s disease is a

a. Congenital disease
b. Inflammatory disease
c. Degenerative disease
d. Cerebrovascular disease.

Answer 39

c. Degenerative disease

Question 40

40- Which of the following tumors is characterized by necrosis, vascular endothelial proliferation, cellular tumor with atypical nuclei

a. Schwannoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Glioblastoma
d. Meningioma

Answer 40

c. Glioblastoma

Question 41

41- Which of the following tumors is highly radiosensitive:

a. Meningioma
b. Ependymoma
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Medulloblastoma

Answer 41

d. Medulloblastoma

Question 42

42- Temporal lobe brain abscess is usually a complication of:

a. Suppurative otitis media.
b. Suppurative lung disease
c. Sinusitis.
d. Skull fractures

Answer 42

a. Suppurative otitis media.

Question 43

43- Gliosis means:

a. Regeneration of brain tissue.
b. Necrosis of brain tissue.
c. Fibrosis of the brain tissue
d. None of the above

Answer 43

c. Fibrosis of the brain tissue

Question 44

44- Astrocytoma is a:

a. Glial tumor
b. Neuronal tumor
c. Tumor of undifferentiated cells
d. Nerve sheath tumor

Answer 44

a. Glial tumor

Question 45

45- The following is NOT a feature of meningioma:

a. Usually occurs in adults
b. Usually a benign tumor.
c. Has a whorly cut surface.
d. It is classified into various types according to the degree of nuclear atypia

Answer 45

d. It is classified into various types according to the degree of nuclear atypia

Question 46

46- A cerebellar tumor in a child showing cystic and solid areas on CT is likely to be

a. Meningioma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Pilocytic astrocytoma

Answer 46

d. Pilocytic astrocytoma

Question 47

47- Psammoma bodies are characteristic of:

a. Astrocytoma
b. Meningioma
c. Ependymoma.
d. Medulloblastoma.

Answer 47

b. Meningioma

Question 48

48- Poliomyelitis is an infection of

a. Cerebral cortical cells
b. Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
c. Posterior horn cells of spinal cord
d. Peripheral nerves

Answer 48

b. Anterior horn cells of spinal cord

Question 49

49- Ruptured Berry aneurysm of circle of Willis would likely produce hemorrhage into the

a. Epidural space
b. Thalamus
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Cerebellum

Answer 49

c. Subarachnoid space

Question 50

50- Tumor that commonly arises in scars of abdominal surgery:

a. Lipoma
b. Fibromatosis
c. Melanoma.
d. Rhabdomyoma.

Answer 50

b. Fibromatosis

Question 51

51- Tumor formed of spindle cells characterized by herring bone
arrangement:

a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Liposarcoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Angiosarcoma.

Answer 51

a. Fibrosarcoma.

Question 52

52- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma.
b. Basal cell carcinoma.
c. Adenocarcinoma.
d. Squamous cell papilloma.

Answer 52

b. Basal cell carcinoma.

Question 53

53- Male patient 40 years old known to have HIV infection he developed lymphadenopathy and reddish skin nodules in the lower extremities biopsy of skin lesion revealed a tumor formed of a small irregular vessels with plump spindle cells and extravasated red blood cells what’s your diagnosis?

a. Capillary hemangioma.
b. Pyogenic granuloma.
c. Angiosarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.

Answer 53

d. Kaposi sarcoma.

Question 54

54- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?

a. Glomus tumor.
b. Lymphangioma.
c. Hemangioma.
d. Hemangioendothelioma.

Answer 54

b. Lymphangioma.

Question 55

55- Malignant Biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components:

a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma.
c. Synovial sarcoma
d. Kaposi sarcoma.

Answer 55

c. Synovial sarcoma

Question 56

54- Ulcerative squamous cell carcinoma of the skin has the following feature:

a. The edges are raised everted with indurated base.
b. The edges are rolled in beaded with firm base.
c. The cells appear basophilic with peripheral palisading.
d. It has an intermediate behaviour which rarely metastasizes

Answer 56

a. The edges are raised everted with indurated base.

Question 57

55- A cytologically benign lesion with an infiltarative pattern of growth is mostly:

a. Lipoma.
b. Glomus tumor.
c. Pyogenic granulomoa.
d. Fibromatosis

Answer 57

d. Fibromatosis

Question 58

56- The most common soft tissue sarcoma in children is:

a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma.

Answer 58

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 59

57- Which of the following statements is true as regards condyloma acuminatum:

a. It is a benign tumor affecting the sole of foot in children.
b. It is a benign tumor caused by HPV types 6 & 11.
c. It is a malignant tumor affecting the uterine cervix and external genetalia.
d. It starts as a nodule which rapidly ulcerates.

Answer 59

b. It is a benign tumor caused by HPV types 6 & 11.

Question 60

58- The most commonly detected vascular tumor detected in AIDS patients is:

a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Hemangioendothelioma.
c. Lymphangioma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.

Answer 60

d. Kaposi sarcoma.

Question 61

59- The following statement is true about melanoma:

a. It has better prognosis than squamous cell carcinoma.
b. It exclusively affects sun exposed skin regions.
c. The metastatic potential appears in the vertical growth phase.
d. Invasion is usually preceded by short phase of an insitu proliferation.

Answer 61

c. The metastatic potential appears in the vertical growth phase.

Question 62

60- Which is true concerning condyloma accuminatum:

a. It’s a small, hard mass in the sole of the foot.
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
c. It’s a large fleshy mass on skin of fingers.
d. Occurs commonly on face and back of hand.

Answer 62

b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11

Question 63

61- The most common site of basal cell carcinoma is:

a. Upper limbs.
b. Lower limbs
c. Face.
d. Trunk

Answer 63

c. Face.

Question 64

62- The sites of malignant melanoma are all EXCEPT:

a. Skin.
b. Eye
c. Anal canal.
d. Stomach.

Answer 64

d. Stomach.

Question 65

63- Desmoid tumor is an example of:

a. Begin tumor.
b. Hamartomas.
c. Malignant tumor.
d. Fibromatosis.

Answer 65

d. Fibromatosis.

Question 66

64- All of the following are true concerning rhabdomyosarcoma EXCEPT:

a. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children.
b. They arise from mature skeletal muscle cells.
c. The sarcoma botryoides type is soft and gelatinous
d. They are aggressive tumors.

Answer 66

b. They arise from mature skeletal muscle cells.

Question 67

65- Glomus tumor is a:

a. Benign tumor.
b. Malignant tumor.
c. Tumor of fibrous tissue.
d. Tumor of intermediate behavior

Answer 67

a. Benign tumor.

Question 68

66- Tumor that commonly arises in scars of abdominal surgery:

a. Lipoma
b. Fibromatosis
c. Melanoma
d. Rhabdomyoma.

Answer 68

a. Lipoma

Question 69

67- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Melanoma.
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 69

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 70

68- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma.
d. Squamous cell papilloma.

Answer 70

b. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 71

69- Female patient 10 years old presenting with vaginal bleeding. Examination revealed soft gelatinous grape-like mass in the vagina. What is your diagnosis?

a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma

Answer 71

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 72

70- Male patient 40 years old known to have HIV infection. He developed lymphadenopathy and reddish skin nodules on the lower extremities. Biopsy of skin lesions revealed small irregular vessels with plump spindle cells and exrtravasated red blood cells. What is your diagnosis?

a. Capillary hemangioma.
b. Pyogenic granuloma.
c. Angiosarcoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma

Answer 72

d. Kaposi sarcoma

Question 73

71- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?

a. Glomus tumor.
b. Lymphangioma.
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma.

Answer 73

b. Lymphangioma.

Question 74

72- Aggressive metastasizing biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components:

a. Liposarcoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Synovial sarcoma.
d. Angiosarcoma.

Answer 74

c. Synovial sarcoma.

Question 75

73- Nevus cells are found in the dermo-epidermal junction and the dermis is called:

a. Compound nevus
b. Intrademal nevus
c. Junctional nevus
d. Melanoma

Answer 75

a. Compound nevus

Question 76

74- The most important prognostic factor in malignant melanoma giving the probability of metastasis is:

a. Degree of tumor differentiation
b. Depth of tumor invasion
c. Age of the patient.
d. Histologic type of the tumor.

Answer 76

b. Depth of tumor invasion

Question 77

75- A patient developed slowly growing painless subcutaneous mass in his arm, excision and gross examination of the mass revealed soft yellow encapsulated mass with lobulated greasy cut surface.
The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Fibroma
b. Lipoma
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Dermatofibroma

Answer 77

b. Lipoma

Question 78

76- The following is NOT a subtype of squamous cell papilloma

a. Condyloma Accuminata
b. Verruca Plantaris
c. Condyloma Lata
d. Verruca Vulgaris

Answer 78

c. Condyloma Lata

Question 79

77- The most commonly affected area of the body by Basal cell carcinoma is

a. The upper part of the face
b. The shoulder
c. The perianal area
d. The dorsum of the hand

Answer 79

a. The upper part of the face

Question 80

78- The following is true about: The vertical growth phase of Melanoma:

a. It almost always occurs in the face above an imaginary line between the angle of the mandible and lobule of the ear

b. Melanoma cells grows horizontally without invading the basement membrane

c. The tumor grows downward into the deeper layer of the dermis so they can send metastases

d. Clinically it is always a flat lesion

Answer 80

c. The tumor grows downward into the deeper layer of the dermis so they can send metastases

Question 81

79- The types of Rhabdomyosarcoma include:

a. Alveolar and pulmonary
b. Emberyonal and desmoid
c. Pleomorphic and desmoid
d. Emberyonal and pleomorphic

Answer 81

b. Emberyonal and desmoid

Question 82

80- The following is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin

a. Carcinosarcoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
c. Liposarcoma
d. Osteosarcoma

Answer 82

b. Leiomyosarcoma

Question 83

81- Rodent ulcer is characterized by the following:

a. Raised everted edges
b. Beaded rolled in edges
c. Smooth clean floor
d. Soft base

Answer 83

b. Beaded rolled in edges

Question 84

82- The following tumor can arise in the setting of lymphedema as in upper limb many years after radical mastectomy for cancer breast:

a. Liposarcoma
b. Kaposi Sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Angiosarcoma

Answer 84

d. Angiosarcoma

Question 85

83- Peyronie disease: is the name given to

a. Genital wart
b. Plantar fibromatosis
c. Retroperitoneal fibromatosis
d. Penile fibromatosis

Answer 85

d. Penile fibromatosis

Question 86

84- Herring bone pattern is a histological feature of

a. Liposarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
d. rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer 86

b. Fibrosarcoma

Question 87

85- In Compound Nevus:

a. Nests of malignant cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis

b. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidemal junction together with the epidermis

c. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis

d. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the subcutaneous fat.

Answer 87

c. Nests of nevus cells are seen at the dermoepidermal junction together with the dermis

Question 88

86- Tumor formed of spindle cells characterized by herring bone arrangement

a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Liposarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Angiosarcoma

Answer 88

a. Fibrosarcoma

Question 89

87- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell papilloma
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 89

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 90

88- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Squamous cell papilloma

Answer 90

b. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 91

89- Which of the followings is NOT predisposed to by sun exposure?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Melanoma

Answer 91

b. Kaposi sarcoma

Question 92

90- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?

a. Glomus tumor
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma

Answer 92

b. Lymphangioma

Question 93

91- Regarding squamous cell papilloma, which of the following following is correct

a. It is commonly caused by human papilloma virus type 16
b. It is characterized by fibrovascular cores, covered by malignant looking squamous epithelium
c. Condyloma accuminatum occur on the external genitalia
d. Verrucae plantaris are the most common

Answer 93

c. Condyloma accuminatum occur on the external genitalia

Question 94

92- Regarding melanocytic nevus, which of the following is incorrect

a. Melanin pigmentation is increased in the deeper part of the lesion
b. May be congenital or acquired
c. Appear as small uniformly pigmented lesions
d. The covering epidermis may show a papillary lesion

Answer 94

a. Melanin pigmentation is increased in the deeper part of the lesion

Question 95

93- Which of the following is not a feature of melanoma

a. Melanoma is less common but more aggressive than squamous cell carcinoma
b. Melanoma is characterized grossly by irregular borders and variation in pigmentation
c. Melanoma in the radial growth phase is capable of metastasis
d. Melanoma may show an epithelioid or sarcomatous appearance microscopically

Answer 95

c. Melanoma in the radial growth phase is capable of metastasis

Question 96

94- Regarding benign vascular tumors and tumor like lesions, which of the following is true

a. Cystic hygroma IS a large sized hemangioma, occurring in the neck or axilla
b. Pyogenic granuloma present as a rapidly growing pedunculated lesion with common ulceration
c. Cavernous hemangioma doesn’t occur in deep structures
d. Glomus body tumor present as a painless mass, usually in fingers

Answer 96

b. Pyogenic granuloma present as a rapidly growing pedunculated lesion with common ulceration

Question 97

95- Glomus tumor is

a. Benign tumor
b. Malignant tumor
c. Fibrous tumor
d. Tumor of intermediate behavior

Answer 97

a. Benign tumor

Question 98

96- Cystic hygroma represents which type of the following tumors?

a. Glomus tumor
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangioma
d. Hemangioendothelioma

Answer 98

b. Lymphangioma

Question 99

97- Biphasic tumor with spindle and epithelial-like components

a. Liposarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Synovial sarcoma
d. Kaposi sarcoma

Answer 99

c. Synovial sarcoma

Question 100

98- Which of the following neoplasm is invasive but does not give rise to metastases

a. Papilloma of the skin
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
c. Adenocarcinoma of the lung
d. Basal cell carcinoma

Answer 100

d. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 101

99- Pyogenic granuloma is a lesion resembling

a. Capillary hemangioma
b. Foreign body granuloma
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Abscess

Answer 101

a. Capillary hemangioma

Question 102

100- Tumor characterized by forming nests with central keratin whorls

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell papilloma
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 102

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 103

101- Lipoma is characterized by

a. It’s an uncommon tumor presenting as slowly growing mobile mass
b. More common in the retroperitoneum than liposarcoma
c. Appear as well defined non-capsulated yellow tumor grossly
d. Characterized microscopically by lobules of mature fat cells, separated by fibrous septae

Answer 103

d. Characterized microscopically by lobules of mature fat cells, separated by fibrous septae

Question 104

102- Desmoid tumor is an example of

a. Benign tumor
b. Hamartomas
c. Malignant tumor
d. Fibromatosis

Answer 104

d. Fibromatosis

Question 105

103- Which is true about melanotic nevus

a. It’s tan to brown small papule
b. It’s benign neoplasm of basal cell layer
c. Commonly become malignant
d. The junctional nevus showed nests of nevus cells in dermis

Answer 105

a. It’s tan to brown small papule

Question 106

104- Tumor characterized by dermal islands of hyperchromatic cells with peripheral palisade arrangement

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Squamous cell papilloma

Answer 106

b. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 107

105- Which is true concerning condyloma acuminatum

a. It’s a small, hard mass in the sole of the foot
b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11
c. It’s Large fleshy mass on skin of fingers
d. Occurs commonly on face and back of hand

Answer 107

b. It’s caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) 6,11

Question 108

106- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?

a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infiltration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland

Answer 108

c. Follicles show Hurthle cells

Question 109

107- Neuroblastoma

a. Is a tumor of adults.
b. Malignant tumor
c. Secretes catecholamines.
d. Arises from adrenal cortex

Answer 109

b. Malignant tumor

Question 110

108- Nuclear features are important in diagnosis of

a. Follicular adenoma.
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma.
d. Medullary carcinoma

Answer 110

c. Papillary carcinoma

Question 111

109- Osteitis fibrosa cystica is related to

a. Hyperparathyroidism.
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism.
d. Hyperthyroidism

Answer 111

a. Hyperparathyroidism.

Question 112

110- Main pathogenesis of peripheral neuropathy in diabetes is:

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Capillary microangiopathy
c. Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis
d. Cerebral infarcts

Answer 112

b. Capillary microangiopathy

Question 113

111- Which of the following is characterized by intense lymphocytic infiltrate:

a. Colloid goiter.
b. Follicular adenoma.
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
d. Riedel thyroiditis.

Answer 113

c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

Question 114

112- Which of the following is true about papillary carcinoma of thyroid:

a. It is an undifferentiated tumor of elderly.
b. It is malignant tumor which arise from C cells.
c. Metastases commonly is via blood stream.
d. Their epithelial cells have pale nuclei with grooving

Answer 114

d. Their epithelial cells have pale nuclei with grooving

Question 115

113- The following are a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:

a. Urinary stones.
b. Tetany.
c. Nephrocalcinosis.
d. Osteitis fibrous cystica.

Answer 115

b. Tetany.

Question 116

114- Presence of vanillylmandelic acid in urine is characteristic of:

a. Neuroblastoma.
b Pheochromocytoma.
c. Adrenal cortical tumor
d. Cushing’s syndrome.

Answer 116

b Pheochromocytoma.

Question 117

115- The following is true about type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

a. It is an autoimmune disease.
b. It develops in childhood.
c. It is a multifactorial complex disease.
d. There is genetic susceptibility.

Answer 117

c. It is a multifactorial complex disease.

Question 118

116- Pheochromocytoma arises from:

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Pancreatic beta islets of Langerhans
d. Remnants of Rathke’s pouch

Answer 118

b. Adrenal medulla

Question 119

117- Riedel thyroiditis:

a. Is a common cause of thyroiditis
b. Clinically simulate thyroid carcinoma
c. Characterized by granulomas formation
d. Shows a fleshy cut section

Answer 119

b. Clinically simulate thyroid carcinoma

Question 120

118- Grave’s disease is characterized by:

a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Follicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Answer 120

d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Question 121

119- Diagnosis of follicular carcinoma is based on detection of:

a. Nuclear clearing and grooving
b. Amyloid formation
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
d. Undifferentiated malignant cells, spindle cells and giant cells

Answer 121

c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion

Question 122

120- As regards medullary carcinoma which of the following statement is true:

a. Arises from C cells
b. Arises from follicular cells
c. Areas of amyloid deposits derived from altered thyroxin are present in stroma
d. May show nuclear clearing and grooving

Answer 122

a. Arises from C cells

Question 123

121- The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:

a. Hyperplasia
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Renal failure

Answer 123

b. Adenoma

Question 124

122- Which of the following is FALSE about morphological changes occur in the pancreas in diabetes mellitus:

a. Changes are more common in type 2 than type 1
b. Most islets are small and inconspicuous
c. Leukocytic infiltrate is mainly T-cells
d. Amyloid deposition occurs

Answer 124

a. Changes are more common in type 2 than type 1

Question 125

123- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas:

a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of uniform monomorphus cells
d. Microadenomas are more than 1 cm in diameter

Answer 125

c. Composed of uniform monomorphus cells

Question 126

124- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas:

a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of monotonous cells
d. More than 1 cm in diameter

Answer 126

c. Composed of monotonous cells

Question 127

125- A 35 years old female comes to the hospital with cervical lymph node enlargement, imaging revealed thyroid mass, with clear nuclei and nuclear psudoinclusions. what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Papillary carcinoma
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Anaplastic carcinoma
d. Medullary carcinoma

Answer 127

a. Papillary carcinoma

Question 128

126- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?

a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infilration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland

Answer 128

c. Follicles show Hurthle cells

Question 129

127- Grave’s disease is characterized by

a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Follicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Answer 129

d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Question 130

128- The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is

a. Hyperplasia
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Renal failure

Answer 130

b. Adenoma

Question 131

129- All of the following is true concerning pheochromocytoma except

a. It arises from the suprarenal medulla
b. It secretes calcitonin
c. It causes secondary hypertension
d. The tumor is brown in color with areas of hemorrhage

Answer 131

b. It secretes calcitonin

Question 132

130- in a case of Hashimoto thyroiditis, of the following, which would histologic examination of the thyroid gland most likely reveal?

a. Granulomas and giant cells
b. Clear nuclei and psamomma bodies
c. Lymphocytic infiltrate and oncocytic change
d. Papillae without fibrovascular cores

Answer 132

c. Lymphocytic infiltrate and oncocytic change

Question 133

131- A 33-year-old female is having her yearly examination when her primary care physician pal- pates a nodule in her thyroid gland. A subsequent fine needle aspiration reveals cells with grooved nuclei and occasional psammoma bodies. Of the fol- lowing, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Follicular carcinoma
b. Anaplastic carcinoma
c. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Answer 133

c. Papillary thyroid carcinoma

Question 134

132- A female presented with a manifestation of hyperthyroidism followed by hypo thyroid states. A physical examination reveals a tender thyroid gland, what would a histologic examination of the thyroid gland reveal?

a. Papillae
b. Markedly atypical cells
c. Granulomas
d. Foreign material

Answer 134

c. Granulomas

Question 135

133- Which of the following is the most common etiological factor associated with diabetes mellitus seen in older populations?

a. Smoking
b. Obesity
c. Hypertension
d. Infections

Answer 135

b. Obesity

Question 136

134- Which of the following is true of papillary thyroid carcinoma?

a. May have psammoma bodies
b. The least common kind of thyroid carcinoma
c. The type of thyroid carcinoma with the worst prognosis
d. arise from C cells

Answer 136

a. May have psammoma bodies

Question 137

135- Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. retinopathy
b. Increased atherosclerosis
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Pancreatic carcinoma

Answer 137

d. Pancreatic carcinoma

Question 138

136- the following is true about Grave’ s disease

a. The thyroid is nodular
b. It’s an autoimmune disease
c. It leads to destruction of the gland and hypothyroidism
d. It’s precancerous

Answer 138

b. It’s an autoimmune disease

Question 139

137- Type 1 diabetes

a. Manifests at puberty
b. Manifests in childhood
c. Manifest in adulthood
d. Never progress with age

Answer 139

b. Manifests in childhood

Question 140

138- Neuropathy in diabetes mellitus is due to:

a. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
b. Accelerated atherosclerosis
c. Infection
d. Microangiopathy

Answer 140

d. Microangiopathy

Question 141

139- Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomas

a. Always nonfunctioning
b. Usually multiple
c. Composed of monotonous cells
d. More than 1 cm in diameter

Answer 141

c. Composed of monotonous cells

Question 142

140- Neuroblastoma

a. Benign tumor occurs in young children
b. Yellow brown in color
c. Associated with vanilly mandelic acid secretion in urine
d. Formed of round small blue cells

Answer 142

d. Formed of round small blue cells

Question 143

141- Which of the following is false about paraganglioma

a. Arises in the adrenal gland
b. Usually benign
c. Secrete catecholamine
d. Well defined in shape which may show areas of hemorrhage

Answer 143

a. Arises in the adrenal gland

Question 144

142- Which of the following is true about Hashimoto Thyroiditis?

a. Infectious disease
b. There is extensive infiltration of parenchyma by neutrophils
c. Follicles show Hurthle cells
d. There is painful enlargement of thyroid gland

Answer 144

c. Follicles show Hurthle cells

Question 145

143- Grave’s disease is characterized by

a. Marked thyroid enlargement
b. Nodular outer surface and cut section
c. Folicles are distended with excess colloid
d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Answer 145

d. Increased number of blood vessels in between follicles

Question 146

144- Diagnosis of follicular carcinoma is based on detection of

a. Nuclear clearing and grooving
b. Amyloid formation
c. Capsular and/or vascular invasion
d. Undifferentiated malignant cells, spindle cells and giant cells

Question 147

145- The following condition forms a breast mass that may be
histologically mistaken for a tumor:

a. Traumatic fat necrosis
b. Apocrine metaplasia
c. Usual ductal hyperplasia
d. Adenosis

Answer 147

a. Traumatic fat necrosis

Question 148

146- The following is TRUE about Sclerosing adenosis:

a. It never accompanies fibrocystic disease
b. It is considered to be a low-grade adenocarcinoma
c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving
a false impression of invasive carcinoma
d. It is adenosis with excess fatty stroma showing fat necrosis and sclerosis

Answer 148

c. It is adenosis with extensive stromal fibrosis that compress and distorts the lobules of the breast giving

Question 149

147- These tumors are benign epithelial tumors of the breast EXCEPT:

a. Fibroadenoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Benign phylloides tumor
d. Duct papilloma

Answer 149

b. Pleomorphic adenomab.

Question 150

148- ….is NOT one of the risk factors of breast cancer:

a. Hyperestrinism
b. Fibrocystic disease with florid ductal hyperplasia
c. Multiple duct papillomas with atypia
d. Apocrine metaplasia

Answer 150

d. Apocrine metaplasia

Question 151

149- Paget’s disease of the breast:

a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen
b. Show skin changes including BOTH peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma

Answer 151

c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm

Question 152

150- A 20-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound shows a dilated endometrial cavity. Evacuation of the uterus by suction curettage reveals grape like clusters and fetal parts. Cytogenetic examination of this tissue will most likely demonstrate which of the following genetic patterns?

a. Triploid
b. Euploid
c. Diploid
d. Aneuploid

Answer 152

a. Triploid

Question 153

151- Which of the following ĮS NOT a complication of puerperal sepsis:

a. Septicemia
b. Septic thrombophelibitis
c. Infertility
d. Endometrial carcinoma

Answer 153

d. Endometrial carcinoma

Question 154

152- Theca cell Tumor (thecoma/fibroma) is:

a. Malignant in more than 95% of cases.
b. It mostly occurs in young women
c. Always well defined cystic mass grossly
d. The tumor may produce estrogen

Answer 154

d. The tumor may produce estrogen

Question 155

153- A 29 year old woman presents with severe pain during menstruatior (dysmenorrhea). During work up, an endometrial biopsy is obtained. The pathology report from this specimen makes the
diagnosis of chronic endometritis. Which of the following cells is reported for diagnosis of chronic endometritis in endometrial biopsy:

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Decidualized stromal cells

Answer 155

c. Plasma cells

Question 156

154- Which of the following is the most common histologic type of cervical cancer

a. Adenosquamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenoacanthoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 156

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 157

155- Which of the following is NOT TRUE about endometrial hyperplasia:

a. It is less common in females around menopause
b. It is precancerous
c. It can be associated with polycystic ovaries
d. It can be complicated with abnormal uterine bleeding

Answer 157

a. It is less common in females around menopause

Question 158

156- Which of the following ovarian tumors can be bilateral:

a. Serous cystadenoma
b. Krukenberg tumor
c. Ovarian carcinoma
d. All of the above

Answer 158

a. Serous cystadenoma

Question 159

157- Which of the following is true about choriocarcinoma

a. It mostly arise from progression of partial vesicular mole
b. Serum HCG level is mildly elevated
c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens
d. It is composed microscopically cytotrophoblasts anaplastic syncytiotrophoblasts together with chorionic villi and

Answer 159

c. It has excellent prognosis with recent chemotherapy regimens

Question 160

158- Which of the following is true about Condyloma accuminata of the vulva:

a. It is precancerous
b. Koilocytosis is not evident
c. It is caused by HPV 16 and 18
d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions

Answer 160

d. It may arise as single or multiple papillary lesions

Question 161

159- Which of the following is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy:

a. Ovary
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Douglas pouch

Answer 161

b. Fallopian tubes

Question 162

160- Which of the following mammary neoplasms has the highest incidence of bilaterality:

a. Lobular carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Paget’s disease
d. Apocrine carcinoma

Answer 162

a. Lobular carcinoma

Question 163

161- Strüma ovarii is a:

a. Type of mature cystic teratoma
b. Type of immature cystic teratoma
c. Type of malignant cystic teratoma
d. Tumor - like lesion with excess formation of ovarian stroma

Answer 163

a. Type of mature cystic teratoma

Question 164

162- A 36-year-old woman cervical biopsy shows dysplastic squamous throughout cells full thickness epithelium, with intact basement membrane. What is appropriate diagnosis?

a. Squamous metaplasia of the transformation zone,
b. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
c. CIN-1 (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 1, Mild dysplasia).
d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).

Answer 164

d. CIN-3 (Carcinoma in situ, Severe dysplasia).

Question 165

163- The diagnosis of chronic endometritis rests on the presence of these cells within the endometrium.

a. Neutrophils.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Lymphoid follicles.
d. Plasma cells.

Answer 165

d. Plasma cells

Question 166

164- The endometrial carcinoma caused prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation is:

a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Serous carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 166

a. Endomerioid adenocarcinoma

Question 167

165- A 25-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever vaginal and discharge. Pelvic examination reveals the bilateral adnexal pain. Cultures taken from vaginal discharge grow Neisseria
gonorrhoeae. What is your diagnosis of the cause of this patient’s adnexal pain?

a. b. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Endometriosis
c. Luteoma of pregnancy
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Answer 167

d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 168

166- Pseudomyxomaperitonei is most likely to be associated with:

a. Brenner tumor of the ovary
b. Serous tumors of the ovary.
c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d. Chocolate cyst.

Answer 168

c. Mucinous tumor of the ovary

Question 169

167- Which of the following provides the best serologic marker to Diagnose and monitor the course of yolk sac tumor:

a. Alkaline phosphatase.
b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
c. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)\

Answer 169

b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

Question 170

168- The most likely diagnosis of type of hydatidiform mole with no fetal parts is:

a. Partial hydatidiform mole
b. Complete hydatidiform mole
c. choriocarcinoma
d. Placental site trophoblastic tumor.

Answer 170

b. Complete hydatidiform mole

Question 171

169- Gestational Choriocarcinoma characterized by the following except:

a. It is rare, mostly arise from progression of complete mole
b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.
c. Serum HCG is markedly elevated
d. It has excellent response with recent chemotherapy regimens.

Answer 171

b. The tumor is composed of anaplastic cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts with chorionic villi.

Question 172

170- Which of the following is a cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB):

a. Failure of ovulation
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Uterine liomyoma
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Answer 172

a. Failure of ovulation

Question 173

171- Which of the following is not a feature of endometrial hyperplasia:

a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia
b. The recent World Health Organization (WHO) classification recommends two categories.
c. It is complicated by abnormal uterine bleeding
d. Atypical hyperplasia has risk of progression to endometrial cancer

Answer 173

a. Mutations in PTEN are found in all of endometrial hyperplasia

Question 174

172- Ovarian granulosa cell tumor is:

a. Benign tumors.
b. Presented as cyst.
c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)
d. Functional and produce HCG.

Answer 174

c. Cells are arranged in micro follicular pattern (Call-Exner bodies)

Question 175

173- What is true about phyllodes tumor:

a. Large monophasic tumor.
b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.
c. Most tumors are malignant
d. The high number of mitosis in epithelial component indicate malignancy in this tumor.

Answer 175

b. The stroma organized in leaf-like pattern around benign epithelial/myoepithelial lined spaces.

Question 176

174- What is true about the prognostic factors of breast carcinoma:

a. ER positive tumors have worse prognosis than ER negative negative tumors.
b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.
c. Tubular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma are of bad prognosis
d. Breast carcinoma during pregnancy or lactation is less aggressive

Answer 176

b. HER2/neu positive tumors are aggressive.

Question 177

175- Paget’s disease of the breast:

a. Is an autoimmune reaction against Paget’s antigen.
b. Show skin changes including both peaud’orange and nipple ulceration
c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm
d. Is always associated with inflammatory carcinoma.

Answer 177

c. Show epidermal infiltration by large neoplastic cells with clear cytoplasm

Question 178

176- Changes of fibrocystic disease of the breast is not associated with increased risk of carcinoma except:

a. Fibrosis.
b. Cyst formation.
c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.
d. Mild ductal hyperplasia.

Answer 178

c. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.

Question 179

177- Gynecomastia is:

a. Pathological condition
b. Always unilateral.
c. May be caused by excess estrogen.
d. It is a precancerous lesion.

Answer 179

c. May be caused by excess estrogen.

Question 180

178- The following is not a cause of bleeding per nipple:

a. Duct papilloma.
b. Duct carcinoma.
c. Mammary hyperplasia.
d. Fat necrosis.

Answer 180

d. Fat necrosis.

Question 181

179- Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most likely to be associated with:

a) Clear cell tumor of the kidney
b) Cystic tumor of the gallbladder
c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary
d) Serous tumor of the ovary.

Answer 181

c) Mucinous tumor of the ovary

Question 182

180- Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) is:

a) A benign germ cell tumor of young women.
b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).
c) Composed of trophoblast and cytotrophoblasts
d) Associated with estrogen production

Answer 182

b) Associated with elevated serum level of alpha fetoprotein (AFP).

Question 183

181- Metastatic ovarian tumors are:

a) Rare ovarian tumors
b) Called Krukenberg tumors
c) Unilateral tumors composed of mucin secreting cells. kcera
d) The most common sources of ovarian metastases are liver and brain

Answer 183

b) Called Krukenberg tumors

Question 184

182- Multiple small mucinous cysts of the endocervix that result from blockage of endocervical glands by overlying squamous metaplastic epithelium are called:

a) Bartholin’s cysts
b) Chocolate cysts
c) Follicular cysts
d) Nabothian cysts

Answer 184

d) Nabothian cysts

Question 185

183- Which of the following is TRUE about adult polycystic kidney?

a. Kidney shows smooth outer surface.
b. It is due to autosomal recessive anomaly.
c. The cysts are communicating with renal pelvis.
d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.

Answer 185

d. It is due to failure of fusion of convoluted and collecting tubules.

Question 186

184- Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is due to:

a. Blood-borne infection.
b. Ascending infection.
c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
d. Autoimmune reaction.

Answer 186

c. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli.

Question 187

185- Epithelial crescents are characteristic of:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis.
b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
c. Membranous glomerulonephritis.
d. Minimal change glomerulonephritis

Answer 187

b. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

Question 188

186- Fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes is characteristic of:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN.
b. Rapidly progressive GN.
c. Membranoproliferative GN.
d. Minimal change disease.

Answer 188

d. Minimal change disease.

Question 189

187- Gross features of the kidneys in chronic glomerulonephritis include all EXCEPT:

a. Both kidneys are contracted.
b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.
c. Outer surface is granular.
d. Loss of differentiation between cortex and medulla.

Answer 189

b. Contraction of the kidneys is asymmetrical.

Question 190

188- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adult is:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative.
b. Minimal change disease.
c. Membranous nephropathy.
d. Rapidly progressive GN.

Answer 190

c. Membranous nephropathy.

Question 191

189- In acute ischemic tubular necrosis:

a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.
b. The tubular necrosis is diffuse.
c. The tubules show disruption of basement membrane.
d. The distal tubules show casts.

Answer 191

a. The kidneys are swollen and Pale.

Question 192

190- Factors predisposing to pyelonephritis include all EXCEPT:

a. Urinary tract obstruction.
b. Urinary tract instrumentation.
c. Hypertension.
d. Diabetes.

Answer 192

c. Hypertension.

Question 193

191- The following type of renal stones is multiple and spiky:

a. Oxalate stones.
b. Urate Stones.
c. Phosphate stones.
d. Cystine stones

Answer 193

a. Oxalate stones.

Question 194

192- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinoma:

a. It is commonly affect children.
b. The cells contain mucin.
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.

Answer 194

d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein.

Question 195

193- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Cystitis cystica.
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Dysplasia.
d. Leukoplakia

Answer 195

a. Cystitis cystica.

Question 196

194- Urothelial carcinoma in situ is

a. Precancerous lesion
b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
c. Flat invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells
d. Papillary non invasive tumor

Answer 196

b. Flat non invasive lesion showing highly atypical cells

Question 197

195- Chronic bladder infection with Schistosoma hematobium usually causes

a. Invasive urothelial carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Papillary urothelial carcinoma

Answer 197

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 198

196- Chronic specific orchitis includes:

a. Mumps orchitis
b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis
c. Gonococcal orchitis
d. Chlamydia infection

Answer 198

b. Idiopathic granulomatous orchitis

Question 199

197- Which is true about classic seminoma?

a. It is the commonest testicular germ cell tumor in males above 60 years
b. It is a malignant tumor
c. It secretes androgens
d. It stains positive for alpha feto protein

Answer 199

b. It is a malignant tumor

Question 200

198- Benign prostatic hyperplasia usually arises in

a. Transitional zone.
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone.
d. Anterior zone

Answer 200

a. Transitional zone.

Question 201

199- Electron microscopy finding that is characteristic of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

a. diffuse foot processes effacement
b. segmental foot processes effacement
c. double contours of glomerular basement membrane
d. Sub-epithelial humps

Answer 201

d. Sub-epithelial humps

Question 202

200-Which is true about minimal change disease:

a. The glomeruli show ed endothelial and mesangial proliferation
b. There is diffuse GBM deposits of C3 in immunofluorescence
c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy
d. It is one of the common causes of nephritic syndrome

Answer 202

c. The glomeruli showed diffuse foot processes effacement in electron microscopy

Question 203

201- Histologic features of chronic glomerulonephritis include:

a. Fibrosis of glomeruli
b. Thick walled blood vessels
c. Atrophy of tubules
d. All of the above

Answer 203

d. All of the above

Question 204

202- Gross features of chronic pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT:

a. the kidney is asymmetrically contracted
b. renal capsule strips easily
c. dilated calyces with purulent lining
d. non-demarcated corticomedullary differentiation

Answer 204

b. renal capsule strips easily

Question 205

203-The following type of renal stone commonly cause hematuria:

a. Cysteine stone
b. Phosphate stone
c. Oxalate stone
d. Urate stone

Answer 205

c. Oxalate stone

Question 206

204- All are TRUE about renal cell carcinoma EXCEPT :

a. Commonly affects renal poles
b. Usually multiple
c. Have a characteristic golden-yellow color in cut sections
d. Commonly has areas of hemorrhage and necrosis

Answer 206

b. Usually multiple

Question 207

205- Wilm’s tumor is characterized by:

a. Usually affects adults
b. Presents with a small mass
c. Formed of 3 histologic components
d. Does not spread to para-aortic lymph nodes

Answer 207

c. Formed of 3 histologic components

Question 208

206- Acute renal failure may occur in all the following EXCEPT:

a. Crescentic glomerulonephrilis.
b. acute tubular necrosis
c. poly cystic kidney disease.
d. complete obstruction of urinary Flow

Answer 208

c. poly cystic kidney disease.

Question 209

207- Accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis:

a. Hydrocele.
b. Testicular torsion
c. Spermatocele
d. Varicocele

Answer 209

a. Hydrocele

Question 210

208- Which of the following statements concerning the benign prostatic hyperplasia is TRUE?

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The hyperplastic glands lined by single cell layer.

Answer 210

b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.

Question 211

209- Which of the following statements concerning the prostatic cancer is TRUE?

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.
b. Originates in the transitional zone of prostate.
c. Affects young males
d. The glands lined by double cell layer.

Answer 211

a. Originates in the peripheral zone of prostate.

Question 212

210- All the following statements are True regarding the congenital diverticula of urinary bladder EXCEPT:

a. it is usually single
b. Formed of all layers of urinary bladder.
c. Formed only of mucosa.
d. Urinary tract obstruction is causative factor.

Answer 212

c. Formed only of mucosa.

Question 213

211- Which of the following statements concerning the papillary urothelial tumors of urinary bladder is it TRUE?

a. 20% of bladder cancer
b. Developed on top of squamous metaplasia
c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor
d. arise from urachal remnants

Answer 213

c. The extent of invasion is the most important prognostic factor

Question 214

212- All the Following statements are True regarding the cryptorchidism EXCEPT:

a. failure of testicular descent to scrotum.
b. The exact cause unknown.
c. Sterility if bilateral.
d. No risk for testicular cancer

Answer 214

d. No risk for testicular cancer

Question 215

213- Tuberculous epididymitis results from:

a. Direct spread.
b. Primary infection
c. Lymphatic spread.
d. Blood spread

Answer 215

d. Blood spread

Question 216

219- The following disease is diagnosed only by electron microscopy:

a. Acute diffuse proliferative GN
b. Rapidly progressive GN
c. Membranoproliferative GN
d. Minimal change GN

Answer 216

d. Minimal change GN

Question 217

220- Which is TRUE about acute pyelonephritis?

a. Mostly caused by gram-positive bacilli (E. coli)
b. Ascending infection is the most common cause
c. Hematogenous infection is the most common cause
d. May be complicated by hydronephrosis

Answer 217

b. Ascending infection is the most common cause

Question 218

221- Which is TRUE about renal cell carcinomak?

a. It is commonly affect children
b. The cells contain mucin
c. It is usually occurs as multiple bilateral lesions.
d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein

Answer 218

d. It is characterized by direct spread to renal vein

Question 219

222- which is true about an nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumour)?

a. in Most of the cases (90%) in is bilateral
b. It has greyish yellow cut section
c. The tumour cells are clear and arranged in solid sheets
d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone

Answer 219

d. It may show areas of cartilage or bone

Question 220

223- Which of the following is non germ cell tumor?

a. Seminoma.
b. teratoma
c. Sertoli cell tumor.
d. Yolk sac tumor

Answer 220

c. Sertoli cell tumor.

Question 221

224- Prostatic hyperplasia is characterized by?

a. It occurs in young age
b. It affects the peripheral prostate tissue
c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma
d. The prostate size is not affected

Answer 221

c. The nodules show variable proporion of proliferating glandular elements and fibromuscular stroma

Question 222

225- The following tumor characierized by uniform polyhedron clear cells with large central nuclei with prominent nucleolus and the stroma rich in lymphocytes:

a. Teratoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma
c. Classic Seminoma.
d. Yolk sac

Answer 222

c. Classic Seminoma.

Question 223

226- Gleason grading system is used for grading of.

a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Carcinoma of the prostate
c. Carcinoma of urinary bladder
d. Carcinoma of the prostatic urethra

Answer 223

b. Carcinoma of the prostate

Question 224

227- The following condition is a risk factor of Testicular cancer:

a. Bilharzial orchitis
b. Mumps orchitis
c. Syphilitic orchitis
d. Cryptorchidism

Answer 224

d. Cryptorchidism

Question 225

228- What is the most common risk actor contributing to the development of urothelial carcinoma?

a. HPV infection
b. Cyclophosphamide treatment
c. Irradiation
d. Schistosoma haematobium

Answer 225

d. Schistosoma haematobium

Question 226

229- The majority of urinary bladder carcinomas are:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Solid (non-papillary) urothelial carcinoma
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 226

c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma

Question 227

230- The following are complications of chronic cystitis:

a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Painless hematuria

Answer 227

c. Pyelonephritis

Question 228

231- Which of the following features is FALSE regarding nephritic syndrome?

a- Gross hematuria
b- Hypertension
c- Heavy proteinuria
d- Oliguria

Answer 228

c- Heavy proteinuria

Question 229

232- Which of the following is non-germ cell tumor

a- Leydig cell tumor
c- Yolk sac tumor
b- Choriocarcinoma
d- Teratoma

Answer 229

a- Leydig cell tumor

Question 230

233- Infantile polycystic kidney is characterized by:

a- Is relatively common affecting about 1: 1000
b- Associated with congenital cystic liver
c- Autosomal recessive
d- Usually affects one kidney

Answer 230

c- Autosomal recessive

Question 231

234- Which of the following statements is FALSE as regards ischemic acute tubular necrosis

a- Short lengths of the tubules are affected
b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse
c- Distal tubules show casts
d- Tubular cells are flattened and vacuolated

Answer 231

b- Tubular necrosis is diffuse

Question 232

235- Nephrotic syndrome characterized by all EXCEPT:

a. Heavy proteinuria
b. Edema
c. Hyperlipidemia.
d. Hematuria.

Answer 232

d. Hematuria.

Question 233

236- Accumulation of blood in the tunica vaginalis is called:

a. Hydrocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Hematocele

Question 234

237- Prostatic adenocarcinoma usually arises in:

a. Transitional zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Central zone
d. Anterior zone

Answer 234

b. Peripheral zone

Question 235

238- Prostatic granulomas may be due to:

a. E.Coli
b. Gonococci
c. Tuberculosis bacilli
d. Staphylococci

Answer 235

c. Tuberculosis bacilli

Question 236

239- Corpora Amylacea:

a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Inspissated intratesticular luminal secretions
c. Hallmark of prostatic carcinoma
d. May cause hematuria

Answer 236

a. Seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia

Question 237

240- Which is true about Gleason grading system

a. Based on degree of cytological atypia
b. Is used for urothelial carcinoma grading
c. Is graded from 1 to 5
d. Usually one pattern is present

Answer 237

c. Is graded from 1 to 5

Question 238

241- Primary Varicocele:

a. More common on the right side
b. May be due to testicular vein obstruction
c. May affect the fertility
d. A disease of elderly

Answer 238

c. May affect the fertility

Question 239

242- Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?

a. Proteinuria
b. Lipiduria
c. Hematuria
d. hypoalbuminemia

Answer 239

c. Hematuria

Question 240

243- The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is

a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
b. Goodpasture syndrome
c. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
d. Ig A nephropathy

Answer 240

a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis

Question 241

244- Causes of acute renal failure include

a. Amyloidosis
b. Polycystic kidney
c. Calculous anuria
d. Diabetes mellitus

Answer 241

c. Calculous anuria

Question 242

245- The vacuolated cytoplasm in cells of hypernephroma is due to

a. Lipids
b. Water
c. Glycogen
d. Mucin

Answer 242

a. Lipids

Question 243

246- Which statement is true about renal stones?

a. Most affected patients are females
b. More common in children
c. May be hereditary
d. Stones are bilateral in 80% of cases

Answer 243

c. May be hereditary

Question 244

247- Acute cystitis shows all the following except

a. Contracted bladder
b. Mucosal hyperemia
c. Exudate
d. Neutrophilic infiltrate

Answer 244

a. Contracted bladder

Question 245

248- Bilharzial urothelial precancerous lesions include all the following EXCEPT

a. Leukoplakia
b. Cystitis glandularis
c. Squamous metaplasia
d. Urothelial carcinoma

Answer 245

d. Urothelial carcinoma

Question 246

249- Serum level of alpha fetoprotein is elevated in

a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Seminoma
d. Sertoli cell tumor

Answer 246

b. Yolk sac tumor

Question 247

250- The commonest testicular germ cell tumor in young males is

a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Seminoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Teratoma

Answer 247

b. Seminoma

Question 248

251- Increased alkalinity of urine leads to which of the following renal stones?

a. Cysteine
b. Triple phosphate stones
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid

Answer 248

b. Triple phosphate stones

Question 249

252- Which statement is true about nephroblastoma?

a. Most cases are bilateral
b. Forms large well circumscribed mass
c. Characterized by yellow grey cut section
d. Most common primary renal tumor in adults

Answer 249

b. Forms large well circumscribed mass

Question 250

253- Lymphatic obstruction by filariasis can cause

a. Hematocele
b. Varicocele
c. Chylocele
d. Diverticulitis

Answer 250

c. Chylocele

Question 251

254- Microscopic picture of ulcerative colitis in its active phase shows all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Mucosal inflammation,
b. Crypt abscesses
c. Granulomas.
d. Loss of goblet cells.

Answer 251

c. Granulomas.

Question 252

255- Which of the following is the diagnosis of a gastric ulcer described as single, small, round, with terraced edges, smooth floor, & microscopically showing necrotic tissue with polymorphs, granulation tissue & fibrosis:

a. Malignant ulcer
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Tuberculous ulcer
d. GIST

Answer 252

b. Peptic ulcer

Question 253

256- Leukoplakia of the tongue is:

a. An ulcer.
b. An adenocarcinoma.
c. A squamous cell carcinoma
d. A precancerous lesion.

Answer 253

d. A precancerous lesion.

Question 254

257- The following is true about amebic dysentery:

a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between
b. It is caused by Shigella bacilli
c. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d. There is no blood in stools.

Answer 254

a. The colon shows flask shaped ulcers with healthy mucosa in between

Question 255

258- Celiac disease is:

a. Congenital absence of the ganglionic cells in the myenteric plexus of the intestine at the
b. recto-sigmoid junction causing constipation
c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption
d. Malabsorption due to chronic intestinal bacterial infection Characterized by partial villous atrophy of small intestine remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct forming a Tubular blind pouch on antimesenteric border of small intestine

Answer 255

c. Hypersensitivity reaction to a protein in wheat, Characterized by total villous atrophy of small intestine & malabsorption

Question 256

259- The following is true about carcinoma of the stomach:

a. H pylori is a predisposing factor.
b. It is classified as intestinal type adenocarcinoma & diffuse type carcinoma
c. It is classified as early or advanced
d. All of the above.

Answer 256

d. All of the above.

Question 257

260- Liver steatosis is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

Answer 257

c. Hepatitis C.

Question 258

261- The following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma:

a. It is more common in females
b. It is an adenocarcinoma
c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.
d. It shows marked (fibrosis).

Answer 258

c. Intracytoplasmic bile may be present.

Question 259

262- In liver cirrhosis, liver decreases in size EXCEPT in:

a. Post-hepatitic cirrhosis.
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Post-necrotic cirrhosis.
d. Alcoholic cirrhosis.

Answer 259

b. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Question 260

263- All the following is true about acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis EXCEPT:

a. Causes include Gall stone obstructing the ampulla of Vater
b. Causes include alcohol abuse.
c. Serum amylase is decreased
d. Complications include pancreatic pseudocyst formation.

Answer 260

c. Serum amylase is decreased

Question 261

264- Which of the following is true about typical carcinoid tumor?

a. Microscopically, tumor cells have signet ring appearance
b. It is neuroendocrine in origin
c. High incidence of distant metastasis
d. Stomach is the most common site

Answer 261

b. It is neuroendocrine in origin

Question 262

265- Which of the following is the most common salivary gland tumor?

a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Warthin tumor
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Answer 262

b. Pleomorphic adenoma

Question 263

266- Gross picture of Crohn’s disease shows:

a. Fissuring ulcers.
b. Cobble stone appearance.
c. Stricture.
d. All of the above.

Answer 263

d. All of the above.

Question 264

267- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:

a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma.
b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
c. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d. Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium,

Answer 264

b. It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

Question 265

268- Esophageal atresia is defined as:

a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus.
b. Loss of contractility and failure of relaxation of LES
c. Protrusion of the upper part of the stomach into the thorax via the diaphragmatic orifice.
d. Dilated congested tortuous submucosal veins in the lower esophagus, due to portal hypertension.

Answer 265

a. Failure of embryological canalization of the esophagus

Question 266

269- The following type of gall stones are usually multiple, 1-1.5 cm in diameter, soft-firm, with faceted surfaces, their cut section is laminated & radiopaque on X-ray:

a. Cholesterol
b. Pigment
c. Mixed
d. Calcium carbonate

Answer 266

c. Mixed

Question 267

270- Achalasia of the esophagus means:

a. An outpouching of the wall of the esophagus
b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
c. Failure of embryological canalisation of the esophagus.
d. Intestinal metaplasia in the lower end of the esophagus

Answer 267

b. Failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.

Question 268

271- Pleomorphic adenoma is characterized by the following:

a. It is a malignant tumor of salivary glands
b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision
c. Its commonest site is the submandibular gland
d. It is also called adenolymphoma

Answer 268

b. It has common recurrence after surgical excision

Question 269

272- H pylori infection is a risk factor for the following:

a. Chronic gastritis.
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Gastric lymphoma
d. All of the above

Answer 269

d. All of the above

Question 270

273- All of the following is true about diffuse gastric carcinoma EXCEPT:

a. The stomach has a leather bottle appearance
b. It has an infiltrative growth pattern.
c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass
d. It is formed of dyscohesive signet ring cells.

Answer 270

c. It occurs as an exophytic fungating mass

Question 271

274- Congenital absence of ganglionic cells in rectosigmoid junction occurs in:

a. Carcinoid syndrome
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis.
c. Hirschsprung’s disease.
d. Zollinger Ellison syndrome.

Answer 271

c. Hirschsprung’s disease.

Question 272

275- Volvulus occurs most often in:

a. Sigmoid colon.
b. Transverse colon.
c. Ascending colon
d. Descending colon

Answer 272

a. Sigmoid colon.

Question 273

276- Flask-shaped colonic ulcer is pathognomonic in:

a. Typhoid fever
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Amoebic dysentery
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 273

c. Amoebic dysentery

Question 274

277- Ulcerative colitis is characterized grossly by presence of:

a. Skip lesions
b. Serpentine ulcers
c. Pseudopolyps.
d. Deep fissures and fistula tracts.

Answer 274

c. Pseudopolyps.

Question 275

278- Which of the following colonic polyps is precancerous?

a. Juvenile polyp.
b. Adenomatous polyp
c. Hyperplastic polyp
d. Bilharzial polyp

Answer 275

b. Adenomatous polyp

Question 276

279- Which of the following hepatitis viruses may predispose to fulminant hepatitis during pregnancy?

a. HBV.
b. HCV.
c. HDV.
d. HEV

Answer 276

d. HEV

Question 277

280- Regarding liver cirrhosis, all of the following is true EXCEPT:

a. The color of the liver is yellow in nutritional cirrhosis
b. The liver is formed of regenerating nodules surrounded by fibrous septae.
c. The size of the liver is always increased
d. In Primary biliary cirhosis serum antimitochondrial antibodies are detected.

Answer 277

c. The size of the liver is always increased

Question 278

281- Microscopic picture of chronic viral hepatitis shows:

a. Inflammation.
b. Necrosis
c. Fibrosis
d. All of the above

Question 279

282- Hepatic steatosis is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A.
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

Answer 279

d. Hepatitis E.

Question 280

283- 40 years old lady suffering from obesity presents with right hypochondrial pain.US examination reveal multiple gall bladder stones. Which type of stones is most commonly seen:

a. Cholesterol stones
b. Pigment stones
c. Mixed stones
d. Calcium carbonate stones

Answer 280

a. Cholesterol stones

Question 281

284- Acute pancreatitis is characterized by the following:

a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes
b. Serum amylase & lipase are decreased
c. It results in hypercalcemia
d. Death always occurs.

Answer 281

a. Alcohol & gall stones are the most common causes

Question 282

285- Councilman bodies are found:

a- Wilson’s disease
b- Autoimmune hepatitis.
c- Acute viral hepatitis.
d- Alcoholic hepatitis.

Answer 282

c- Acute viral hepatitis.

Question 283

286- Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of squamous carcinoma of the tongue:

a- Leukoplakia
b-Tobacco chewing.
c- Human papilloma virus HPV 16 & 18.
d- Epstein barr virus infection

Answer 283

d- Epstein barr virus infection

Question 284

287- Pleomorphic Adenoma of salivary glands is

a- Locally malignant tumor.
b- Formed of mixture of epithelial and myoepithelial cells.
c- Completely capsulated
d- May undergo malignant transformation

Answer 284

d- May undergo malignant transformation

Question 285

288- The nature of lesion in Barrett’s oesophagus is:

a- Congenital anomaly.
b- Inflammatory disease
c- Metaplastic process
d- Neoplastic lesion

Answer 285

c- Metaplastic process

Question 286

289- The most common site for peptic ulcers is:

a- Stomach.
b- 1st part of the duodenum
c- Distal part of duodenum.
d- Lower esophagus

Answer 286

b- 1st part of the duodenum

Question 287

290- Signet ring carcinoma of the stomach:

a- Characterized by excess extracellular mucin.
b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.
c- Is intestinal type adenocarcinoma of the stomach,
d- Has definite precursor lesion.

Answer 287

b- Presented grossly as linitis plastica.

Question 288

291- Ulcerated peyer’s patches are seen in the following disease:

a- Amoebiasis
b- Shigellosis.
c- Typhoid fever.
d- Bilharziasis.

Answer 288

c- Typhoid fever.

Question 289

292- Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is:

a- Neoplastic polyposis syndrome
b- Doesn’t associated extraintestinal manifestations
c- Associated with decreased risk of several malignancies
d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome

Answer 289

d- Hamartomatous polyposis syndrome

Question 290

293- Which of the following is a cause of Melena:

a- Colonic polyps.
b- Piles (hemorrhoids)
c- Peptic ulcers,
d- Ankylostomiasis.

Answer 290

c- Peptic ulcers,

Question 291

294-The following hepatotropic virus is a DNA virus:

a- HAV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- HEV

Answer 291

b- HBV

Question 292

295- Primary billiary cirrhosis has the following features EXCEPT:

a- Serum anti-mitochondrial antibodies are detected In 95% of cases.
b- Micronodular cirrhosis
c- The condition is more common in men.
d- The disease has autoimmune origin.

Answer 292

c- The condition is more common in men.

Question 293

296- Risk factors implicated in the etiology of cholesterol gallstones include the following EXCEPT:

a- Hypercholesterolemia
b- Obesity.
c. Haemolytic anaemia.
d- Diabetes.

Answer 293

c. Haemolytic anaemia.

Question 294

297- One of the following is true for classic hepatocellular carcinoma:

a-Found in young
b- Not preceded by cirrhosis
c- The most common primary liver malignancy
d- Good prognosis than fibrolamellar HCC

Answer 294

c- The most common primary liver malignancy

Question 295

298- All are true about acute pancreatitis EXCEPT:

a- An acute medical emergency.
b- Marked elevation of serum amylase.
c- Death due to shock.
d- Hypercalcemia.

Answer 295

d- Hypercalcemia.

Question 296

299- Majority of pancreatic cancers arise in:

a- The body of the gland.
b- The head of the gland.
c- The tail of the gland.
d-All of the above.

Answer 296

b- The head of the gland.

Question 297

300- The following is NOT a predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma

a- Aflatoxin.
b- Hepatitis C virus infection,
c- Hepatitis B virus infection.
d- Smoking.

Answer 297

d- Smoking.

Question 298

301- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:

a- The ileum.
b- The duodenum.
c- The jejunum.
d- ‘The caecum.

Answer 298

b- The duodenum.

Question 299

302- The following is true about bacillary dysentery:

a- The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
b- It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
d- There is no blood in stools.

Answer 299

c- It is a pseudomembranous inflammation

Question 300

303- Juvenile polyp of the colon is:

a- A hamartomatous polyp,
b- A bilharzial polyp.
c- A carcinoma
d- An adenoma.

Answer 300

a- A hamartomatous polyp

Question 301

304- The following is true about Barrett’s esophagus:

a- It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),
c- Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus
d- Microscopically, it is formed of squamous epithelium.

Answer 301

b- It is a complication of long-standing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD),

Question 302

305- Causes of hematemesis include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- Esophageal varices
b- Peptic ulcer disease
c- Carcinoma of the colon.
d- Gastric tumors

Answer 302

c- Carcinoma of the colon.

Question 303

306- The following is true about carcinoma of the tongue:

a- Leukoplakia is a predisposing factor.
b- Commonest site is anterior 2/3 of the tongue
c- It is a squamous cell carcinoma.
d-All of the above

Answer 303

d-All of the above

Question 304

307- Ground glass appearance of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:

a- Hepatitis A.
b- Hepatitis B.
c- Hepatitis C.
d- Hepatitis E.

Answer 304

b- Hepatitis B.

Question 305

308- The principal cell type involved in scar deposition in the liver is:

a- Hepatic sinusoidal endothelial cells.
b- Hepatic stellate cells,
c- Kupffer cells.
d- Hepatocytes

Answer 305

b- Hepatic stellate cells,

Question 306

309- All the following is true about Cholangiocarcinoma EXCEPT

a. It is more common in females
b. It forms single or multiple masses grossly
c. It shows bile secretion.
d. It is an adenocarcinoma.

Answer 306

c. It shows bile secretion.

Question 307

310- Ulcerative colitis:

a. It is an autoimmune reaction resulting firom eating gluten
b. Is characterized by inflammation of all layers of the colon
c. Affects the ileum and colon
d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea

Answer 307

d. Is characterized by bloody mucoid diarrhea

Question 308

311- The following is true about Amebic dysentery:

a. It is caused by Shigella organism
b. It is a pseudomembranous inflammation
c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,
d. There is no blood in stools.

Answer 308

c. The colon shows ulcers with healthy mucosa in between,

Question 309

312- The part of the colon which is more prone to volvulus is:

a. Cecum
b. Ascending colon.
c. Descending colon
d. Sigmoid

Answer 309

d. Sigmoid

Question 310

313- The following is true about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD):

a. It is one of the types of esophageal carcinoma
b. It is the protrusion of part of the stomach into the thorax.
c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus
d. Grossly, it is a fungating mass in the esophagus

Answer 310

c. It can complicate by Barrett’s esophagus

Question 311

314- Causes of Melena include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Esophageal varices
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Carcinoma of the colon
d. Gastric tumors

Answer 311

c. Carcinoma of the colon

Question 312

315- The major site of Peptic Ulcer Disease is:

a. The ileum.
b. The duodenum
c. The jejunum
d. The caecum

Answer 312

b. The duodenum

Question 313

316- The following is true about salivary glands tumors:

a. Up to 80% occur in the parotids
b. Benign tumors are more common than malignant ones.
c. Pleomorphic adenoma is the commonest.
d. All ofthe above.

Answer 313

d. All ofthe above.

Question 314

317- Steatosis of hepatocytes is commonly seen in:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Hepatitis C.
d. Hepatitis E.

Answer 314

c. Hepatitis C.

Question 315

318- The following is true about gall stones:

a. Cholesterol stones are dark blackish
b. Pigment stones are the commonest type
c. Mixed stones are always single.
d. They predispose to cholecystitis

Answer 315

d. They predispose to cholecystitis

Question 316

319- All the following is true about hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT:

a. It is more common in females
b. The malignant cells are arranged in trabeculae that are one cell thick.
c. It shows bile secretion
d. It is an adenocarcinoma arising from bile ducts.

Answer 316

c. It shows bile secretion

Question 317

320- Which of the following is characterized microscopically by intestinal metaplasia?

a- Barrett’s esophagus
b- Acute esophagitis
c- Esophageal diverticulum
d- Achalasia

Answer 317

a- Barrett’s esophagus

Question 318

321- The most common cause of chronic gastritis is:

a- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
b- Helicobacter pylori infection
c- Chronic stress
d- Autoantibodies against parietal cells

Answer 318

b- Helicobacter pylori infection

Question 319

322- Complications of duodenal peptic ulcer do NOT include:

a- Bleeding
b- Perforation
c- Fibrosis and stricture
d- Malignant transformation

Answer 319

d- Malignant transformation

Question 320

323- Crohn’s disease is characterized by:

a- Pseudomembranous colitis
b- Rectal ulcers and pseudopolyps
c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers
d- Flask shaped ulcers in colonic mucosa

Answer 320

c- Skip lesions and serpentine ulcers

Question 321

324- Which of the following is a predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue?

a-HPV6 & 11
b- Leukoplakia
c- Primary syphilis
d- HIV

Answer 321

b- Leukoplakia

Question 322

325- Which of the following is considered a hamartomatous intestinal polyp?

a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp
b- Tubular adenoma
c- Bilharzial polyp
d- Villous adenoma

Answer 322

a- Peutz-Jeghers polyp

Question 323

326- Acute viral hepatitis is:

a. Characterized by dense portal fibrosis
b. Commonly caused by HAV
c. Characterized by shrunken liver
d. Usually associated with interface hepatitis

Answer 323

b. Commonly caused by HAV

Question 324

327- Which of the following is a metabolic cause of liver cirrhosis?

a- Budd-Chiari syndrome
b- Laennec’s cirrhosis
c- Wilson’s disease
d- Cryptogenic cirrhosis

Answer 324

c- Wilson’s disease

Question 325

328- The most common site of pancreatic carcinoma is:

a- Head of pancreas
b- Pancreatic tail
c- Main pancreatic duct
d- Body of the pancreas

Answer 325

a- Head of pancreas

Question 326

329- Acute allergic rhinitis, is an immune reaction mediated by:

a. IgG.
b. IgE.
c. Ig M.
d. None of the above

Answer 326

b. IgE.

Question 327

330- The following is a a type type of dilatation in bronchiectasis:

a. Saccular
b. Fusiform
c. Cylindrical
d. All the above

Answer 327

d. All the above

Question 328

331- The following are predisposing factors for lung cancer; Except:

a. Cigarette smoking
b. Air pollution
c. Pneumoconiosis.
d. Barrett’s disease.

Answer 328

d. Barrett’s disease.

Question 329

332- The histological findings in bronchial asthma includes:

a. Thinning of the basement membrane
b. Mucous gland hypertrophy.
c. Smooth muscle atrophy.
d. Numerous neutrophils

Answer 329

b. Mucous gland hypertrophy.

Question 330

333- General causes of Epistaxis include:

a. Trauma
b. foreign bodies
c. Tumors: angiofibroma
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency

Answer 330

d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency

Question 331

334- The Commonest Cause of multiple Lung abscesses include:

a. Aspiration lung abscess.
b. Bronchial obstruction with bronchogenic carcinoma.io
c. Pyemic absesses
d. Spread of infection from adjacent

Answer 331

c. Pyemic absesses

Question 332

335- Restrictive lung disease includes

a. Bronchiectasis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 332

d. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Question 333

336- The commonest microscopic type of bronchogenic carcinoma:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Hemangioma
c. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
d. Fibrosarcoma

Answer 333

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 334

337- Causative Organisms of Bronchopneumonia include:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Tubercle Bacilli
d. Rota virus.

Answer 334

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Question 335

338- Empyema refers to:

a Permanent over distension of air spaces
b. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
c. Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity.
d. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.

Answer 335

b. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity

Question 336

339- Empyema refers to:

a) Permanent over distension of air spaces
b) Collection of pus in the pleural cavity
c) Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity
d) Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity

Answer 336

b) Collection of pus in the pleural cavity

Question 337

340- The most common fate of lobar pneumonia is:

a) Empyema
b) Abscess formation
c) Resolution
d) Fibrosis

Answer 337

c) Resolution

Question 338

341- The following are predisposing factors for lung cancer; EXCEPT:

a) Cigarette smoking
b) Air pollution
c) Pneumoconiosis
d) Lung congestion

Answer 338

d) Lung congestion

Question 339

342- Diphtheria is a type of:

a) Catarrhal inflammation
b) Diffuse suppurative inflammation
c) Pseudomembranous inflammation
d) Allergic inflammation

Answer 339

c) Pseudomembranous inflammation

Question 340

343- The following are causes of granulomatous inflammation of the lung EXCEPT

a) Tuberculosis
b) Fungal diseases
c) Pneumonia
d) Sarcoidosis

Answer 340

c) Pneumonia

Question 341

344- The histological findings in bronchial asthma includes:

a) Thinning of the basement membrane
b) Mucous gland hypertrophy
c) Smooth muscle atrophy
d) Numerous neutrophils

Answer 341

b) Mucous gland hypertrophy

Question 342

345- Pancoast tumors are characterized by:

a) Located in the base of the lung
b) May invade the branchial or cervical sympathetic plexus
c) Benign in nature
d) Spread early by blood

Answer 342

b) May invade the branchial or cervical sympathetic plexus

Question 343

346- The most common site of Laryngeal carcinoma:

a) Glottic
b) Supraglottic
c) Infraglottic
d) Epiglottis

Answer 343

a) Glottic

Question 344

347- Acute suppurative otitis media can be complicated by:

a) Amyloidosis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Brain abscess
d) Acute tonsillitis

Answer 344

c) Brain abscess

Question 345

348- Mikulicz cells are pathognomonic for:

a) Allergic Rhinitis
b) Rhinoscleroma
c) Allergic nasal polyp
d) Sarcoidosis

Answer 345

b) Rhinoscleroma

Question 346

349- Red hepatization is associated with:

a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Lobar pneumonia
c. Bronchopneumonia
d. Pulmonary infarction

Answer 346

b. Lobar pneumonia

Question 347

350- Restrictive lung disease includes

a. Bronchiectasis
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 347

d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Question 348

351- The commonest microscopic type of bronchogenic carcinoma:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Hemangioma.
c. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
d. Fibrosarcoma.

Answer 348

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 349

352- The Commonest Cause of multiple Lung abscesses include:

a. Aspiration lung abscess
b. B ronchial obstruction with bronchogenic carcinoma.
c. Pyemic abscesses
d. Spread of infection from adjacent

Answer 349

c. Pyemic abscesses

Question 350

353- Causative Organisms of Bronchopneumonia include:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Tubercle Bacilli.
d. Rota virus.

Answer 350

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 351

354- General causes of Epistaxis include:

a. Trauma
b. Foreign bodies
c. Tumors: angiofibroma
d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency

Answer 351

d. Hypertension, hemophilia, leukemia, Vit C & K deficiency

Question 352

355- One statement is correct about Juvenile Angiofibroma

a. A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx.
b. It is a locally malignant tumor.
c. It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts
d. It is not vascular

Answer 352

a. A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx.

Question 353

356- One of the following about Rhinoscleroma is correct:

a. Grossly, the lesions appear as small soft pink polyp.
b. Microscopically, there is an acute inflammatory infiltrate involving the submucosa.
c. The inflammatory cells comprise: Mikulicz cells, Plasma cells and Russel bodies.
d. Complications include lymphatic spread

Answer 353

c. The inflammatory cells comprise: Mikulicz cells, Plasma cells and Russel bodies.

Question 354

357- Features of Adenoids include:

a. Adenoids denote hypoplastic lymphoid tissue at the posterior wall of the nasopharynx
b. It can occur in any lymph node
c. It is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria in infants and children.
d. Adenoid face is characterized by opened mouth, short upper lip, protruding upper incisors narrow nasal openings, absent nasolabial folds.

Answer 354

d. Adenoid face is characterized by opened mouth, short upper lip, protruding upper incisors narrow nasal openings, absent nasolabial folds.

Question 355

358- Diphtheria is characterized by:

a. Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria.
b. Common in adults
c. Common sites are, serous membranes.
d. Grossly, it appears as multiple abscesses.

Answer 355

a. Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria.

Question 356

359- All the following are Para neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer EXCEPT:

a) Cushing syndrome
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Excess ADH

Answer 356

b) Hypocalcemia

Question 357

360- A medical student has been complaining of frequent sneezing and watery eyes during the past several weeks, with a frequent episode during spring and summer. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be increased?

a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Neutrophils

Answer 357

a) Eosinophils

Question 358

361- One statement is CORRECT about Juvenile Angiofibroma:

a) A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx
b) It is a locally malignant tumour
c) It occurs exclusively in old males.
d) It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts

Answer 358

a) A benign mesenchymal tumor of the nasopharynx

Question 359

362- Malignant mesothelioma is characterized by:

a) Occurs in patients with Tuberculosis
b) Grossly presents as a central globular lung mass
c) Microscopically showed a biphasic malignant cells (Epithelial -+ sarcomatous)
d) Prognosis is excellent

Answer 359

c) Microscopically showed a biphasic malignant cells (Epithelial -+ sarcomatous)

Question 360

363- Concerning Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which type gives better results with irradiation:

a) Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
b) Non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma with excess lymphocytes in the stroma [lymphoepithelioma]
d) Adenocarcinoma

Answer 360

c) undifferentiated carcinoma with excess lymphocytes in the stroma [lymphoepithelioma]

Question 361

364- Complications of Acute Tonsillitis include:

a) Peritonsillar abscess (Quinzy)
b) Lymphatic spread to intestinal lymph nodes
c) Rheumatoid arthiritis
d) Chronicity: Tuberculous tonsillitis

Answer 361

a) Peritonsillar abscess (Quinzy)

Question 362

365- All the following are causes of hemoptysis EXCEPT:

a) Bronchitis, bronchiectasis, pneumonia, lung abscess
b) Chronic fibrocaseous tuberculosis
c) Chronic venous congestion of the lung
d) Vitamin D deficiency

Answer 362

d) Vitamin D deficiency

Question 363

366- Causes of granulomatous inflammation of the lung include:

a) Acute Lung abscess
b) Diphtheria
c) Tuberculosis
d) Peumothorax

Answer 363

c) Tuberculosis

Question 364

367- One statement is NOT a complication of diphtheria:

a) Asphyxia
b) Bacteraemia
c) Toxic myocarditis and acute heart failure
d) Haemorrhage and necrosis of supra-renal cortex

Answer 364

b) Bacteraemia

Question 365

368- One statement is CORRECT about nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

a) It is a locally malignant tumour.
b) It occurs exclusively in children
c) It is formed of anaplastic fibroblasts
d) It is a rare malignant neoplasm linked to EBV

Answer 365

d) It is a rare malignant neoplasm linked to EBV

Question 366

370- One of the following is NOT a cause of lung abscess:

a) Aspiration lung abscess
b) Post pneumonic abscess
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Pyemic abscess

Answer 366

c) Bronchial asthma

Question 367

371- Mikulicz cells are pathognomonic for:

a) Rhinosporidosis
b) Rhinoscleroma
c) Allergic nasal polyp.
d) Sarcoidosis.

Answer 367

b) Rhinoscleroma

Question 368

372- Acute suppurative otitis media can be complicated by:

a) Amyloidosis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Brain abscess
d) Acute tonsillitis

Answer 368

c) Brain abscess

Question 369

373- In emphysema, there is an excess of:

a) Alpha 1 anti-trypsin
b) Elastase.
c) Anti-elastase
d) None of the above

Answer 369

b) Elastase.

Question 370

374- Mesothelioma is a tumor of:

a) Larynx
b) Pleura
c) Ovary
d) Salivary gland.

Answer 370

b) Pleura

Question 371

375- The most common site of laryngeal carcinoma:

a) Glottic
b) Supraglottic
c) Infraglottic
d) Epiglottis.

Answer 371

b) Supraglottic

Question 372

376- Secondary lung tumors:

a) Are less common than primary tumors
b) Reach the lung by blood spread only.
c) Appear as discrete nodules scattered throughout the lung
d) Have a good prognosis

Answer 372

c) Appear as discrete nodules scattered throughout the lung