Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PAT 310 > MCQ Pharma > Flashcards

MCQ Pharma Flashcards

1
Q

1) One or the following anti-diabetics increases the insulin release via blocking ATP- sensitive K*-channel (K-ATP-Channels) of B -Cells of the pancreas:

a) Biguanides
b) Sulphonylurea
c) Thiazolidinediones
d) Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

A

b) Sulphonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Which of the following statements is true for oral anti-diabetic drugs?

a) Meglitinide is ineffective in regulating postprandial glucose
b) Metformin could decrease absorption of vitamin B-12
c) Pioglitazone is harmless to the liver
d) Acarbose can be used for diabetic patients suffering from gastrointestinal tract disturbances and flatulence

A

b) Metformin could decrease absorption of vitamin B-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) The mechanism of insulin secretion involves which of the following?

a) Opening of ATP-dependent potassium channels
b) Increase in intracellular calcium
c) Hyperpolarization of beta cells
d) Block of sodium channels

A

b) Increase in intracellular calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) A female who has Type 2 diabetes mellitus is obese and wishes to lose weight. Which of the following medications would you advise her to use?

a) Thyroxine supplements
b) Liraglutide
c) Sulfonylurea
d) Prednisone

A

b) Liraglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Which of the following is an adverse reaction to methimazole?

a) Teratogenicity
b) CNS toxicity
c) Vomiting
d) Renal toxicity

A

a) Teratogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) 2-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department because of fever, irritability, increased lethargy, and multiple episodes of diarrhea. The mother reported that she found her levothyroxine bottle empty a few hours earlier. Vital signs of the boy were blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg, heart rate 180 bpm, respirations 26/min. Laboratory test results on admission showed a total tri iodothyronine level of 472 ng/dL (normal: 40-130 ng/dL). Which of the following drugs should be administered first to control hormone-related effects that could be rapidly lethal in this patient?

a) Betamethasone
b) Propranolol
c) Potassium iodide
d) Propylthiouracil

A

b) Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7) Long-term administration of glucocorticoids can cause which of the following?

a) Proximal myopathy
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypotension
d) Hearing impairment

A

a) Proximal myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) Cortisol can be used in the treatment of….

a) Inflammatory bowel syndrome
b) Cataract
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Hypertension

A

a) Inflammatory bowel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) Sudden stoppage of glucocorticoids after prolonged use may result In……..

a) Parkinsonism
b) Angina
c) Acute adrenal insufficiency
d) Hypertension

A

c) Acute adrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) Which of the following is alpha-glucosidase inhibitor?

a) Glimepiride
b) Canagliflozin
c) Pramlintide
d) Acarbose

A

d) Acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?

a) Acarbose
b) Glyburide
c) Metformin
d) Rosiglitazone

A

b) Glyburide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) Which of the following insulin preparations can be given intravenously?

a) Neutral Protamine Insulin
b) Insulin glargine
c) Regular soluble insulin
d) Insulin detemir

A

c) Regular soluble insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is on insulin. He is going to have surgery. Which of the following therapeutic regimens would you choose?

a) Shift to a sulfonylurea
b) Shift to metformin
c) Keep using insulin
d) Stop insulin for some time

A

c) Keep using insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) A 53-ycar-old woman recently diagnosed with hyperthyroidism Blurted an appropriate treatment. One month later, the following laboratory values were obtained: Red blood cell count (RBC): 4.6 x 10^6/mmJ (normal 4.0-5,5 x I0^6/mm.1), White blood cell count (WBC): 0.6 x l0^3/mm3 (normal 3.2—9.8 x l0^6/mm3), Platelets 180 x 103/mm3 (normal 140-400 x |()6/min’). Which of the following drugs most likely caused these results?

a) Radioactive iodine
b) Potassium iodide
c) Methimazole
d) Propranolol

A

c) Methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15) Which of the following Is a drawback of radioactive Iodine therapy?

a) Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients
b) Therapeutic effect is reversible by time.
c) Rapid onset but short duration of action
d) Difficulty in administration

A

a) Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) Which of the following Is a very potent mineralocorticoid?

a) Cortisol
b) Prednisolone
c) Prednisone
d) Fludrocortisone

A

d) Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17) Which of the following Is one of adverse effects of glucocorticoids?

a) Hypotension
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Delays healing of wounds

A

d) Delays healing of wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) Glucocorticoids have been proven useful In the treatment of which of the following medical conditions?

a) Heart failure
b) Glaucoma
c) Skin allergy
d) Angina

A

c) Skin allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) The following Is used In hypoglycemia coma If the patient could not take oral glucose:

a) Liraglutide
b) Canagliflozin
c) Glucagon
d) Sitagliptin

A

c) Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents arc often associated with weight gain In type 2 diabetic patients?

a) Metformin
b) a-Glucosidase inhibitors
c) Gliptins (DPP-4 inhibitors)
d) Thiazolidinediones.

A

a) Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) Insulin Lispro is:

a) An ultra-short acting insulin analogue
b) A premixed insulin
c) An intermediate acting insulin
d) A human recombinant insulin

A

a) An ultra-short acting insulin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

22) Which of the following is an antidiabetic drug that enhances GLP-1 action and can be given orally?

a) Pramlintide
b) Liraglutide
c) Sitagliptin
d) Exenatide

A

c) Sitagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23) A 33-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital because of anorexia, malaise, jaundice, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for the past 2 days. The woman, who was 2 months’ pregnant, was diagnosed with hyperthyroidism 1 month ago and started an appropriate therapy. Pertinent lab results on admission included alanine aminotransferase of 410 U/L (normal 20-40 U/L). Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient’s disorder?

a) Methimazole
b) Radioactive iodine
c) Propylthiouracil
d) Propranolol

A

c) Propylthiouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24) Which of the following best describes the relationship between food and thyroid hormones?

a) Thyroid hormones should be taken with food.
b) Thyroid hormones are best taken on empty stomach.
c) Food does not affect absorption of thyroid hormones.
d) Dairy products increase absorption of thyroid hormones.

A

b) Thyroid hormones are best taken on empty stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

25) Which of the following describes the effect of hydrocortisone on renal excretion of electrolytes?

a) It increases both K+ and Ca2+ excretion.
b) It decreases both K+ and Ca2+ excretion.
c) It decreases K+ but increases Ca2+ excretion.
d) It increases K but decreases Ca2 excretion.

A

a) It increases both K+ and Ca2+ excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

26) Cortisol is contraindicated in

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Bronchial asthma
c) Osteoporosis
d) Acute Addisonian Crisis

A

c) Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

27) Patients on long term glucocorticoids should take diet

a) rich in protein
b) rich in Na
c) low inCa2+
d) low in K+

A

a) rich in protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

28) One of the following is a Di-Peptidyl Peptidase-4 inhibitor:

a) Liraglutide
b) Canagliflozin
c) Glibenclamide
d) Sitagliptin

A

d) Sitagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

29) Which of the following diabetes drugs acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver?

a) Sulfonylureas
b) Meglitinides
c) Biguanides
d) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

c) Biguanides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

30) Which of the following insulin preparations produces constant basal insulin level and action?

a) Neutral Protamine Insulin
b) Insulin glargine
c) Regular soluble insulin
d) Insulin Aspart

A

b) Insulin glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

31) Which of the following is a common adverse effect of metformin?

a) Lactic acidosis
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Weight gain
d) Osteoporosis

A

a) Lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

32) A 43-year-old man was undergoing surgery to remove a very large nontoxic goiter, apparently due to iodide deficiency. A short course of potassium iodide was
administered before surgery. Which of the following statements best explains why this drug was given to the patient?

a) To overcome iodine deficiency after surgery
b) To reduce the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland
c) To stimulate thyroid hormone synthesis before surgery
d) To decrease the risk of hypothyroidism after surge

A

b) To reduce the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

33) Agranulocytosis is a side effect characteristic to which of the following drugs?

a) Carbimazole
b) T3
c) Propranolol
d) Iodine

A

a) Carbimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

34) Hydrocortisone inhibits which of the following enzymes?

a) Tyrosine kinase
b) Phospholipase A2
c) Cyclo-oxygenase
d) Protien kinase

A

b) Phospholipase A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

35) Which of the following is a therapeutic indication of glucocorticoids?

a) Osteoporosis
b) Megaloblastic anemia
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Bronchial asthma

A

d) Bronchial asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

36) Which of the following is the most likely to be increased due to the use of glucocorticoids?

a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Protein synthesis
c) Circulating eosinophils
d) Circulating lymphocytes

A

a) Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

37) One of the following is a synthetic analog of Glucagon like Peptide-1 used subcutaneously:

a) Liraglutide
b) Canagliflozin
c) Glimepiride
d) Sitagliptin

A

a) Liraglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

38) Which of the following regimens offers the best blood glucose control for persons with type 1 diabetes?

a) A single anti-diabetes drugs
b) Once daily insulin injections
c) A combination of oral anti-diabetic medications
d) Three or four injections per day of different types of insulin.

A

d) Three or four injections per day of different types of insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

39) Which of the following insulin preparations would be the MOST suitable to give in two daily doses to fully control blood glucose, basally and with meals?

a) Insulin aspart
b) Regular soluble insulin
c) Premixed 70%NPH + 30% regular insulin
d) Insulin detemir

A

c) Premixed 70%NPH + 30% regular insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

40) Which of the following drugs acts by reducing hepatic glucose production by activating the enzyme AMP-dependent protein kinase?

a) Pioglitazone
b) Glyburide
c) Metformin
d) Pramlintide

A

c) Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

41) Which of the following is a precaution with the treatment of patients with myxoedema coma?

a) Give thyroxine orally
b) Use cold fomentations
c) Give insulin with thyroxine
d) Give a loading dose of T4

A

c) Give insulin with thyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

42) Carbimazole acts by inhibiting

a) Iodide trapping.
b) Oxidation of iodide & iodination of tyrosine.
c) Proteolysis of thyroglobulin.
d) Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein

A

b) Oxidation of iodide & iodination of tyrosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

43) In which of the following diseases are corticosteroids indicated?

a) Peptic ulcer
b) Glucoma
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Tuberculosis

A

c) Bronchial asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

44) Acute adrenal insufficiency is treated by;

a) Oral fludrocortisone
b) IV cortisol
c) Methimazole
d) Propranolol

A

b) IV cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

45) Which of the following drugs is a long-acting glucocorticoid, with effect that lasts for 36-55 hours?

a) Dexamethasone
b) Cortisone
c) Methimazole
d) Buspirone

A

a) Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

46) Which of the following is sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor:

a) Liraglutide
b) Dapagliflozin
c) Pramlintide
d) Vildagliptin

A

b) Dapagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

47) Which of the following is NOT a rapid acting insulin analog?

a) Insulin Lispro
b) Insulin Glulisine
c) Insulin Glargine
d) Insulin Aspart

A

c) Insulin Glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

48) Which of the following is a temporary indication of Insulin after which the patient can go back to oral antidiabetic therapy?

a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
b) Undergoing a surgical operation
c) Renal impairment
d) Type 1 diabetes

A

b) Undergoing a surgical operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

49) Which of the following will decrease the hypoglycemic effect of sulfonylureas?

a) Phenytoin
b) NSAIDs
c) Beta blockers
d) Alcohol

A

c) Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

50) A 35 years old female patient with hyperthyroidism was prescribed carbimazole. After three weeks she called her doctor complaining of sore throat. She was advised to perform complete blood picture examination promptly. Which side effect is her doctor trying to discover?

a) Agranulocytosis
b) Allergy
c) Teratogenic effect
d) Overdose

A

a) Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

51) The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is.

a) Lugol’s iodine.
b) Radioactive iodine
c) Carbimazole.
d) Methimazole

A

a) Lugol’s iodine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

52) A glucocorticoid with pure glucocorticoid and no mineralocorticoid activity is…

a) Cortisone
b) Prednisolone
c) Fludrocortisone
d) Dexamethasone

A

d) Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

53) Which of the following is a therapeutic indication of glucocorticoids?

a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Cardiogenic edema
c) Cushing syndrome
d) Myopathy

A

a) Anaphylactic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

54) The following drug is used in therapy of endometriosis:

a) Danazol
b) Estradiol
c) Finasteride
d) Flutamide

A

a) Danazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

55) Lactic acidosis is an adverse effect of which of the following?

a) Biguanides.
b) Sulfonylureas.
c) Thiazolidinediones.
d) Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors.

A

a) Biguanides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

56) Which of the following drugs is an analog of amylin that inhibits glucagon secretion?

a) Exenatide.
b) Glipizide.
c) Pramlintide.
d) Rosiglitazone.

A

c) Pramlintide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

57) Which of the following is a non-diabetes indication of insulin?

a) Treatment of obesity.
b) Depression.
c) Hyperkalemia with renal failure.
d) With thyroxine for myxedema.

A

c) Hyperkalemia with renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

58) Compared to sulfonylurea, which of the following characterizes repaglinide?

a) No hepatic metabolism.
b) Not an insulin secretagogue.
c) Causes less sever hypoglycemia.
d) Can be used in Type 1 diabetics with no insulin reserve.

A

c) Causes less sever hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

59) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of iodides?

a) Inhibition of conversion of iodide to iodine.
b) Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones.
c) Blocking the conversion of T4 to T3.
d) Destruction of thyroid gland cells by radioactivity.

A

b) Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

60) What makes propranolol useful in the management of thyroid storm?

a) It decreases thyroxine release.
b) It stimulates peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
c) It controls peripheral manifestations of hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
d) It decreases gland response to TSH.

A

c) It controls peripheral manifestations of hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

61) Which of the following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their protein catabolic activity?

a) Osteoporosis.
b) Rise in blood pressure.
c) ‘Moon face’.
d) Heart failure.

A

a) Osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

62) The sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoids after prolonged use results in which of the following?

a) Hypertensive crisis.
b) Angina.
c) Acute adrenal insufficiency.
d) Convulsions.

A

c) Acute adrenal insufficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

63) Which of the following is TRUE about adrenostatics?

a) Metyrapone destroys adrenocortical cells.
b) Cabergoline inhibits ACTH secretion.
c) Aminoglutethimide stimulates the first step in steroid synthesis.
d) Pasireotide is a growth hormone analogue.

A

b) Cabergoline inhibits ACTH secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

64) Which of the following drugs is a useful drug in treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?

a) Leuprolide.
b) Metformin.
c) Alendronate.
d) Prednisone.

A

c) Alendronate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

65) Which of the followings is a serious adverse effect of hormonal contraception?

a) Weight loss.
b) Bronchoconstriction.
c) Thromboembolism.
d) Gastrointestinal upset

A

c) Thromboembolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

66) Which of the following drugs binds to specific nuclear receptor (Peroxisome- Proliferator-Activator Receptor-Gamma = PPAR-y) in insulin-sensitive tissues?

a) Metformin.
b) Rosiglitazone.
c) Vildagliptin.
d) Canagliflozin.

A

b) Rosiglitazone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

67) A 54-year-old obese patient with type 2 diabetes and a history of alcoholism probably should not receive metformin because it can increase his risk of:

a) disulfiram-like reaction.
b) excessive weight gain.
c) hypoglycemia.
d) lactic acidosis

A

a) disulfiram-like reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

68) Which of the following is the most suitable treatment of hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient?

a) Oral glucose.
b) IV glucose 5%.
c) SC glucagon.
d) IV adrenaline.

A

c) SC glucagon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

69) Which of the following is the most commonly encountered side effect of sulfonylurea use?

a) Agranulocytosis.
b) Somogyi effect.
c) Cholestatic jaundice.
d) Hypoglycemia.

A

d) Hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

70) A 34 years old female patient was diagnosed with myxedema coma. Both levothyroxine and liothyronine were available but it was decided to give her levothyroxine (T4). Which of the following could be a logical reason for this choice?

a) The patient has a cardiac disease and levothyroxine would be safer to the heart.
b) Levothyroxine would have a faster onset of action.
c) It would be possible to give levothyroxine orally in that case, but it would not be possible to give liothyronine orally.
d) It would not be necessary to give corticosteroids if we give levothyroxine, but not if we give liothyronine.

A

b) Levothyroxine would have a faster onset of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

71) A patient with hyperthyroidism is going to perform surgery to remove most of the hyperfunctioning gland. Which of the following drugs can be used to prepare her for surgery one week before the operation and would decrease the release of hormones from the gland?

a) Potassium iodide.
b) Propranolol.
c) Cabergoline.
d) A somatostatin analogue.

A

a) Potassium iodide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

72) Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of corticosteroids?

a) Diabetes mellitus.
b) Rheumatoid arthritis.
c) Lymphoma.
d) Replacement therapy in adrenal insufficiency.

A

d) Replacement therapy in adrenal insufficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

73) The therapeutic indications of corticosteroids include which of the following?

a) Growth retardation in children.
b) Heart failure.
c) Chickenpox.
d) Osteoarthritis.

A

d) Osteoarthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

74) Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia?

a) Aldosterone.
b) Cortisol.
c) Dexamethasone.
d) Spironolactone.

A

b) Cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

75) Aromatase inhibitors are used in:

a) contraception.
b) induction of ovulation.
c) postmenopausal hot flushes.
d) osteoporosis.

A

b) induction of ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

76) A male patient 5o years old diabetic patient diagnosed recently with heart failure. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs could aggravate his symptoms of heart
failure?

a) Canagliflozin
b) Saxagliptin
c) Acarbose
d) Exenatide

A

a) Canagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

77) The mechanism of action of insulin involves which of the following?

a) Interaction with intracellular receptors
b) Activation of tryosine kinase-linked receptor
c) Action on G-protein coupled receptors
d) Opening of sodium channel

A

d) Opening of sodium channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

78) For a diabetic patient, gradual increase in the insulin dose needed over the years can point to which of the following phenomena?

a) Somogyi effect
b) Insulin resistance
c) Hypersensitivity
d) Idiosyncrasy

A

b) Insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

79) Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse effect of sulfonyiureas?

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Secondary failure
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Weight gain

A

c) Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

80) Which of the following characterizes the management of myxoedema coma?

a) Treatment is given orally depending on the enhanced absorption from the intestine in those patients.
b) Thyroxine will be enough to control associated hormonal deficiencies.
c) A loading dose of levothyroxine is not needed before giving maintenance doses
d) Liothyronine is more cardiotoxic than Levothroxine.

A

d) Liothyronine is more cardiotoxic than Levothroxine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

81) Which of the following would be the most suitable anti-thyroid treatment for a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism in her third trimester?

a) Carbimazole
b) Liothyronine
c) I131
d) Lugol’s iodine

A

a) Carbimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

82) Which of the following measures can minimize pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy?

a) Use of betamethasone In place of prednisolone
b) Use of prednisolone on alternate days
c) Dividing the dully dose In three equal hourly doses
d) Administration of the total dally dose al bedtime

A

b) Use of prednisolone on alternate days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

83) A 34-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis has required long term therapy with high dose of cortisol. Which of the following Is expected to be an annoying adverse effect?

a) Adrenal gland neoplasm
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Osteoporosis
d) Psychic depression

A

c) Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

84) Cortisol has the following kinetic property:

a) It is metabolized to an active compound,
b) It is mainly excreted unchanged in the urine
c) It is distributed all over the body
d) It has a half-life of 7 days,

A

a) It is metabolized to an active compound,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

85) A 30-year-woman suffered from severe vaginal bleeding and was diagnosed with tumor of the placenta. Her treatment was decided to be a progesterone antagonist. Which of the following would be suitable?

a) Ethinyl estradiol
b) Diethylstilbestrol
c) Mifepristone
d) Mestranol

A

c) Mifepristone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

86) A male diabetic patient whoso creatine clearance was found to be less than SO ml/min. Which sulphonylurea Is contraindicated In such ease?

a) Glyburide
b) Glipizide
c) Gliclazide
d) Glimepiride

A

a) Glyburide

87
Q

87) Which of the following Insulin preparations can be given Intravenously?

a) Neutral Protamine Insulin
b) Insulin glargine
c) Regular soluble insulin
d) Insulin detemir

A

c) Regular soluble insulin

88
Q

88) Which of (he following oral antidiabetics would Increase glucosuria?

a) Pramlintide
b) Metformin
c) Rosiglitazone
d) Canagliflozin

A

d) Canagliflozin

89
Q

89) Which of the following Is a permanent absolute contra-indication for the use of sulfonylureas?

a) Pregnancy
b) Sever Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c) Stress
d) Mild renal impairment

A

a) Pregnancy

90
Q

90) Which of the following would be a suitable treatment of hyperthyroidism for a 55 years old patient who is unfit for surgery and who failed to be controlled with carbimazole?

a) Propylthiouracil
b) Radioactive iodine
c) Propranolol
d) Thyrotropin

A

b) Radioactive iodine

91
Q

91) Which of the following is a mechanism of action of carbimazole?

a) Inhibition of oxidation of iodide to iodine
b) Inhibition of deiodination of T4
c) Destruction of thyroid cells
d) Inhibition of thyroid hormones release

A

a) Inhibition of oxidation of iodide to iodine

92
Q

92) Which of the following is an adverse effect of sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoids?

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hypertension
c) Edema
d) Convulsions

A

a) Hypoglycemia

93
Q

93) Diet of a patient under cortisol therapy should be:

a) Low in calcium
b) High in sodium
c) High in carbohydrates
d) High in potassium

A

d) High in potassium

94
Q

94) The use of glucocorticoids for cases with auto-immune diseases makes use mostly of which property?

a) Anti-stress
b) Calcium lowering action
c) Reduction of cytokines
d) Catabolic action

A

c) Reduction of cytokines

95
Q

95) Progesterone is added to estrogen in postmenopausal hormonal therapy to decrease incidence of:

a) Vaginal atrophy
b) Endometrial carcinoma
c) Hot flushes
d) Weight gain

A

b) Endometrial carcinoma

96
Q

1) The following drug is used in treatment of benzodiazepine toxicity:

a) Zoledronic acid
b) Naloxone
c) Flurazepam
d) Flumazenil

A

d) Flumazenil

97
Q

2) The following drug is an ultra-short acting barbiturate used in IV anesthesia:

a) Buspirone
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Thiopentone
d) Propranolol

A

c) Thiopentone

98
Q

3) Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative?

a) Fentanyl
b) Morphine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine

A

b) Morphine

99
Q

4) Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in combination with droperidol in neuroleptanalgesia?

a) Morphine
b) Buprenorphine
c) Fentanyl
d) Morphine

A

b) Buprenorphine

100
Q

5) It is recommended to add atropine to morphine when used in:

a) Acute left ventricular failure
b) Renal colic
c) Cancer pain
d) Treatment of morphine addiction.

A

b) Renal colic

101
Q

6) Antipyretic analgesics differ from narcotic analgesics as they:

a) Produce narcosis
b) Relieve pain at a central and peripheral level
c) Produce dependence
d) Are more potent especially in visceral pain

A

b) Relieve pain at a central and peripheral level

102
Q

7) Salicylates can produce bronchial asthma through increase production of:

a) Kinins
b) Interferon
c) Thromboxane A2
d) Leukotrienes

A

d) Leukotrienes

103
Q

8) The following action of diclofenac augments its anti-inflammatory action:

a) Blockade leukotriene receptors
b) Increase blood cortisol level
c) Incorporate Arachidonic acid into Triglycerides
d) Induce cyclooxygenase II enzyme

A

c) Incorporate Arachidonic acid into Triglycerides

104
Q

9) Concerning the proposed mechanisms of action of antidepressant drugs, which statement is accurate?

a) Bupropion is one of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
b) Chronic treatment with tricyclic antidepressants leads to significant sedative effects.
c) TCA are preferred in cardiac patients.
d) Nefazodone one of the potent MAO inhibitors

A

b) Chronic treatment with tricyclic antidepressants leads to significant sedative effects.

105
Q

10) A female patient Is experiencing a depressive episode as part of her bipolar illness. She is been prescribed fluoxetine as monotherapy. Which of the following is anticipated to occur?

a) Relief of depression.
b) Aggravation of depression.
c) Provocation of acute manic attack.
d) Reduction of the dose of lithium carbonate

A

c) Provocation of acute manic attack.

106
Q

11) Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause vasospasm and we cannot use it with patient has Raynaud’s disease?

a) Bromocriptine
b) Amantadine
c) Selegiline
d) Anticolinergics

A

a) Bromocriptine

107
Q

12) Carbidopa is useful in the management of Parkinson’s disease because it is an:

a) Effective D2 agonist
b) Effective D2 antagonist
c) Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
d) Effective competitor at the GABA receptor

A

c) Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor

108
Q

13) A patient was prescribed a typical antipsychotic. Upon intake of the antipsychotic, he suffered fever, exceeding 40°C and uncontrolled tremors as if shivering. He was diagnosed as having neurolept malignant syndrome. What should he be prescribed to resolve such medical emergency?

a) A dopamine agonist.
b) A dopamine antagonist.
c) A muscle relaxant.
d) An antipyretic analgesic.

A

c) A muscle relaxant.

109
Q

14) CNS actions of chlorpromazine include all of the following except:

a) Emetic action
b) Hypothermia
c) Increase appetite
d) Increase prolactin

A

a) Emetic action

110
Q

15) Antiepileptic drug that is used in treatment of ventricular arrhythmia with heart block:

a) Valproate
b) Ethothuximide
c) Lamotrigin
d) Phenytoin

A

d) Phenytoin

111
Q

16) The following drug Is a methylxanthine derivative and used In treatment of Intermittent claudication:

a) Atropine
b) Pentoxifylline
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Fentanyl

A

b) Pentoxifylline

112
Q

17) Exercise with eating behavior modification should be the main line of management of obese patients with BMI:

a) 30
b) 27
c) 25
d) 40

A

b) 27

113
Q

18) Adverse effects of benzodiazepines Include:

a) Convulsions
b) Insomnia
c) Migraine
d) Addiction

A

d) Addiction

114
Q

19) Drug used orally to maintain the Opiate-free state of treated addict:

a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Diphenoxylate
d) Loperamide

A

a) Naltrexone

115
Q

20) If a patient received penicillin antibiotic, and he suffered itching pain. Which of the following medications aggravate itching?

a) Hydrocortisone
b) Morphine
c) Adrenaline
d) Naloxone

A

b) Morphine

116
Q

21) Benzodiazepines produce their actions on the CNS by:

a) Acting as agonists on GABA-B receptors
b) Reduction of the effect of GABA on GABA-A receptors
c) Potentiation of the effect of GABA on GABA-A receptors
d) Acting as antagonists on GABA-B receptors

A

c) Potentiation of the effect of GABA on GABA-A receptors

117
Q

22) Which one of the following antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity??

a) Imipramine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Trazodone

A

b) Amitriptyline

118
Q

23) Which of the following effects of salicylates on blood is an idiosyncratic reaction?

a) Hypoprothrombinemia
b) Decrease elevated erythrocytic sedimentation rate
c) Hemolysis
d) Decrease platelet aggregation

A

c) Hemolysis

119
Q

24) The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of
their:

a) Low antidepressant efficacy
b) Higher toxicity
c) Potential to interact with many foods and drugs
d) Both ‘B’ and ’C are correct

A

c) Potential to interact with many foods and drugs

120
Q

25) Select the psychotropic drug having a narrow safety margin, necessitating plasma concentration monitoring:

a) Chlorpromazine
b) Buspirone
c) Lithium carbonate
d) Fluoxetine

A

c) Lithium carbonate

121
Q

26) A 30 years woman complains of the inability to get pregnant, her serum prolactin levels were found to be elevated. What is the best treatment for her?

a) Bromocriptine
b) Amantadine
c) Selegiline
d) Entacapone

A

a) Bromocriptine

122
Q

27) Which of the following antiparkinsonian medications is contraindicated in case of concomitant benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a) Selegiline
b) Levodopa
c) Bromocryptine.
d) Biperiden.

A

d) Biperiden.

123
Q

28) Which of the following is a first step in analgesic ladder ?

a) Acetaminophen
b) Fentanyl
c) Codeine
d) Methadone

A

a) Acetaminophen

124
Q

29) For an epileptic fit that lasted more than 10 minutes and did not respond to alprazolam, which of the following would be given next?

a) Midazolam
b) Propofol
c) Carbamazepine
d) Phenytoin

A

d) Phenytoin

125
Q

30) One of the following drugs is a CNS stimulant

a) Caffeine
b) Lorazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) Phenobarbitone

A

a) Caffeine

126
Q

31) A young boy who has been treated for epilepsy for a year is referred to a dentist for evaluation of gingival hyperplasia. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs was the most likely cause of this oral pathology?

a) Gabapentin
b) Valproic acid
c) Clonazepam
d) Phenytoin

A

d) Phenytoin

127
Q

32) One of the following Is a drug that is useful to Initiate sleep:

a) Temazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Flurazepam

A

b) Triazolam

128
Q

33) Which of the following opioid receptor types is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors.
c) Mu-receptors
d) All of the above

A

c) Mu-receptors

129
Q

34) In a rehabilitation center for addiction, clonidine is used to:

a) Reduce hyperalgesia during withdrawal symptoms.
b) Block mu opioid receptors.
c) Boost the activity of methadone.
d) Replace morphine.

A

a) Reduce hyperalgesia during withdrawal symptoms.

130
Q

35) Compared to morphine, meperidine has:

a) A better analgesic activity
b) More antitussive effect
c) Increased safety regarding respiratory depression
d) No interaction with MAOIs.

A

c) Increased safety regarding respiratory depression

131
Q

36) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the pharmacokinetics of Salicylates?

a) Highly bound to plasma protein
b) Absorbed more from stomach
c) Excreted mainly unchanged in the urine
d) Can’t pass intact meninges

A

a) Highly bound to plasma protein

132
Q

37) Paracetamol can produce the following side effect as overdose toxicity sign:

a) Gastric irritation
b) Bronchospasm
c) Bleeding tendency
d) Hepatotoxicity

A

d) Hepatotoxicity

133
Q

38) Toxicity of tricyclic antidepressants is best managed by:

a) NaHCo3
b) Atropine
c) Flumazenil
d) Morphine

A

a) NaHCo3

134
Q

39) Which of the following adverse effects Is expected to occur when long-term lithium carbonate is administered?

a) Hypothyroidism
b) Tardive dyskinesia
c) Mood disorders
d) Aggression and violence

A

a) Hypothyroidism

135
Q

40) Co-analgesics include which of the following?

a) Codeine
b) Gabapentin
c) Aspirin
d) Oxycodone

A

b) Gabapentin

136
Q

41) Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is hepatic microsomal enzyme inhibitor?

a) Ethosuximide
b) Sodium valproate
c) Phenytoin
d) Phenobarbitone

A

b) Sodium valproate

137
Q

42) Which of the following antipsychotics is combined with fentanyl in I.V neurolept analgesia?

a) Droperidol
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Clozapine
d) Thioridazine

A

a) Droperidol

138
Q

43) Treatment of tramadol toxicity is:

a) Dapoxetine
b) Ondansetron
c) Diphenoxylate.
d) Loperamide

A

b) Ondansetron

139
Q

44) Which of the following is inhibited by morphine?

a) Endorphins
b) Substance P
c) Seizures
d) Antidiuretic hormone

A

b) Substance P

140
Q

45) Which of the following effects of salicylates can be mediated through inhibition of Kallikrein enzymes?

a) Antipyretic effect
b) Anti-rheumatic effect
c) Keratolytic effect
d) Fungistatic effect

A

b) Anti-rheumatic effect

141
Q

46) A 36-year-old woman presents with symptoms of major depression that are unrelated to a general medical condition, Drug treatment is to be initiated with sertraline. In your information to the patient, you would tell her that:

a) Sertraline needs just 24 hours to become effective
b) It is preferable that she take the drug in the morning
c) It increase level of epinephrine
d) It has atropine like action

A

b) It is preferable that she take the drug in the morning

142
Q

47) Imipramlne produces the following actions except:

a) Euphoria
b) Dryness of mouth
c) Tachycardia
d) Lowering of seizure threshold

A

a) Euphoria

143
Q

48) A patient on antipsychotic medication blocking D2 receptors, is suffering iatrogenic parkinsonism, the best treatment option would be:

a) benztropine.
b) bromocriptine
c) Ievodopa
d) dopamine

A

a) benztropine.

144
Q

49) Tardive dyskinesia is related to:

a) Downregulation of dopamine D2 receptors
b) Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics
c) Supersensitivity to dopamine D2 receptors blockade
d) Allergic reaction to typical antipsychotics

A

b) Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics

145
Q

50) Which of the following is effective in treatment of petit mal epilepsy?

a) Ethothuximide
b) Carbamazepin
c) Phenytoin
d) Phenobarbitone

A

a) Ethothuximide

146
Q

48) A patient on antipsychotic medication blocking D2 receptors, is suffering iatrogenic parkinsonism, the best treatment option would be:

a) benztropine.
b) bromocriptine
c) levodopa
d) dopamine

A

a) benztropine.

147
Q

49) Tardive dysldnesia is related to:

a) Downregulation of dopamine D2 receptors
b) Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics
c) Supersensitivity to dopamine D2 receptors blockade
d) Allergic reaction to typical antipsychotics

A

b) Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics

148
Q

50) Which of the following is effective in treatment of petit mal epilepsy?

a) Ethothuximide
b) Carbamazepin
c) Phenytoin
d) Phenobarbitone

A

a) Ethothuximide

149
Q

51) Which of the following is Bz receptor antagonist:

a) zolpidem
b) zopiclone
c) flumazenil
d) lorazepam

A

c) flumazenil

150
Q

52) Regarding mechanisms of action of morphine, which of the following is TRUE?

a) A full agonist at opioid receptors
meperidine. What should the physician do?
b) It opens calcium channels and increases the release of neurotransmitters.
c) It enhances the effects of naloxone.
d) It increases the release of endogenous endorphins.

A

a) A full agonist at opioid receptors
meperidine. What should the physician do?

151
Q

53) A female patient is receiving an antidepressant of the MAO inhibitors category. She is going to undergo an appendicectomy operation. Her physician is going to give her meperidine. What should the physician do?

a) Add atropine to meperidine
b) Increase the dose of meperidine
c) Consult a psychiatric to modify antidepressant dose
d) Consult a psychiatric to replace MAO inhibitor

A

d) Consult a psychiatric to replace MAO inhibitor

152
Q

Which of the following opioid analgesics induces withdrawal syndrome when given to a morphine addict?

a) Fentanyl
b) Nalbuphine
c) Meperidine
d) Methadone

A

b) Nalbuphine

153
Q

55) Which of the following Is an endocrinal action of chlorpromazine?

a) Increase FSH release,
b) Decrease prolactin release
c) Increase TSH release
d) Decrease ACTH release

A

d) Decrease ACTH release

154
Q

56) NSAID-induced peptic ulcer can be treated by:

a) Zileuton
b) Montelukast
c) Paracetamol
d) Misoprostol

A

d) Misoprostol

155
Q

57) A 34-year-old male patient who was prescribed citalopram for depression has decided he wants to stop taking the drug. When questioned, he said that it was affecting his sexual performance. You ascertain that he is also trying to overcome his dependency on tobacco products. If you decide to reinstitute drug therapy in this patient, the best choice would be

a) Amitriptyline
b) Bupropion
c) Fluoxetine
d) Imipramine

A

b) Bupropion

156
Q

58) Which of the following best describes ‘cheese reaction’?

a) An allergy to certain types of cheese
b) Reduced absorption of an antidepressant after eating cheese
c) An interaction between tyramine and selegiline
d) Gut upset when taking alpha blockers with a cheese-containing food.

A

c) An interaction between tyramine and selegiline

157
Q

59) An anti-psychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:

a) Anti-cholinergics
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine

A

a) Anti-cholinergics

158
Q

60) Neurolept analgesia occurs when the patient is given fentanyl with:

a) Desipramine
b) Diazepam
c) Droperidol
d) Dantrolene

A

c) Droperidol

159
Q

61) The following is an antiviral drug with anti-parkinson’s properties:

a) Procyclidine
b) Pergolide
c) Amantadine
d) Levodopa

A

c) Amantadine

160
Q

62) One of the following is used in the management of early status epilepticus:

a) valproate
b) propofol
c) thiopental
d) lorazepam

A

d) lorazepam

161
Q

63) To which category of antidepressants docs fluoxetine belong?

a) Tricyclic antidepressants.
b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
d) Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

A

c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

162
Q

64) Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of morphine or heroin addiction?

a) Meperidine
b) Naloxone
c) Fentanyl
d) Methadone

A

d) Methadone

163
Q

65) Large Dose of Lomotil (Diphenoxylate + atropine) especially in Children leads to:

a) Flush
b) Vomiting
c) Asphyxia
d) Diarrhea

A

a) Flush

164
Q

65) Large Dose of Lomotil (Diphenoxylate + atropine) especially in Children leads to:

a) Flush
b) Vomiting
c) Asphyxia
d) Diarrhea

A

a) Flush

165
Q

67) An antimalarial drug inhibits activation of T-lymphocytes & Stabilizes the lysosomes can be used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:

a) Methotrexate
b) Sulfasalazine
c) Chloroquine
d) Rituximab

A

c) Chloroquine

166
Q

68) Irreversible gum hyperplasia may be produced by:

a) Lamotrigine
b) Ethosuximide
c) Valproate
d) Phenytoin

A

d) Phenytoin

167
Q

69) A mother called the hospital crying because her daughter is attempting to commit suicide and has been crying for hours. The girl was maintained on moclobemide, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. The mother told the hospital she gave her a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, aftenvards the girl had severe tremors, felt palpitations and was delirious. How would you explain such symptoms?

a) Serotonin syndrome
b) Autonomic manifestations of suicidal depression
c) Concurrent illness
d) Clonidine overdose

A

a) Serotonin syndrome

168
Q

70) A 30 years woman complains of the inability to get pregnant, her serum prolactin
levels were found to be elevated. What is the best treatment for her?

a) Bromocriptine
b) Amantadine
c) Selegiline
d) Entacapone

A

a) Bromocriptine

169
Q

71) Which of the following peripheral enzymes reduces the delivery of Icvodopa to the
brain?

a) Central dopa decarboxylase
b) Peripheral dopa decarboxylase
c) Monoamine oxidase-B
d) Acetylcholinc-esterase

A

b) Peripheral dopa decarboxylase

170
Q

72) To reduce the incidence of long-term complications with levodopa, it is advisable to:

a) reduce the frequency of levodopa intake
b) administer slow-release preparations
c) avoid combination with dopaminergic agonists
d) combine with a muscarinic agonist

A

b) administer slow-release preparations

171
Q

73) Cheese reaction is one of recognized adverse effects of which of the following drugs

a) MAO inhibitors
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c) Tricyclic Antidepressants
d) Serotonin Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRls)

A

a) MAO inhibitors

172
Q

74) Which of the following is correct regarding colchicine Actions?

a) It is effective in all types of arthritis
b) Inhibits uric acid synthesis
c) Inhibits phagocytosis of Mono-sodium urate crystals
d) It has uricosuric effect

A

c) Inhibits phagocytosis of Mono-sodium urate crystals

173
Q

75) Adverse effects of benzodiazepines include:

a) Convulsions
b) Insomnia
c) Migraine
d) Addiction

A

d) Addiction

174
Q

76) Which of the following opioid receptor types is responsible for euphoria and
respiratory depression?

a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) All of the above

A

c) Mu-receptors

175
Q

77) The rationale of administering morphine in a case of acute pulmonary edema due to
left ventricular failure is that:

a) morphine increases sympathetic drive to the heart, enhancing contractility.
b) morphine causes vasoconstriction, reverting hypotension.
c) morphine causes bronchodilatation, ameliorating respiration and blood oxygenation.
d) morphine reduces both preload and afterload.

A

d) morphine reduces both preload and afterload.

176
Q

78) Which or the following applies to the actions of morphine?

a) Morphine increases HRC.
b) Morphine increases ACTH.
c) Morphine increases cough.
d) Morphine increases intrabiliary pressure.

A

d) Morphine increases intrabiliary pressure.

177
Q

79) Morphine exerts a depressant effect on:

a) Respiratory center
b) CTZ
c) EWN of 3rd cranial nerve
d) Vagal center

A

a) Respiratory center

178
Q

80) Which of the following effects of salicylates can be mediated through inhibition of Kallikrein enzymes?

a) Antipyretic effect
b) Anti-rheumatic effect
c) Keratolytic effect
d) Fungistatic effect

A

b) Anti-rheumatic effect

179
Q

81) An antimalarial drug inhibits activation of T-lymphocytes & Stabilizes the lysosomes can be used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:

a) Methotrexate
b) Sulfasalazine
c) Chloroquine
d) Rituximab

A

c) Chloroquine

180
Q

82) Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity:

a) Paroxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Trazodone

A

b) Amitriptyline

181
Q

83) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic drug?

a) Chlorpromazine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Sulpiride
d) Haloperidol

A

c) Sulpiride

182
Q

84) Which of the following antiepileptics is a HME inducer?

a) Diazepam
b) Carbamazepine
c) Ethosuximide
d) Valproic acid

A

b) Carbamazepine

183
Q

85) Caffeine can be used in treatment of:

a) Angina
b) Peptic ulcer
c) Myasthenia Gravis
d) Diabetes mellitus

A

c) Myasthenia Gravis

184
Q

86) Which of the following Is the second step in analgesic ladder?

a) acetaminophen
b) fentanyl
c) codeine
d) methadone

A

c) codeine

185
Q

87) Which of the following medications has a morphine-like effect on GIT without CNS
action

a) Loperamide
b) Topiramate
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Diltiazem

A

a) Loperamide

186
Q

88) Which one of the following drugs is classified as selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors?

a) Amitriptyline
b) Bupropion
c) Fluoxetine
d) Imipramine

A

c) Fluoxetine

187
Q

89) The drug of choice in treatment of absence seizures is:

a) Phenobarbitone
b) Phenytoin
c) Ethosuximide
d) Carbamazepine

A

c) Ethosuximide

188
Q

90) Which of the following antiepileptic drugs might be associated with Steven-Johnson syndrome?

a) Clonazepam
b) Ethosuximide
c) Lamotrigine
d) Gabapentin

A

c) Lamotrigine

189
Q

91) Aminophylline can be used in treatment of:

a) Arrhythmia
b) Angina
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Pulmonary edema

A

d) Pulmonary edema

190
Q

92) Drug used orally to maintain the Opiate-free state of treated addict:

a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Diphenoxylate.
d) Loperamide

A

a) Naltrexone

191
Q

93) A male patient suffered acute morphine poisoning after receiving an IV injection of the addictive substance. Two hours later, he was transferred to the Toxicology Center, Kasr Al-Ainy, where the resident recommended a stomach wash. Do you agree with the resident’s decision?

a) Totally agree as morphine is excreted from the stomach.
b) Disagree as it is too late to perform stomach wash.
c) Disagree as morphine was given by the IV route.
d) Totally agree as morphine slows gastric emptying time.

A

a) Totally agree as morphine is excreted from the stomach.

192
Q

94) The ability of Salicylates to reduce inflammation Includes:

a) Stabilization of lysosomes
b) Increase the kallikreine enzyme activity
c) Hyaluronidase enzyme activation
d) Activation of polymorphs

A

a) Stabilization of lysosomes

193
Q

95) Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity:

a) Paroxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Trazodone

A

b) Amitriptyline

194
Q

96) An anti-psychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:

a) Anti-cholinergics
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine

A

a) Anti-cholinergics

195
Q

97) Suvorexant is:

a) OX 1 &2 receptor antagonist
b) OX 1&2 agonist
c) Bz antagonist
d) 5HT agonist

A

a) OX 1 &2 receptor antagonist

196
Q

98) One of the following is a drug that is useful to initiate sleep:

a) Temazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Flurazepam

A

b) Triazolam

197
Q

99) Paracetamol can produce the following side effect as overdose toxicity sign:

a) Gastric irritation
b) Bronchospasm
c) Bleeding tendency
d) Hepatotoxicity

A

d) Hepatotoxicity

198
Q

100) Which of the following drugs is a pure opioid antagonist?

a) Meperidine
b) Methadone
c) Naloxone
d) Pentazocine

A

c) Naloxone

199
Q

101) Two antiepileptic drugs, the first might cause hirsutism & the other might cause alopecia. The two drugs are:

a) Carbamazepine- Ethosuximide
b) Clonazepam- phenytoin
c) Phenytoin- Valproic acid
d) Phenytoin- Carbamazepine

A

c) Phenytoin- Valproic acid

200
Q

102) Combined morphine to which of the following drugs should be avoided?

a) Hyoscine as an antispasmodic.
b) Metoclopramide as an antiemetic.
c) Clonidine as a sympathetic depressant.
d) Cyclobenzaparine as a muscle relaxant.

A

d) Cyclobenzaparine as a muscle relaxant.

201
Q

103) Which of the following drugs acts by binding to synaptic vesicular protein to modify the release of glutamate and GABA?

a) Lamotrigine
b) Levetiracetam
c) Diazepam
d) Phenytoin

A

b) Levetiracetam

202
Q

104) Which of the following Is wrong concerning the pharmacokinetics of morphine:

a) Oral bioavailability of morphine is around 75%
b) Better given by slow I.V injection in shock
c) Can be excreted in saliva and stomach
d) Can pass the placenta causing neonatal asphyxia

A

a) Oral bioavailability of morphine is around 75%

203
Q

105) One of the following is not an action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs):

a) Inhibit Central & Peripheral Cyclo-oxygenase enzymes
b) Gastric irritation
c) Bronchospasm
d) Uricosuric

A

d) Uricosuric

204
Q

106) Buspiron has the following pharmacological effect:

a) Antiepileptic
b) Hypnotic
c) Anxiolytic
d) Opioid analgesic

A

c) Anxiolytic

205
Q

107) Which of the following antidepressants acts by reducing the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine?

a) Phenelzine
b) Duloxetine
c) Sertraline
d) Bupropion

A

b) Duloxetine

206
Q

108) Papaverine is used in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension because
papaverine:

a) Is an analgesic.
b) Increases cardiac contractility.
c) Causes vasodilatation.
d) Is a diuretic

A

c) Causes vasodilatation.

207
Q

109) Which of the following applies to the actions of morphine?

a) Morphine increases HRC.
b) Morphine increases ACTH.
c) Morphine increases cough
d) Morphine increases intra-biliary pressure.

A

d) Morphine increases intra-biliary pressure.

208
Q

110) Which of the following opioid analgesics induces withdrawal syndrome when given
to a morphine addict?

a) Fentanyl
b) Nalbuphine
c) Meperidine
d) Methadone

A

b) Nalbuphine

209
Q

111) NSAID-induced peptic ulcer can be treated by:

a) Zileuton
b) Montelukast
c) Paracetamol
d) Misoprostol

A

d) Misoprostol

210
Q

112) Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both anticholinergic activity:

a) Paroxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Trazodone

A

b) Amitriptyline

211
Q

113) Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it:

a) Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake
b) Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake
c) Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
d) Has lower antidepressant efficacy

A

c) Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

212
Q

114) All are dopaminergic agonists used for parkinsonism except:

a) Bromocriptine
b) Ropinirole
c) Pramipexole
d) Selegiline

A

d) Selegiline

213
Q

115) The following antiepileptic drug is used in treatment of Grand Mai epilepsy & has antiarrhythmic action:

a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Sodium valproate
d) Phenytoin

A

d) Phenytoin

PAT 310 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions