Respiratory pathophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

IL-1β major cellular functions

A
  • Increases E-selectin
  • Increases vascular permeability and dilation
    * Increases tissue factor release from macrophages and endothelial cells
  • Increases mucus production in goblet cells

Results in fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which increases vascular permeability more, IL-1β or TNF-α?

A

TNF-α

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which IL increases acute response proteins in the liver?

A

IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Human adenovirus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What virus is implicated in a viral infection causing both bronchitis and conjuctivitis concurrently in the same Pt?

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Human Rhinovirus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Influenza viral attachement protein (VAP)

A

Hemmagluttinin (HA protein)

Binds sialic acid

Target for neutralizing Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Target of baloxavir

A

Cap-dependent endonuclease of influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What influenza type is only found in humans?

A

Influenza B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is influenza’s viral RNA replicated in the infected host cell?

A

Host cell nucleus - influenza = (-)ssRNA genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does influenza promote PNA and secondary bacterial infections?

A

Infecting respiratory epithelium and disabling the mucociliary escalator - also cleaving sialic acid and thinning mucus - causes mucus to fall back into lower respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which influenza type causes epidemic outbreaks only (not pandemic)?

A

Influenza B

Ag drift only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does influenza A cause pandemics?

A

Antigenic shift of HA or NA gene(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most virulent type of Haemophilus influenzae

A

Serotype B - polysaccharide capsule made from polyribitol-ribosyl-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of H. influenzae is responsible for sinusitis and otitis media?

A

Non-typable - unencapsulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What factors does H. influenzae require to grow on agar?

A

X and V factors

Boiled BAP - chocolate agar

X factor = hemin
V factor = NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tx of H. influenzae PNA

A

-Ceftriaxone/cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis

General features

A

Grame (-) diplococci

Strictly aerobic

Oxidase and catalase (+)

Normal flora (28-100% of humans within first year of life)

Differentiated from Neisseria by its ready growth on BAP culture

Also “Hockey Puck sign”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tx for PNA caused by Moraxella catarrhalis

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bordatella pertussis

General features

A

Gram (-) coccobacilli in singles and paire

Aerobic

Fastidious growth requirements

Oxidase (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pertussis toxin

A

AB subunit toxin

ADP-ribosylates GTP-binding (G) proteins that alter inhibitory regulation adenylate cyclase activity

Wide range of effects on immune cells (typically supresses immune response and migration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinical progression of whooping cough

A
  1. Prodromal stage (common cold sxs)
  2. Paroxysmal: cough first appears (2-3 weeks)
  3. Convalescent: bacteria gone, cough remains for several weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Growth requirements of B. pertussis in laboratory

A

Bordet-Gengou aka charcoal horse blood agar

Provides nicotinamide

Can also be detected by PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tx for whooping cough

A

Macrolide (azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

General characteristics

A

Gram (-) rods

Grows in wide temperature range

Oxidase (+) - differentiates from Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What Gram (-) bacteria has an alginate capsule?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What bacteria produces pyocyanin pigment?

How does this function in its pathenogenesis?

A

P. aeruginosa

Fuctions to impair ciliary function and stimulates inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Virulence factors of P. aeruginosa

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Virulence factor that ADP-ribosylates host EF2 protein

Also list responsible organism

A

Exotoxin A secreted by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Disrupts host protein synthesis leading to host cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

General characteristics

A

Gram (-) rod

Extracellular pathogen

Implicated in aspiration PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hallmark organism that produces “currant jelly sputum”

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What biochemical test can differentiate M. tuberculosis from other Mycobacterium species?

A

Niacin +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

First-line Tx of TB

A

Isoniazid, rifampin, ehtambutol, and pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which is the MOST LIKELY cause of croup (larnyngeotrachiobronchitis) in the US?

A

Human parainfluenza virus

RSV causes the most severe presentation of croup

Particular significant in children < 5 y/o - swelling of upper respiratory tract compromising airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A 4-year-old patient dies from primary influenza pneumonia after treatment with oseltamivir. You suspect that the infant was infected with a drug resistant virus. Viral genome sequencing would MOST LIKELY reveal mutations in which viral gene?

A

Neuraminindase (NA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A virus causes a large outbreak in humans in rural Thailand. Within two months, it has spread to 42 different countries on 5 continents. Genetic analysis indicates that it has a segmented (-) ss RNA genome and replicates in the host cell nucleus. Which genetic process and virus is MOST LIKELY responsible?

A

C) Reassortment of the hemagglutinin (HA)-encoding gene segment between influenza A virus subtypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the best explanation for why human rhinoviruses infections are primarily limited to the upper respiratory tract?

A

Rhinoviruses replicate most efficiently at 33ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
A

Human adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
A

A) Steeple sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A clinical researcher is trying to develop a neutralizing monoclonal antibody therapy that will REDUCE airway narrowing and mucus production in respiratory syncytial virus infected infants. Which inflammatory mediator would be BEST to inactivate?

A) IL-6
B) IL-8
C) TNF-α
D) IL-4

A

C) TNF-α

TNF-α causes bronchial vasoconstriction by the secondary release of ET-1

Tumor Necrosis Factor-α Triggers Mucus Production in Airway Epithelium through an IκB Kinase β-dependent Mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
A

D) Neuraminidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the host cell receptor for influenza attachement?

A

Sialic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A

A. Prophylaxis of Pt w/ anti-F protein monoclonal Ab

Prevention of RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

C) Coronavirus and Rhinovirus

Adenovirus occurs typically in the summer

46
Q

When do adenovirus infections spike (time of year) and why?

A

Summer - transmitted in water (i.e. swimming pools)

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s12519-022-00590-w
47
Q

Sin Nombre virus clinical presentation

A

Severe lower respiratory infection that escalates very quickly

Typically seen W of the Missisippi

48
Q
A

B. Direct viral invasion of airway epithelium leading to disruption of the mucociliary clearance system

49
Q

Viruses w/ segmented genomes can undergo _______?

A

Genetic reassortment and antigenic shift (leading to zooncotic crossover events)

50
Q
A

C. SARS-CoV-2

RSV has a linear (-) ssRNA genome

Influenza is also (-) ssRNA genome

Adenovirus is dsDNA genome

51
Q

What protein on RSV mediates fusion with host cell plasma membrane?

52
Q
A

D. Sin nombre

The virus was discovered in 1993 during an outbreak of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). It was the first confirmed instance of hantaviruses in the Americas. The disease caused by the virus is called Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)

53
Q

What factors in chocolate agar are required for growth of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

NAD and Hemin

Factors X and V

54
Q

Describe the MOA of Pseudomonas aeruginosa Exotoxin A?

A

An A/B subunit toxin that ADP-ribosylates host EF2 disrupting protein synthesis of host

55
Q

A 65-year-old man presented with a 2-day history of high fever, cough with rusty sputum and pleuritic left-sided chest pain. His history was remarkable for treatment for congestive heart failure; he was otherwise healthy. Chest radiograph was remarkable for consolidation in the left lower lobe. Sputum Gram-stain revealed many PMNs and a Gram-positive pathogen. Sputum culture produced α-hemolytic colonies on BAP that were sensitive to optochin. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

56
Q

Which Haemophilus influenzae serotype is the current vaccine most effective against?

A

Serotype B

57
Q

What is the most common source of bacterial otitis media?

A

The microbiota of the nasopharynx (espcecially in children)

58
Q

A 61-year-old homeless alcoholic male was brought to the emergency department with a fever and cough producing a gelatinous bloody sputum. While in the ED he vomited his gastric contents and had a foul smelling sputum. Laboratory analysis of his sputum indicated that the pathogen was a Gram-negative rod. Which of the following is the most likely way he acquired this infection?

A. Aspiration of gastrointestinal contents
B. Complication of following a viral infection
C. Contact w/ another sick individual
D. IV drug use

A

A. Aspiration of GI contents

59
Q

A 9-week-old baby presented with a 5-day history of choking spells and repetitive coughing, progressing to his turning red and gasping for breath. Two weeks before, a routine vaccination had been postponed because the child had a cold. Culture of a nasopharyngeal swab revealed a Gram-negative coccobacilli that grew on Bordet-Gengou agar but not blood agar. What pathogen is most likely responsible for the baby’s illness?

A

Bordetella pertussis

Delayed vaccination

60
Q

(T/F) Hypoxic conditions created by the immune response inside a granuloma inhibit Mycobacteria tuberculosis growth during latent tuberculosis infections.

61
Q

Three most common bacterial pathogens responsible for otitis media infections:

A

Nontypeable H. influenzae

Streptococcus
pneumoniae

Moraxella
catarrhali
s

62
Q
A

E. The pathogen is catalase and coagulase positive and produces beta-hemolytic colonies on BAP

63
Q
A

D. Pseudomonas aueruginosa

64
Q
A

E. Acid-fast rod

Kenyoun stain is an acid-fast staining procedure

65
Q
A

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Most common cause of lobar PNA

66
Q
A

A. Bacterial translocation from alveoli into pleural space

Potential organisms: S. aureus, aneaerobes

67
Q

Legionella pneumophila

General characteristics

A
  • Slender, pleomorphic rods with polar flagella - Gram (-) but do not stain well from sputum
  • Obligate aerobesd
  • Require L-cys and Fe (grown on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar)
  • Catalse and gelatinase (+)

Notoriously resistant to high temp and Cl based disinfectants

68
Q

What type of human host cells does Legionella invade?

A
  • Macrophages
  • Monocytes
  • Alveolar epithelial cells
69
Q

Legionella secretion system

A

Type IV during host cell invasion

Type II to escape host cell (when nutrients run out)

70
Q

Legionnaires disease

A

Pontiac fever less severe form of Legionella infection

71
Q

Most common serotype of community-acquired Legionella infections

A

Serotype 1

Has a urinary Ag detection

72
Q

Pathogens responsible for walking PNA

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydia pneumoniea
73
Q

Attachment organelle of Mycoplasma

74
Q

Virulence factors of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

ROS prodcued by Mycoplasma damages the respiratory epithelium and compromises the mucociliary escalator

75
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae

General characteristics

76
Q

Vegatative, replicating form of Chlamydia pneumoniae

77
Q

Infectious stage of Chlamydia pneumoniae life cycle

A

Elementary bodies

Need to form elementary bodies to leave and reinfect neighboring cells

78
Q

What damages resp. epithelium of Chlamydia pneumoniae infection?

A

The cellular immune response

79
Q

Cold serum agglutination test

A

Helps to distinguish between Mycoplasma and Chlamydia

Cold serum agglutination + = Mycoplasma

80
Q

Tx of atypical PNA

A

Macrolides

81
Q

Transmission and responsible pathogen of Psittacosis (ornithosis)

A

Zoonotic transmission from birds - Chlamydia psittaci

Can also be associated with pets and livestock (most commonly from birds)

82
Q

What is transmission and responsible pathogen for Tularemia?

A

Tularemia aka rabbit fever is transmitted by the Dermacentor tick and deer fly

Caused by Francisella tularensis

83
Q

Francisella tularensis

General characteristics

84
Q

Pathogenesis of F. tularensis

85
Q

PNA caused by tularemia

86
Q

Tx of tularemia

A

Streptomycin or gentamicin

87
Q

Coxiella burnetti

General characteristics

88
Q

Coxiella burnetti pathogenesis

89
Q

Coxiella Ag variation

90
Q

Q fever

A

Tx for acute: doxy

Tx for chronic: doxy + hydroxychloriquine

91
Q

Bacillus antracis

General characteristics

92
Q

Virulence plasmids of B. antracis

93
Q

What B. antracis toxin causes high intracellular levels of cAMP in its host cell?

A

Edema factor

94
Q

B. antracis capsule

95
Q

Pathogenesis of inhaled B. antracis spores

A

Initial sxs are nonspecific, followed by pseudo-improvement and then rapid deterioration

-Widened mediatstinal lymph nodes (seen as widening of mediastinum on CXR)

Meningitis in ~50%

96
Q

B. antracis Tx

A

Abx:

  • Quinolone (cipro)
  • Tetracycline (doxy)

mAbs:

  • Raxibacumab (mAb against protective Ag)
97
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae mechanism of persistence

98
Q

What growth media would be best for isolating Legionella pneumophila?

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

99
Q

Which of the following bacterial species DOES NOT stain well with either the Gram stain or the Acid-fast stain?

A. Haemophilus influenza
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Chlamydia pneumoniae

A

D. Chlamydia pneumoniae

100
Q

Which of the following are obligate intracellular pathogens? (select all that apply)

A. Influenza A Virus
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Coxiella burnetii
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A. Influenza A Virus
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. Coxiella burnetii

101
Q

Which of the following are the 3 most common bacterial atypical pneumonia pathogens?

A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

102
Q

A rancher named Earl presents to the physician’s office with a fever, headache and myalgia. His chief complaint is a persistent cough with scant sputum production. Characterization of Earl’s pathogen would indicate that it has distinct extracellular and intracellular morphological forms. The pathogen proliferates in macrophages and requires the acidic environment of the phagolysosome to stimulate metabolism and growth. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

A

E. Coxiella burnetti

103
Q

(T/F) Legionella is readily transmitted from person-to-person

A

False

Must be an exposure event (water tower/hot tub/AC…etc.)

104
Q

How does Legionella infect macrophages?

A

Upon entry into the human host, Legionella PAMPS (LPS) stimulate complementproteins. These proteins (C3b and i3b) bind to the Major Outer Membrane Protein of Legionella (MOMP). The complement proteins bind to receptors on the surface of macrophages allowing for phagocytosis of Legionella bacteria.

Bacterial pili facilitate attachment to respiratory epithelial cells.) Entry of Legionella may be through regular phagocytosis or a specialized coiling phagocytosis.

106
Q
A

B. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is niacin +

107
Q
A

C. Overwhelming systemic inflammation in response to endotoxin

LPS = endotoxin

108
Q

Gram (-) pleomoprhic rod that grows on chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus influenzae

109
Q
A

C. Inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis (specifically the 50s subunit)

Macrolides are first-line Tx of atypical PNA

E. = Isoniazid (TB tx)

110
Q
A

E. Cell-free product that contains the protective Ag

Mediastinal widening
“Medussa head” colonies
Gamma hemolysis