Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 6 > Respiratory Conditions > Flashcards

Respiratory Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions cause fibrosis of the upper lobe?

A

C - coal worker pnuemoconiosis
H - hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ank Spond
R- Radiation
T - tuberculosis
S - sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Common causes of Respiratory Alkalosis

A
  • hyperventiliation
  • PE
  • Salicylate overdose
  • Stroke, subarachnoid, encephalitis
    -altitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Moderate Asthma attack criteria

A

PEFR 50-75% best or predicted
Speech normal
RR < 25 / min
Pulse < 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Severe Asthma attack criteria

A

PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Life- threatening asthma attack criteria

A

PEFR < 33% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < 92%
‘Normal’ pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension
Exhaustion, confusion or coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the criteria for high risk pneumothorax?

A
  • bilateral pneumothorax
  • hemodynamically unstable (tension)
  • severe hypoxia
  • haemothorax
  • > = 50 yo and smoker
  • underlying lung disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What two things do you need to assess when a patient presents with pneumothroax?

A
  • symptomatic or not
  • high risk or not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is conservative management of pneumothorax?

A

primary - outpatient follow up every 2-3 days
secondary - monitor inpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features of small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH
Ectopic Cushing syndrome
Lambert- eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is lambert eaton syndrome?

A

antibodies against the calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane

causes less acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Lambert - Eaton syndrome present?

A

weakness that getters better with movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features of squamous cell lung cancer?

A

PTHrP ( hypercalcaemia)
Clubbing
ectopic TSH
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features of adenocarcinoma?

A

gynaecomastia
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of upper zone lung fibrosis

A

Coal workers pneumoconiosis
Hypersensitive pneumonitis
Ank spond
Radiation
TB
Silicosis/ sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of lower zone lung fibrosis

A

Idiopathic
Connective tissue disorders
drugs
asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Whats the investigation of choice for a PE + renal impairment?

A

V/Q scan as the contrast on CTPA is nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is first line treatment for Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis in CF?

A

oral glucocorticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is second line treatment for Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis in CF?

A

itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the clinical features of Allergic Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Bronchoconstriction
bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the investigations for Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis?

A

eosinophilia
flitting CXR changes
positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test to Aspergillus
positive IgG precipitins (not as positive as in aspergilloma)
raised IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of bacteria causes cavitating lesions in the upper zones?

A

Klebsiella
mainlys in diabetics and alcoholics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the gram staining of klebsiella?

A

gram negative rod

23
Q

What does the sputum classically look like with a klebsiella infection?

A

red current jelly

24
Q

What is first line in management of COPD?

A

SABA or SAMA

need to determine if patient has asthmatic features because if they do then can prescribe steroids

25
Q

What criteria suggest a COPD patient has a cross over with asthma?

A
  • previous history of asthma or atopy
  • high eosinophil count
  • variation in FEV1 over time
  • diurnal variation in peak flow
26
Q

What is normal FEV1/FVC?

A

70-80%

27
Q

What does Total gas transfer (TLCO) measure?

A

measures gas transfer from alveoli into lungs

(essentially looking at how much oxygen enters RBC)

28
Q

What causes raised TLCO?

A

asthma
pulmonary haemorrhage (e.g. granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Goodpasture’s)
left-to-right cardiac shunts
polycythaemia
hyperkinetic states
male gender, exercis

29
Q

What causes lowered TLCO?

A

pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonia
pulmonary emboli
pulmonary oedema
emphysema
anaemia
low cardiac output

29
Q

When do you place a chest tube in patients with effusion?

A

1) fluid is purulent
2) fluid is clear but pH<7.2

29
Q

What is a contraindication for the use of Bupropion?

A

past medical history of Epilepsy
reduces seizure threshold

29
Q

Management of Acute COPD exaceration

A
  • 5 day course of oral prednisolone

if clinical signs of infection ( change in colour of sputum, etc)

1st line - amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxcycline

30
Q

Manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

uveitis
hypercalcaemia
erythema nodosum
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
lupus pernio
dyspnoea
cough
malaise
weight loss

31
Q

What type of lung cancer is most associated with cavitating lesions?

A

squamous

32
Q

What is another name for Kartagener’s?

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

33
Q

What are features of Kartageners?

A

sinusitis
dextrocardia
bronchiectasis
subfertility

34
Q

What does a lymphocyte pleural effusion mean?

A

chronic pleural process
malignancy
TB

35
Q

What does a neutrophil pleural effusion mean?

A

acute

36
Q

What is commonly the FEV1/FVC ratio in restrictive disease?

A

FEV1/FVC>0.7

37
Q

What type of pH abnormality does opiate overdose cause?

A

Respiratory acidosis

38
Q

What may be seen in a blood test for lung cancer?

A

Raised platelets

38
Q

What does a Wells score of 4+ mean?

A

PE is likely

39
Q

What is the management process if WELLS score is 4+?

A
  • organise CTPA
  • if CTPA delayed, give a DOAC in interim (apixaban or rivaroxaban)
  • if CTPA negative, do US to check for DVT
40
Q

What to do if WELLS score is <4?

A
  • perform D-Dimer test
  • positive D-Dimer –> do CTPA
  • negative D-Dimer –> stop anticoagulation and consider other diagnosis
41
Q

What can fast aspiration of pneumothorax cause?

A

re-expansion pulmonary oedema

42
Q

What do you prescribe alongside isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vitamin B6
Pyridoxine

43
Q

What is a parapneumonic effusion?

A

effusion associated with pneumonia

44
Q

What to do if D-Dimer is positive but US is negative in suspected DVT?

A

stop anticoagulation
repeat scan 1 week later

45
Q

What is diagnostic for mycoplasma?

A

mycoplasma serology

46
Q

Complications of mycoplasma

A

erythema multiforme
GBS
HA cold
pericarditis
bullous meringitis

47
Q

What pH range should NIV be considered in a COPD patient?

A

7.25-7.35

48
Q

If patient is steroid responsive in COPD what do you add?

A

ICS + LABA

49
Q

Management for CAP

A

Amoxicillin

50
Q
A

Year 6 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions