Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Prior to discharge, following an acute asthma attack, how long should patients be stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen)?

A

12-24h

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2
Q

Decrease in pO2/FiO2 in poorly patient with non-cardiorespiratory presentation → condition?

A

ARDS

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3
Q

Pneumothorax management: what are the high-risk characteristics that determine the need for a chest drain?

A

1) Haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)

2) Significant hypoxia

3) Bilateral pneumothorax

4) Underlying lung disease

5) ≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history

6) Haemothorax

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4
Q

Mx of pleural plaques?

A

Benign - no follow up

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5
Q

What is often seen on CXR in bronchiectasis?

A

Parallel line shadows (often called tram-lines) are common in bronchiectasis and indicate dilated bronchi due to peribronchial inflammation and fibrosis.

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6
Q

1st line Abx for prophylaxis of COPD exacerbations?

A

Azithromycin

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7
Q

Who should LTOT be offered to in COPD?

A

Patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:

1) secondary polycythaemia

2) peripheral oedema

3) pulmonary hypertension

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8
Q

Prognosis of sarcoidosis?

A

The majority of patients with sarcoidosis get better without treatment

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9
Q

What class of drug is ipratropium?

A

SAMA

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10
Q

Mx of minimally symptomatic pneumothorax, regardless of size?

A

conservative treatment / regular follow-up

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11
Q

1st line for mx of high altitude cerebral oedema?

A

Dexamethasone

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12
Q

1st line for prevention of high altitude cerebral oedema?

A

Acetazolamide

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13
Q

total gas transfer (TLCO) in asthma?

A

Normal or raised

This is because the problem is not affecting the alveoli directly or gas exchange and so the lungs try to compensate for the problem by improving gas exchange.

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14
Q

In what 2 conditions would you see raised TLCO?

A

1) Asthma

2) L to R cardiac shunt

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15
Q

How can kyphoscoliosis (e.g. caused by ankylosing spondylitis) affect lung function tests?

A

Can cause a restrictive picture on spirometry (i.e. normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio).

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16
Q

What is hypogammaglobulinemia?

A

A disorder caused by low serum immunoglobulin or antibody levels i.e. an immune deficiency.

This is known to cause a range of conditions such as bronchiectasis and IBD.

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17
Q

What is the main complication for a patient with hypogammaglobulinemia?

A

Development of bronchiectasis

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18
Q

PTH level in 1ary hyperparathyroidism?

A

May be raised or normal

Normal PTH still indicates 1ary hyperparathyroidism as level should be reduced by high calcium level.

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19
Q

What is the severity of COPD based on?

A

FEV1 spirometry reading

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20
Q

Describe the 4 stages of COPD severity

A

Stage 1 (mild) - FEV1 >80%

Stage 2 (mod) - 50-79%

Stage 3 (severe) - 30-49%

Stage 4 (very severe) - FEV1 <30%

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21
Q

At what age should a patient presenting with unexplained haemoptysis be referred under the 2WW for suspected lung cancer?

A

≥40 y/o

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22
Q

Does a negative result on spirometry exclude asthma?

A

No - do further investigations (e.g. FeNO)

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23
Q

What is FVC

A

The volume of air in the lungs that can be exhaled following a deep inhalation

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24
Q

What is FEV1

A

A measure of how much air can be exhaled in one second following a deep inhalation

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25
What is TCLO (Transfer factor for carbon monoxide, also known as diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide or DLCO)?
A measure of how much O2 diffuses from the lung alveoli to blood in the capillaries. Reduced TCLO indicates impaired gas exchange.
26
What are the 3 first line Abx for an infective exacerbation of COPD?
1) amoxicillin 2) clarithromycin 3) doxycycline
27
What are the adverse effects of amiodarone use?
1) thyroid dysfunction: both hypo- and hyper- 2) corneal deposits 3) pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis 4) liver fibrosis/hepatitis 5) peripheral neuropathy 6) photosensitivity 7) 'slate-grey' appearance 8) thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions 9) bradycardia 10) lengths QT interval
28
Why should IV amiodarone be ideally given into central veins?
As is a common cause of thrombophlebitis
29
What 4 investigations are required prior to amiodarone treatment?
1) TFTs 2) LFTs 3) U&Es 4) CXR
30
What 2 investigations are required every 6 months whilst on amiodarone treatment?
1) LFTs 2) TFTs
31
In COPD patients, if they are still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and a LABA + ICS, what is next step?
Add a LAMA
32
How does sarcoidosis cause hypercalcaemia?
Due to the uncontrolled synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (i.e. vitamin D) by macrophages.
33
Key investigation in ILD/pulmonary fibrosis? What does it show?
High resolution CT of thorax - shows 'ground glass' appearance.
34
What are 2 congenital causes of bronchiectasis?
1) CF 2) A1AT deficiency
35
What are 3 connective tissue causes of bronchiectasis?
1) RA 2) SLE 3) Sarcoidosis
36
What are 3 drugs that can cause bronchiectasis?
1) Nitrofurantoin 2) Methotrexate 3) Amiodarone
37
What is the test of choice for establishing a bronchiectasis diagnosis?
High resolution CT
38
What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis in developed countries? What about in developing countries?
Developed - CF Developing - TB
39
What are the 2 most common organisms causing infection in bronchiectasis?
1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2) Haemophilus influenzae
40
What should be done before prescribing Abx in bronchiectasis?
Sputum culture
41
What 2 medications are licensed that can slow the progression of pulmonary fibrosis
1) Pirfenidone 2) Nintedanib
42
What long term Abx can be given in bronchiectasis for frequent exacerbations?
Azithromycin
43
What is the Abx of choice for bronchiectasis exacerbations caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Ciprofloxacin
44
TLCO in pulmonary fibrosis?
reduced
45
Which lung has 3 lobes?
R (L doesn't have middle lobe due to presence of heart)
46
How does CT appearance progress in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
'Ground glass' appearance in early stages. Progresses to 'honeycombing'.
47
What picture does asbestosis give on lung function tests?
Restrictive
48
What is a parapneumonic effusion?
Pleural effusion 2ary to a pneumonia
49
What is Young's syndrome?
A rare condition characterised by: 1) azoospermia (absence of motile sperm) 2) sinusitis 3) bronchiectasis
50
What are 4 key causes of LOWER zone fibrosis?
1) Drugs e.g. amiodarone, methotrexate 2) Connective tissue e.g. RA, SLE 3) Asbestosis 4) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
51
Does idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis cause upper or lower zone fibrosis?
Lower
52
Does asbestosis cause upper or lower zone fibrosis?
Lower
53
What 4 features can be seen in Kartagener's syndrome (AKA primary ciliary dyskinesia)?
1) dextrocardia or complete situs inversus bronchiectasis 2) recurrent sinusitis 3) subfertility (secondary to diminished 4) sperm motility and defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes)
54
What is the most common cause of occupational asthma?
Isocyanates e.g. factories producing spray painting, foam moulding using adhesives
55
Pleural fluid findings of raised amylase may indicate what? (2)
1) pancreatitis 2) oesophageal perforation
56
Give some common causes of respiratory alkalosis (6)
1) Anxiety (leading to hyperventilation) 2) PE 3) Altitude 4) Salicylate OD 5) Pregnancy 6) CNS disorders e.g. stroke, SAH, encephalitis
57
What pCO2 indicates near-fatal asthma?
Raised >6.0 kPa
58
How can a stroke lead to respiratory alkalosis?
Results from hyperventilation due to the effect of the stroke on the respiratory centre.
59
In which type of pneumonia can you see 'red currant jelly' sputum?
Klebsiella
60
Which organism causing pneumonia is classically seen in alcoholics?
Klebsiella
61
What does lung abscess most commonly form 2ary to?
Aspiration pneumonia
62
How can C. diff present on a FBC?
Marked neutrophilia
63
When is Abx prophylaxis required in COPD patients?
>3 exacerbations requiring steroid therapy in 1 year, with at least 1 exacerbation requiring hospital admission.
64
Features of Cushing’s syndrome?
- Weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump - HTN - Hyperglycaemia - Hypokalaemia - Striae - Proximal muscle weakness & muscle fatigue
65
What Abx prophylactic is recommended in COPD patients who meet certain criteria and who continue to have exacerbations?
Macrolide e.g. azithromycin
66
Most common causes of bullae? (2)
1) smoking 2) emphysema
67
Where in the lungs does asbestosis cause fibrosis?
Lower zone fibrosis
68
1st line Abx in infective exacerbation of COPD? (3)
Amoxicillin Doxycycline Clarithromycin (caution as can cause long QT)
69
Where in the lungs does idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis cause fibrosis?
Lower zones
70
Where is emphysema in A1AT most prominent? What about in COPD?
A1AT - lower lobes COPD - upper lobes
71
What should you aim for in the step down treatment of asthma?
Reduction in ICS 25-50% (consider every 3 months or so)
72
What is there often a history of in aspergilloma?
TB
73
What is silicosis a risk factor for?
Developing TB
74
In terms of smoking, what is the NICE advice for LTOT in COPD?
Can offer if pO2 <7.3 kPa Or if pO2 7.3-8kPa plus one of the following: 1) 2ary polycythaemia 2) pulmonary HTN 3) peripheral oedema
75
Gold standard investigation to diagnose mesothelioma?
Thoracoscopic biopsy --> histology performed
76
Which type of pneumonia can cause cavitating lesions in the upper lobes on a CXR?
Klebsiella
77
What are high-risk characteristics in a pneumothorax?
1) Haemodynamic instability (may indicate tension pneumothorax) 2) Underlying lung disease 3) Significant hypoxia 4) Bilateral pneumothorax 5) >/= 50 years of age with significant smoking history 6) Haemothorax
78
Following a splenectomy, what infections are patients particularly at risk from? (3)
1) pneumococcus 2) haemophilus 3) meningococcus
79
What Abx prophylaxis can be given in a splenectomy?
penicillin V - protects against Strep. pneumoniae
80
What are the main 2 indications for surgery in bronchiectasis?
1) uncontrollable haemoptysis 2) localised disease
81
What cancer can cause 'cannonball' mets in the lungs?
Renal cell carcinoma
82
What type of lung cancer is gynaecomastia most commonly associated with?
Adenocarcinoma
83
What is the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?
Prednisolone
84
what is the most common organism causing infective exacerbation in bronchiectasis?
H. influenzae
85
How can obstructive sleep apnoea affect BP?
HTN
86
What is the gold standard investigation to confirm the diagnosis of mesothelioma?
Thoracoscopy & biopsy
87
Mx of a secondary pneumothorax <1cm?
Admit & O2 for 24 hours
88