Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common inherited cause of learning disability?

A

Fragile X syndrome

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2
Q

What is the most common avoidable cause of learning disability?

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome

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3
Q

What are 4 known, predisposing medical conditions for ASD?

A

1) Fragile X syndrome

2) Infantile spasms

3) Congenital rubella

4) Tuberous sclerosis

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4
Q

What genetic mutation is seen in Fragile X syndrome?

A

An expansion of the CGG trinucleotide repeat in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome.

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5
Q

What gene is implicated in Fragile X syndrome?

A

FMR1 gene on X chromosome

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6
Q

What trinucleotide is implicated in Fragile X?

A

CGG

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7
Q

Classic features in Fragile X syndrome?

A

1) Learning disabily

2) Delayed speech & motor development

3) Large testes

4) Long, narrow face

5) Prominent jaw & forehead

6) Large, protruding ears

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8
Q

What 3 conditions may be associated with Fragile X?

A

1) Autism

2) ADHD

3) Epilepsy

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9
Q

How is Fragile X diagnosed?

A

DNA test that counts number of CGG repeats (FMR1 testing)

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10
Q

What condition is ASD most commonly associated with?

A

ADHD (50%)

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11
Q

What is trisomy 18?

A

Edward’s syndrome

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12
Q

What is trisomy 13?

A

Patau syndrome

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13
Q

People with learning disabilities may present differently with depression.

What type of symptoms are often more prominent?

A

Biological e.g. agitation, appetite, sleep

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14
Q

What valve defect can be seen in Fragile X?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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15
Q

What CNS abnormalities can be seen in foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

1) Decreased cranial size

2) Structural brain abnormalities

3) Problems with attention

4) Cognitive difficulties

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16
Q

Prevalence of ASD in UK?

A

1 in 100

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17
Q

What may depressive features in people with learning disability also indicate the onset of?

A

Dementia

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18
Q

What IQ score defines a learning disability?

A

<70

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19
Q

Stepwise management of PTSD?

A

1st –> trauma-focused CBT or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy

2nd –> venlafaxine or SSRI

3rd –> risperidone (severe cases)

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20
Q

What SNRI is indicated in PTSD?

A

Venlafaxine

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21
Q

What antipsychotic is indicated in severe cases of PTSD?

A

Risperidone

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22
Q

What is de Fregoli syndrome?

A

The delusion of identifying a familiar person in various people they encounter.

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23
Q

What is Capgras syndrome?

A

The delusion that a person closely related to the patient has been replaced by an impostor.

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24
Q

When lithium levels are stable, how often are levels checked?

A

Every 6 months, 12 hours after last dose

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25
If a first line SSRI such as sertraline is ineffective or not tolerated in GAD, what is next step?
Try another SSRI or SNRI
26
Diagnostic criteria for mild depression
2 core + 2 other
27
Diagnostic criteria for major depression
3 core + 4 other
28
What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Glutamate antagonist (NMDA receptor antagonist)
29
When is memantine indicated 1st line over cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil)?
1) Bradycardia (<60bpm) 2) Heart block
30
Which lobes are affected in Alzheimer's?
Atrophy of medio-temporal lobes
31
What 2 medications are indicated in OCD?
1) SSRIs 2) Clomipramine
32
Which Alzheimer's medication is contraindicated in bradycardia?
Donepezil
33
Disruption to which pathway produces the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
Increased dopamine activity in the MESOLIMBIC pathway.
34
Disruption to which pathway produces the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
HYPOactivity of dopamine in the MESOCORTICAL pathway causes negative, cognitive & affective symptoms.
35
What investigations are needed prior to starting lithium?
1) Weight 2) U&Es 3) ECG 4) Pregnancy test 5) TFTs 6) Ca2+
36
What is the link between sodium and lithium?
The kidneys treat lithium and sodium similarly. This is the reason why sodium DEPLETION can significantly ELEVATE lithium reabsorption. Causes of sodium depletion (that can predispose to lithium toxicity): 1) diuretics 2) dehydration 3) febrile illness 4) GI loss
37
Use of which diuretic is most likely to cause lithium toxicity?
Thiazide diuretics
38
How does lithium use affect sodium levels?
Lithium can cause sodium depletion.
39
How can a low sodium diet affect lithium levels?
A low-sodium (salt-restricted) diet can decrease lithium elimination, leading to increased risk of toxicity in lithium users who reduce their salt intake.
40
What are 3 possible renal effects of lithium use?
1) Decrease in eGFR 2) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 3) Increased risk of CKD
41
Why is lithium contraindicated in Cardiac disease or Addison’s disease?
As it causes salt depletion.
42
What does a prolonged QT interval represent?
Delayed ventricular depolarisation
43
How can lithium affect the thyroid?
Can cause hypothyroidism
44
What is typically the most prevalent adverse effect experienced by patients treated with clozapine?
Clozapine-induced hypersalivation
45
What cardiac adverse effect can clozapine cause?
Myocarditis
46
Clozapine and epilepsy?
Clozapine LOWERS the seizure threshold.
47
Which SSRI is licensed for treatment in bulimia?
Fluoxetine
48
How can TCAs affect the BP?
Can cause hypotension due to inhibition of a1 receptors (causing smooth muscle relaxation).
49
Cardiac effect of SSRIs?
Can prolong QT interval
50
What are 2 major contraindications of clozapine?
1) history of neutropenia 2) severe heart disease
51
Impact of TCAs on dopamine?
TCAs block D2 receptors --> raised prolactin (e.g. menstrual disturbance, galactorrhoea, sexual dysfunction)
52
What class of drug is mirtazapine?
NaSSA - noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants
53
What is the mechanism of sodium valproate?
Increases activity of GABA (relaxing effect on brain)
54
What is the effect of a prolonged QT interval?
Long QT syndrome can cause sudden fainting and seizures. Young people with LQTS syndrome have an increased risk of sudden death.
55
What are some side effects of sodium valproate?
- enzyme inhibitor - hair loss - hepatitis - weight gain - GI upset - ataxia - tremor - teratogenic - thrombocytopenia
56
Which medication can exacerbate absence seizures?
Carbamazepine
57
1st line antiepileptic for tonic clonic seizure?
Males: sodium valproate Females: levetiracetam or lamotrigine
58
1st line antiepileptic for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
59
2nd line antiepileptic for absence seizures?
Male: sodium valproate Female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
60
1st line management of myoclonic seizures?
Male: sodium valproate Female: levetiracetam
61
1st line management of tonic or atonic seizures?
Males: sodium valproate Females: lamotrigine
62
1st line antiepileptic for focal seizures?
Lamotrigine or levetiracetam
63
2nd line antiepileptic for focal seizures?
carbamazepine
64
What is the 1st line management of trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
65
1st line management of neuropathic pain?
Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin
66
Impact of antipsychotics & epilepsy?
Antipsychotics lower the seizure threshold
67
2nd line management of bipolar (i.e. that is resistant to lithium)?
Carbamazepine
68
What are some side effects of carbamazepine?
1) Aplastic anaemia 2) Agranulocytosis 3) Hyponatraemia
69
Why should benzos be avoided in liver failure?
Can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy
70
Benzos & neuromuscular disorders (e.g. mysthenia gravis)?
Benzos are contraindicated in NMD
71
Interaction between carbamazepine and antipsychotics?
Carbamazepine lowers the efficacy of antipsychotics
72
If the use of benzos in liver failure (e.g. alcohol withdrawal) is essential, which should be given? Why?
Lorazepam - depends less on liver for elimination
73
Impact of AChEIs on Schlemm’s canal?
Opens it
74
IOP with anticholinergics vs acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil)?
Anticholinergics --> closes Schlemm's canal and increases IOP Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors --> opens Schlemm's canal and decreases IOP
75
Cautions & contraindications of AChEIs?
Caution: 1) Asthma and COPD (due to increased secretions) 2) Those at risk of developing peptic ulcers Contraindications: 1) Heart block or sick sinus syndrome 2) Bradycardia
76
What MMSE score indicates severe dementia?
<10
77
Contraindications of carbamazepine?
1) pregnancy 2) hepatic, renal or cardiac disease – increased risk of toxicity
78
Contraindictions of z drugs?
1) Obstructive sleep apnoea 2) Respiratory muscle weakness 3) Respiratory depression
79
How long should z drugs be prescribed for?
Max 4 weeks
80
Mechanism of naloxone?
Opioid antagonist
81
Which dopamine agonist is used in the management of NMS?
Bromocriptine
82
MOA of cocaine?
Monoamine reuptake inhibitor
83
Why are SSRIs contraindicated in epilepsy?
SSRIs can cause hyponatraemia --> can cause seizures when severe
84
Symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome?
- increased mood change - restlessness - difficulty sleeping - unsteadiness - sweating - GI symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting - paraesthesia (electric shock sensations)
85
Mx of hypomania in a patient with a known diagnosis of bipolar?
Routine referral to community mental health team
86
3 key features of PTSD?
1) hyperarousal e.g. hypervigilance 2) avoidance 3) re-experiencing e.g. flashbacks, nightmares
87
How can lithium affect WBCs?
Lithium can precipitate a BENIGN leucocytosis
88
ECG features of hypokalaemia?
1) Flattened T waves 2) Tall P waves 3) Can cause heart block
89
Peak incidence of delirium tremens after stopping alcohol?
48-72 hours
90
Advance decision/directive vs advance statement?
Advance decision/directive: - documents REFUSAL of certain treatments in the future - legally binding Advance statement: - documents general preference about care e.g. wishes, values, beliefs - not legally binding
91
How are advance decisions and the MHA interlinked?
If person is being detained/treated under the MHA, their advance decisions/directives do NOT apply. Except ECT (you can make an advance decision to refuse ECT).
92
Give the top 4 ‘nearest relatives’ in MHA
1) Husband, wife or civil partner 2) Son or daughter 3) Mother or father 4) Brother or sister
93
How long does a standard DoLS last?
1 year
94
How long does an emergency DoLS last?
7 days
95
Can a DoLS be renewed?
No must reapply
96
What is a likely side effect of memantine?
Constipation
97
What is the definitive diagnostic test for CJD?
Tissue biopsy
98
Why are those with Down’s syndrome more likely to get early onset Alzheimer’s?
Due to extra copy of APP --> can lead to early onset beta amyloid plaques.
99
What is an alternative to AChEIs in patients with dementia with a contraindication e.g. QT prolongation?
Cognitive stimulation therapy
100
What is alogia?
Paucity of speech (negative symptom of schizophrenia)
101
What neutrophil count should lead to the discontinuation of clozapine?
<0.5
102
What can clozapine toxicity be precipitated by? Why?
Acute infection e.g. pneumonia Clozapine is metabolised by P450 system –> downregulation of these enzymes during infection/inflammation can lead to increased clozapine level
103
What electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be found in blood tests following a panic attack? Why?
Hypocalcaemia Anxiety --> hyperventilation --> respiratory alkalosis --> causes calcium to bind to albumin --> lowers free calcium --> hypocalcaemia --> paraesthesia.
104
What ECG change may be seen in refeeding syndrome? Why?
Prominent U waves Due to hypokalaemia
105
What murmur can be heard in AN?
Pansystolic murmur (due to mitral valve prolapse)
106
What cardiac abnormalities can AN cause?
- bradycardia - mitral valve prolapse - hypotension - HF
107
What test is used to assess muscle wasting in patients with anorexia nervosa? What is a red flag?
Sit up squat stand (SUSS) test Red flag = not being able to stand up from chair without using hands
108
What do prominent U waves on an ECG indicate?
Hypokalaemia
109
What is semantic dementia a type of ?
FTD
110
What is semantic dementia?
A loss of memory for words. The disorder often starts as problems with word-finding and naming difficulties (anomia), but progresses to include impaired word comprehension and ultimately impaired comprehension of objects as well.
111
What receptor does LSD act on?
Dopamine
112
Which SSRI has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester?
Paroxetine
113
What class of drug can induce psychosis?
Steroids
114
What class of drug is selegiline?
MAOI
115
What class of drug is amitriptyline?
TCA
116
In what conditions is ECT indicated? (4)
1) Treatment resistant/life threatening depression 2) Catatonia 3) Severe mania 4) An episode of moderate depression know to respond to ECT in the past
117
When is the peak incidence of seizures following alcohol withdrawal?
36 hours
118
Describe the different categories of depression in the PHQ-9
0-4 –> No depression identified 5-9 –> Mild depression 10-14 –> Moderate depression 15-19 –> Moderately severe depression 20-27 –> Severe depression
119
Which SSRI is the most likely to lead to QT prolongation and Torsades de pointes?
Citalopram
120
Is CBT indicated in schizophrenia?
Yes - indicated for all people with schizophrenia
121
What test is used to assess whether there is need for a specialist evaluation concerning alcohol consumption?
Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)?
122
What scoring system can be used to assess alcohol withdrawal severity?
Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment (CIWA-Ar)
123
Mx of hypomania in 1ary care?
Routine referral to CMHT
124
Mx of mania?
consider stopping antidepressant if the patient takes one consider starting antipsychotic therapy e.g. olanzapine or haloperidol
125
How can lithium cause hypercalcaemia?
Due to hyperparathyroidism
126
1st line mx of Wernicke's?
Pabrinex (NOT chlordiazepoxide)
127
Mx of phobias?
CBT
128
What is an alternative to lithium in mx of bipolar disorder?
Sodium valproate
129
Mx of LBD?
Can use acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine) and memantine.
130
Mx of hypomania?
Same as mania (i.e. antipsychotics) If on an antidepressant, stop it and start antipsychotic.
131
What is malingering?
Manufactering or exaggerating symptoms for a purpose OTHER than the sick role: - financial gain (e.g. compensation) - evading police - obtaining shelter - obtaining drugs e.g. morphine
132
Define perinatal period
From getting pregnant up to 12m after giving birth.
133
When do the baby blues peak?
3-5th day postnatal
134
Which diagnosis makes a woman most likely to experience postpartum psychosis?
Bipolar type 1
135
What condition can antipsychotics increase the risk of in the mother?
Gestational diabetes
136
What is the most common medical complication of pregnancy?
Depression
137
Mx of more severe OCD?
SSRI + CBT (including ERP)
138
What receptors do opioids bind to?
Mu-opioid receptors
139
What receptor does LSD mainly bind to?
Serotonin (5-HT3)
140
1) Is there a possibility of illicit use on top of methadone use? 2) Is there a possibility of illicit use on top of buprenorphine use?
1) Yes 2) No - due to partial antagonist effect
141
What does disulfiram inhibit?
Aldehyde dehydrogenase Results in increased serum aldehyde
142
MOA of MDMA?
Blocks serotonin reuptake
143
MOA of cocaine?
Blocks monoamine reuptake (increased dopamine, serotonin & noradrenaline)
144
1st line mx of delirium tremens?
Oral lorazepam
145
What drug is an opiate blocker that is used in alcohol detox?
Naltrexone
146
Key side effect of methadone?
QTc prolongation
147
What are 3 contraindications for disulfiram?
1) heart disease 2) psychosis 3) those at high risk of suicide
148
What is the role of naltrexone in alcohol detox?
Opiate blocker, makes alcohol less enjoyable and less rewarding.
149
Initial dose of naloxone given IV in opioid overdose?
400 micrograms
150
Role of acamprosate in alcohol detox?
Increases GABA and decreases glutamate --> anti-craving
151
Who is naltrexone contraindicated in? (2)
1) opioid use 2) liver failure
152
How long should patients avoid alcohol before and after taking disulfiram?
24h before 1 week after
153
How can you calculate how many units there are in an alcoholic drink?
Units = % (ABV) x volume (ml) / 1000
154
What receptor does THC bind to?
CB1 receptors
155
Once detox is complete, what drug can be used to prevent opiate relapse?
Naltrexone
156
Side effects of zopiclone?
- agitation - bitter taste in mouth - constipation - decreased muscle tone - dizziness - dry mouth - increased risk of falls (especially in the elderly)
157
Zopiclone withdrawal symptoms?
- convulsions - tremor - hyperventilation
158
1st line for acute stress disorder?
Trauma-focused CBT
159
How can OCD be differentiated from psychosis?
By the level of insight into their actions
160
What is the most common endocrine disorder developing as a result of chronic lithium toxicity?
Hypothyroidism
161
What should you do if you clozapine doses are missed for >48h?
Dose will need to be restarted again slowly (i.e. re-titrated)
162
Who should all patients with OCD with severe functional impairment be referred to?
2ary care mental health team - treatment (SSRI) can be started whilst waiting for assessment.
163