Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AQA A-level Psychology > Research Methods - Need to do booklet 3 > Flashcards

Research Methods - Need to do booklet 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Psychology flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

What are the key features of an experiment?

A
  • Investigates the difference between two conditions
  • Manipulation and measurement of variables
  • To test a hypothesis
  • To establish ‘cause and effect’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a purpose of an aim?

A
  • To identify what variables the study is investigating
  • To explain the outline and purpose of the study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the independent variable?

A

What the researcher manipulates in the experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the dependant variable?

A

What the researchers measures in the experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an experimental hypothesis?

A

A prediction about the expected outcome of an experiment. It is wrote as a precise and testable statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a null hypothesis?

A
  • This is the hypothesis the researcher is trying to disprove
  • It states that the results will not be significant in terms of supporting the idea being investigated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is operationalisation?

A

Describing the variables in terms of how they will be precisely manipulated and measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two experimental hypothesis?

A
  • Directional
  • Non directional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a directional hypothesis also known as?

A

One tailed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a directional hypothesis?

A

The hypothesis specifically states the direction of the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a directional hypothesis usually used?

A

When previous/past research has shown a particular outcome is likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a non directional hypothesis also known as?

A

Two tailed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a non directional hypothesis?

A

The hypothesis does not specify the expected directional of the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is a non directional hypothesis used?

A

When there is little or previous research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the key features of Laboratory experiments?

A
  • Controlled in a tightly, controlled, artificial environment
  • Experimenter deliberately manipulates the independent variables
    -Experimenter measures the dependant
  • Attempt to control/minimise other variables that could effect dv
  • Standardised procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the key features of field experiments?

A
  • Conducted in a natural, real world environment
  • Experimenter deliberately manipulates the IV
  • Experimenter measures DV
  • There is minimal control of other variables that can affect DV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the key features of natural experiments?

A
  • Can be conducted in any setting
  • IV is naturally occurring
  • The IV is an event/experience
  • Experimenter measures DV
  • Little/no control of other variables
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the key features of Quasi experiments?

A
  • Can be conducted in any setting
  • IV is naturally occuring
  • IV is a pre-existing characteristic (age, gender etc)
  • Experimenter measures the DV
  • Has little or no control over other variables that could affect DV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does standardisation mean?

A

Procedures and conditions being controlled and kept the same across all conditions allowing for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does ecological validity mean?

A

The extent to which the experimental setting represents real life situations and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does demand characteristics mean?

A

Behaviour from participants in the experimental setting which may be unnatural and affect how they perform on tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does validity mean?

A

The extent to which an experiment is accurate in measuring what it claims to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does mundane realism mean?

A

The extent to which the tasks used in the experiment are representative of tasks completed in everyday life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does reliability mean?

A

The extent to which an experiment can be repeated to check the consistency of the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does internal validity mean?

A

The extent to which there is confidence in the IV causing an effect on the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the advantages of lab experiments?

A
  • High internal validity (EVs controlled)
  • High reliability (standardised procedure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the disadvantages of lab experiment

A
  • Low ecological validity and mundane realism (artificial tasks)
  • High demand characteristics (P’s aware taking part in experiment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the strengths of field experiments?

A
  • High ecological validity and mundane realism (real life tasks)
  • Low demand characteristics (P’s usually unaware they are taking part)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the weaknesses of field experiments?

A
  • Low internal validity (Hard to control EVs)
  • Low reliability (hard to standardise)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the advantages of natural and quasi experiments?

A
  • Can study sensitive research questions (allows investigation of variables that would be harmful to manipulate)
  • High mundane realism and ecological validity (everyday tasks)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the disadvantages of natural and quasi experiments?

A
  • Low internal validity (IV not manipulated directly)
  • Low reliability (naturally occurring IV and hard to standardised)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an extraneous variable?

A

A variable, other than the IV, that may affect the DV if it is not controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A
  • A type of extraneous variable
  • It is one that systematically changes alongside the IV
  • Means It is possible it has caused a change to the DV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is situational variables?

A

Features of the environment/ setting that might affect participants behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can you control situational variables?

A

Standardisation of all procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are participant variables?

A

Individual differences between participants and the ways in which each participant varies from the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How can you control participant variables?

A

Randomisation of participants to conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can demand characteristics be controlled?

A
  • Using some deception: not revealing true aim of study
  • Double blind procedures: neither participant or researcher are aware of which conditions they’ve been assigned too
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an investigator effect?

A

Any (unintentional or unconscious) unwanted influence of the researcher’s behaviour/characteristics on the participant’s data/outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How can investigator effect be controlled?

A
  • Using the same researcher for all participants
  • Double blind procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does experimental designs mean?

A

How researchers are going to allocate and organise participants into conditions of an experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the three experimental designs?

A
  • Repeated measures
  • Independent groups
  • Matched pairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a repeated measures design?

A

Each participant does both conditions of an IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the strengths of repeated measures design?

A
  • Participant variables are controlled for
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the disadvantages of repeated measures design?

A
  • Demand characteristics likely to be experienced (become aware of what’s being manipulated)
  • Order effects likely to be experienced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How can order effects be prevented in repeated measures design?

A

Counterbalancing, some do condition A and then B and vice versa
AB - BA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is independent groups design?

A

Each participant does one condition of the IV - split equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the advantages of independent groups design?

A
  • Less chance of demand characteristics (only do one condition)
  • Less chance of order effects (Only do one condition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the disadvantages of independent groups design?

A
  • Participant variables not controlled for
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is matched pairs design?

A
  • Each participant is put into pairs by being matched on important variables (IQ, gender, age etc
  • Each pair is split up into a condition (one in condition A and the other in condition B)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an advantage of matched pairs design?

A
  • Less chance of demand characteristics and order effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a disadvantage of matched pairs design?

A

Difficult to achieve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does probability mean?

A

Refers to how sure that our results from an investigation are really significant and have not occurred by chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does a big probability mean in psychology?

A
  • Bad
  • More likely that the results have occurred by chance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does a small probability mean in psychology?

A
  • Good
  • We can be confident that the results were not due to chance and are significant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does psychologists calculate the probability of results being due to chance?

A

Statistical tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the 8 statistical tests?

A
  • Unrelated T-test
  • Chi square
  • Mann Whitney
  • Related T-test
  • Sign test
  • Spearman’s Rho
  • Pearsons r
  • Wilcoxon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What probability do we use in psychology?

A

P is less than or equal to 0.05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does P is less than or equal to 0.05 mean?

A

95% sure that the results are significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the stringent level?

A

P is less than or equal to 0.01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When is stringent levels used?

A

If we need to be more confident than accepting a 5% probability the results are due to chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the non-stringent level?

A

P is less than or equal to 0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When is non-stringent level used?

A

If we only need to demonstrate an effect/difference/relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a type 1 error also known as?

A

False positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a type 1 error

A

Wrongly accepting the experimental hypothesis when the null should be accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When does a type 1 error occur?

A

With a non-stringent level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a type 2 error also known as?

A

False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a type 2 error?

A

Wrongly accepting the null hypothesis when the experimental hypothesis should be accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When does a type 2 error occur?

A

With the stringent level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How do you remember statistical tests?

A
  • NOI (left down)
  • RIC (Top row)
  • Simon Cowell Wants More Singers Receiving Unanimous Praise (centre left to right)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the calculated/observed value in statistical tests?

A

The number produced after the statistical test has been calculated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the critical value table in statistical tests?

A

A value taken from a statistical test table which must be reached in order for results to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How do you calculate a sign test?

A
  • Calculate the difference between each participants two scores and note wether difference + or -
  • Add up number of times + and - occurs
  • The sign (+ or - ) that occurs less frequently is the calculated value and is known as ‘s’
  • Calculate number of participants
  • Interpret the significance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When is a sign test significant?

A

The calculated value of S must be less than or equal to the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When is a wilcoxon test significant?

A

The calculated value of T must be equal too or less than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When is a Mann Whitney test significant?

A

The calculated value of U must be equal to or less than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do you calculate the df in a chi square experiment?

A

(number of rows - 1) x (number of columns - 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When is a chi-squared test significant?

A

The calculated value of chi must be greater than or equal to the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When is a spearmans rho test significant?

A

The calculated value of rho must be equal too or more than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When is a Pearsons R test significant?

A

The calculated value of r must be equal too or more than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When is a unrelated T-test significant?

A

The calculated value of t must be equal to or more than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When is a related T-test significant?

A

The calculated value of t must be equal to or more than the critical value to be significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How do you calculate the df in a related T-test?

A

N - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do you calculate the df in a unrelated T-test

A

Na + Nb - 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a target population?

A

The group of people who the researchers want to generalise (apply) their results too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a sample?

A

A small number of people taken from the target population who participated in the investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is sampling bias?

A

When the sample selected under or over represent certain groups that compose the target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is random sampling?

A
  • Where every participant in the target population has an equal chance of being selected through a lottery system,
  • No bias from the psychologist
  • Those selected are then contacted and invited to participant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is an advantage of random sampling?

A
  • Likely to be representative of the target population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is an disadvantage of random sampling?

A
  • Time consuming and inconvenient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is opportunity sampling?

A

Approaching and inviting those who are available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is an advantage of opportunity sampling?

A

More convenient to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is a disadvantage of opportunity sampling?

A

Unlikely to be representative of target population?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is volunteer sampling?

A
  • The sample is self selected
  • Involves adverting the study and providing contact details so that individuals respond if they wish to participate in the study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the advantages of volunteer sampling?

A

More convenient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the disadvantages of volunteer sampling?

A

Unlikely to be representative of target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is systematic sampling?

A
  • Involves devising a sampling frame and a system being nominated to select every Nth person.
  • Those selected will be contacted and invited to participate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is an advantage of systematic sampling?

A

Representative of target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is a disadvantage of systematic sampling?

A

Still possible to be unrepresentative of target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is stratified sampling?

A
  • Identifying groups call strata that exist in the target population
  • Calculating the proportions of individuals needed from each strata to represent the overall target population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is an advantage of stratified sampling?

A

Very representative of target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is a disadvantage of stratified sampling?

A

Very time-consuming and inconvenient to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the key features of a correlation?

A
  • Measures the relationship between two co-variables
  • Direction of the relationship can be negative or positive
  • Strengh of correlation can be strong, moderate or weak
  • Can be represented as a correlation coefficient
  • Can be represented as a scattergram
  • Can be used to measure reliability
104
Q

What is a positive correlation?

A

As scores on one variable increase so do scores on the other variable

105
Q

What is a negative correlation?

A

As scores on one variable increases, scores on the other variables decreases

106
Q

What is a zero correlation?

A

No relationship between two variables

107
Q

What are used to display the findings of correlations?

A

Scattergrams

108
Q

What is a correlation coefficient?

A
  • A more accurate way to indicate the strength of a correlation
  • Closer to 1 = stronger it is
109
Q

What are the advantages of correlations

A
  • Useful preliminary tool for further research
  • Allow the study of variables which cannot be manipulated in experiments
110
Q

What is a disadvantage of correlations?

A

Can only establish a relationship between variables

111
Q

What is quantitive data?

A

Numerical data consisting of participants scores or numbers of some sort

112
Q

What is qualitative data?

A

Descriptive data expressed in the form of written thoughts, feelings and opinions

113
Q

What is the advantage of quantitive data?

A
  • It is objective
  • So it can be mathematically analysed
114
Q

What’s the disadvantage of quantitive data?

A
  • Doesn’t consider a participants emotions and feelings
  • Lacks insight into the reasons behind human behaviour
115
Q

What is the advantage of qualitative data?

A
  • Has more detail allows for thoughts and feelings
  • Gives meaningful insight so its high in external validity
116
Q

What is the disadvantage of qualitative data?

A
  • Comparisons hard to make as it is not easy to analyse
  • Conclusions are based on subjective interpretations
117
Q

What is primary data?

A

Data which is collected by a researcher first-hand and is gathered directly from the participants themselves

118
Q

What is secondary data?

A

Data collected from participants from other people and already exists

119
Q

What is an advantage of primary data?

A
  • It is authentic as its collected first hand
120
Q

What is a disadvantage of primary data?

A

Can be time consuming

121
Q

What is an advantage of secondary data?

A

It is easily accessible and requires minimal effort to collect

122
Q

What is a disadvantage of secondary data?

A
  • Content may not meet the researchers need
  • Could lack valuable information
  • Content may be out of date
123
Q

What is meta analysis?

A
  • When a researcher combines the findings from a number of previously published studies
  • Studies all deal with the same research question
  • It produces a statistic to represent the average
124
Q

What is an advantage of meta-analysis

A
  • Has greater statistical power
  • Has more ability to generalise findings to a wider population
  • Considered to be evidence based
125
Q

What is a disadvantage of meta-analysis?

A
  • Can be difficult and time consuming
  • Requires complex statistical skills and techniques
126
Q

What type of data does levels of measurement relate too?

A

Quantitive data

127
Q

What is nominal data?

A

A frequency count for distinct categories where something can only belong to one category

128
Q

What level of measurement is the most basic and least informative?

A

nominal data

129
Q

What is ordinal data?

A

Where numbers can be ordered in some way such as a questionnaire

130
Q

What level of measurement is more informative than nominal

A

ordinal

131
Q

What is interval data?

A

measurements taken from a numerical scale where each unit is the same size and the gap between each unit is fixed and equal

132
Q

What level of measurement is the most sophisticated and precise?

A

Interval

133
Q

What statistics is a way of presenting and summarising quantitive data?

A

Descriptive data

134
Q

What is measures of central tendency?

A

Information about the ‘typical’ value (averages)

135
Q

What are examples of measures of central tendency?

A

Mean, median, mode

136
Q

What are measures of dispersion?

A

Information about how ‘spread’ out the values are (variability)

137
Q

What are examples of measures of dispersion?

A

Range and standard deviation

138
Q

What are the two types of descriptive statistics?

A
  • Measures of central tendency
  • Measures of dispersion
139
Q

What is a mean?

A

Statistical average for a set of data

140
Q

What levels of measurement is a mean suitable for?

A

Ordinal and interval

141
Q

What is a advantage of using a mean?

A
  • Most sensitive measure of central tendency
  • This is because it includes all scores
  • So it is the most representative measure
142
Q

What is a disadvantage of using a mean?

A
  • Easily distorted by extreme values
  • So may not be representative
143
Q

What is a median?

A

Central half way value of a set of data

144
Q

What level of measurement is a median suitable for?

A

Ordinal and interval

145
Q

What is the advantage of using a median?

A
  • Not affected by extreme values so useful when mean not appropiate
  • Easier to calculate than mean
146
Q

What is the disadvantage of using a median?

A
  • Not as sensitive as the mean as does not include all scores in a set of data
147
Q

What is the mode?

A

The value that occurs most often

148
Q

What levels of measurement is a mode suitable for?

A

All levels (nominal, ordinal, interval)

149
Q

What is a advantage of a mode?

A
  • Easiest to calculate
  • Unaffected by extreme values
  • Only measure of central tendency nominal data can be used with
150
Q

What is a disadvantage of a mode?

A
  • Crude measures so can be unrepresentative in small data sets
  • Less useful when there are several modes in a data set
151
Q

What is a range?

A

The differences between the highest and lowest values

152
Q

What is the advantage of using a range?

A

Easiest measure of dispersion to calculate

153
Q

What is the disadvantage of using a range?

A
  • Only takes into account the two most extreme values
  • This makes it unrepresentative of the data set
154
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

Describes how much, on average, all values differs from the mean

155
Q

What does a large standard deviation score mean?

A

That there is a lot of variation from the mean

156
Q

What does a small standard deviation score mean?

A
  • Tells us there is not a lot of variation from the mean
  • The SD would be close to 0
157
Q

What is a advantage of standard deviation?

A

It is a sensitive and precise measure of dispersion as all the values in a data set are taken into account when calculating it

158
Q

What is a disadvantage of standard deviation?

A
  • Doesn’t tell you the full range of the data
  • Can be affected by extreme scores to give a skewed picture
159
Q

What do tables provide?

A

A summary of the raw scores covered to descriptive statistics

160
Q

What do graphs provide?

A

A visual representation of a set of data which allows us to see the patterns in a easy to understand way.

161
Q

What are the key features of a bar chart?

A
  • Used to make a comparison between scores
  • Used with categories of data
  • Bars are always separate
162
Q

What are the key features of a scattergram?

A
  • Used to show a relationship between two variables
  • A line of best fit may be drawn through the plots
163
Q

What are the key features of histograms?

A
  • Illustrate the frequency of data items
  • Used with continuous data, such as test scores
  • Bars always touch
164
Q

What are key features of a line graph?

A
  • Illustrate continuous data
  • Show how something changes in value, such as over time
  • DV plotted on Y- Axis
  • IV plotted on X - Axis
165
Q

What are the key features of a pie chart?

A
  • Used with discrete data
  • Each segment of the circle represents a proportion of the scores
166
Q

What does a normal distribution curve display?

A

Displays frequency data on a variable of interest

167
Q

What shape does a normal distribution have?

A

Symmetrical bell curve

168
Q

Where are the mean, median, mode located on a normal distribution?

A

Located on the highest peak

169
Q

What is a skewed distribution?

A

When scores are clustered to one side (left or right) of the mean

170
Q

What does a positive skew look like?

A
  • Long tail on the right
  • From left to right: Mode, Median, Mean
171
Q

Where does a large amount of data fall in a positive skew?

A

Below the mean score

172
Q

What does a negative skew look like?

A
  • Long tail on the left
  • From left to right: Mean, Median, Mode
173
Q

What do observations involve?

A

The systematic measurement of freely occurring behaviour

174
Q

What are the key features of observational techniques?

A
  • Record of actual behaviour rather than participant thoughts
  • It is a research method in its own right
  • Types of observation include features regarding: location, participant awareness, involvement of researcher
175
Q

What does location observation refer to?

A

Where the observation is conducted

176
Q

What are the two types of location observation?

A
  • Naturalistic
  • Controlled
177
Q

What is naturalistic observation?

A
  • Participants are observed in their natural environment
  • Everything has been left as it normally would be
  • The observation is in the participants normal place of activity
178
Q

What is controlled observation?

A
  • Participant are observed in an artificial and contrived environment where there has been some creation of a ‘set up’
  • This is often a laboratory but doesn’t have to be, it can be anywhere the researcher has some regulation
179
Q

What does overt and covert observation refer too?

A

Whether participants have consented to/are aware they are being observed

180
Q

What is overt observation?

A
  • The participants know they are being observed and informed consent is given beforehand
  • The researcher may be visible but researchers try to be as unobtrusive as possible
  • May use one way mirrors so they are hidden from view
181
Q

What is covert observation?

A
  • Participants are not aware they are being watched and so have no given consent beforehand or during the observation
  • Participants are often being observed from researchers who are undercover
  • To avoid ethical issues, covert observations should be done in an public place and participants should be debriefed afterwards if possible
182
Q

What does participant and non-participant observation refer too?

A

The researchers level of involvement

183
Q

What is non-participant observation?

A
  • The researcher remains separate from those being observed and is a bystander
  • There is little/no interaction with participants
  • Most observations in psychology are non participant
184
Q

What is participant observation?

A
  • The researcher participates in the behaviour being observed and becomes part of the group being observed
  • The researcher may take a false identity and role posing as a genuine member of the group
  • These are very rare in psychology
185
Q

What is the design of unstructured observation?

A
  • Researcher freely records all relevant behaviour, usually in note form, without imposing a system on what is being observed
  • May be used in situations where no research exists and so acts as a pilot study
186
Q

What is the design of structured observation?

A
  • Used more commonly in psychology
  • A system is imposed before an observation happens which involves cater goring what behaviour is to be observed and devising a sampling procedure
  • Likely to be video recorded
187
Q

What type of data does structured observation produce?

A

Quantitive data

188
Q

What are behavioural categories?

A
  • Used in structured observations
  • The behaviour being studied is broken down into behavioural categories
  • This is a form of operationalising general behaviour into specific, objective and measurable set components
189
Q

What are the two types of behaviour sampling?

A
  • Event
  • Time
190
Q

What is event sampling?

A
  • Observers record every time a certain behaviour occurs and counts the frequency of the behaviour
191
Q

When is event sampling best?

A

If researchers don’t want to miss any behaviours

192
Q

What is a limitation of event sampling?

A

It is difficult if there is lots of behaviour

193
Q

What is time sampling?

A

Observers decide on a time interval and record which behaviour happens at that time

194
Q

When is time sampling best?

A

If there are lots of behaviours that likely occur often

195
Q

What is a limitation of time sampling?

A

Behaviours may be missed

196
Q

What does reliability in observations refer too?

A

Consistency

197
Q

What should observations do to improve reliability?

A
  • Use clear, distinct and precisely defined behavioural categories
  • Ensure there is more than one observer present and/or video record observation
  • Ensure observers train together to check how behaviour is recorded
198
Q

How can we check reliability in observations?

A

Inter-observer reliability

199
Q

What is inter-observer reliability?

A
  • A second observer is used and coding of the observation is done separately by the two researchers
  • A comparison of the two observers’ coding will be made after the observation is complete to see whether the analysis has given similar results
  • A correlational analysis will be performed, if the coding is similar the co-efficient is above 0.8
200
Q

What are some general strengths of observations?

A
  • Can have high ecological validity
  • Can be low in demand characteristics
201
Q

What are some general weaknesses of observations?

A
  • Can have low internal validity
  • Observations can be affected by observer bias more than experimental methods
202
Q

What are strengths of naturalistic observations?

A
  • High ecological validity
  • Often used to generate new ideas
203
Q

What are the weaknesses of naturalistic observations?

A
  • Often on a small scale (lacks generalisability)
  • Other variables cannot be controlled
  • Needs training of observer to do it
  • No manipulation of variables
204
Q

What are the strengths of controlled observations?

A
  • Can be easily replicated
  • Easier and quicker to analyse as uses quantitive data
  • Fairly quick to conduct so can gain a large sample which is more generalisable
205
Q

What are the weaknesses of controlled observations?

A
  • Can lack validity due to demand characteristics
206
Q

What are the strengths of overt observation?

A

No ethical issues

207
Q

What are the weaknesses of overt observation?

A

Behaviour may not be natural

208
Q

What are the weaknesses of covert observations?

A

High ecological validity

209
Q

What are the strengths of covert observations?

A

Ethical issues

210
Q

What are the strengths of participant observation?

A
  • Easier to understand the observers behaviour
  • High ecological validity
211
Q

What are the weaknesses of participant observation?

A
  • Can be hard to get time or privacy to record information
  • If they get too involved they may lose objectivity
212
Q

What are the strengths of non-participant observation?

A
  • Observations made as they happen which is reliable
  • Lack of contact so the observer can maintain objectivity
213
Q

What are the weaknesses of non-participant observation?

A
  • Behaviour may be recorded but the meaning behind it may be unknown
214
Q

What does self report mean?

A

Participants directly reveal information about themselves, without researcher interference

215
Q

What do self-report techniques investigate?

A

Participants beliefs, thoughts and feelings through asking them a series of questions

216
Q

What are the two main types of self-report techniques?

A
  • Questionnaires
  • Interviews
217
Q

What are the key features of questionnaires?

A
  • Are a set of written questions
  • Questions are predetermined
  • Questions can be closed or open-ended
  • Questionnaires can be done in person, post, online, over the phone
218
Q

What is an open ended question?

A

A question which doesn’t require a fixed response

219
Q

What type of data does a open ended question produce?

A

Qualitative

220
Q

What is a close ended question?

A

It gives the participant a fixed response option to choose one answer from a small selection of alternatives

221
Q

What type of data does a closed ended question produce?

A

Quantitive

222
Q

Why do questionnaires and interviews need to be designed carefully?

A

To avoid social desirability, bias and low response rate

223
Q

When designing a questionnaire, what should you consider?

A
  • Aims
  • Question style, order and length
  • Question information
  • Ethical issues
224
Q

What are the advantages of questionnaires?

A
  • Less time consuming (you can email or post them and no researcher needed)
  • People tend to be more honest with their answers (because people can do it privately)
225
Q

What are the disadvantages of questionnaires?

A
  • Likely to produce bias
  • Less detailed to interviews (often closed questions)
226
Q

What are the two types of bias questionnaires can produce?

A
  • Response - people may rush or don’t fully read questions
  • Social desirability - people may be untruthful
227
Q

What are the key features of an interview

A
  • Involves asking participants questions more naturally in a FTF situation
  • Can use closed and open questions, but mostly open
  • Can be structured or unstructured
228
Q

What are structured interviews?

A
  • The interviewer has a topic to explore with the respondent that has a set of predetermined questions
  • Each interviewee is asked the same questions and they are not deviated from
229
Q

What should you consider when designing a interview

A
  • Recording of the interview
  • The effect of the interviewer
  • Questioning skills
  • Ethical issues
230
Q

What are the advantages of interviews?

A
  • More detailed to questionnaires
  • They allow the opportunity to clarify misunderstandings
231
Q

What are the disadvantages of interviews?

A
  • May be problems with investigator effects
  • They are more time consuming compared to questionares
232
Q

What is a case study?

A

It is an in depth investigation of either a single person, a group of people, an event or an institution

233
Q

What are the key features of case studies?

A
  • The subject is often rare or unusual
  • Researchers construct a case history by gaining information using a range of different research methods
  • The information collected is mostly qualitative but can be quantitive
  • Tend to be longitudinal (subject follow fro a long time)
  • Some case studies are retrospective
234
Q

What the advantages of case studies?

A
  • Allow investigation into areas that are otherwise unethical or unpractical
  • Provide insight for future research areas
235
Q

What are the disadvantages of case studies?

A
  • Can be highly subjective
  • Unrepresentative and unreliable
236
Q

What are the two methods to analyse qualitative data?

A
  • Content analysis
  • Thematic analysis
237
Q

What are the key features of content analysis?

A
  • A form of indirect observation, it is analysis of individuals communication
  • It is conducted in a systematic way, which devises categories and coding units
  • It converts qualitative data to quantitive
238
Q

What does content analysis consider?

A
  • Manifest content: what the text seems to be about
  • Latent content: What the text is really about
239
Q

What is the process of conducting content analysis?

A
  • Come up with an aim of hypothesis
  • Select a sample you will conduct the analysis on (book, magazine etc)
  • Create coding units of behaviour
  • Go through the sample and record any instances of the coding unit
  • The total number of each coding unit is counted to create quantitive data
240
Q

What are the key features of thematic analysis?

A
  • Involves coding and indemnifying patterns and themes
  • Themes are analysed and used to support or challenge theories with specific examples of quotes
  • Keeps the data in qualitative form
241
Q

What is the process of thematic analysis?

A
  • Familiarise yourself with the data
  • Produce coding units
  • Look for emerging themes
  • Define and name each separate theme
  • Write up report
242
Q

What are the similarities between content and thematic analysis?

A
  • Both involve qualitative data
  • Both involve the coding of information
243
Q

What are the differences between content and thematic analysis?

A
  • Content analysis collects quantitive data but thematic collects qualitative
  • Themes emerge in thematic whereas coding units are predetermined in content
244
Q

What are the strengths of qualitative analysis?

A
  • Statistical analysis of data becomes possible in content analysis (More problematic in thematic)
245
Q

What are the weaknesses of qualitative analysis?

A
  • Content analysis can be argued to be a reductionist technique (less problematic in thematic)
  • Researchers subjective opinions may influence content analysis (more problematic in thematic)
246
Q

What is a pilot study

A
  • A small scale preliminary investigation with fewer participants
  • The results are not published
247
Q

What is the purpose of a pilot study?

A

To assess any unexpected problems and allow amendments to be made before the main study

248
Q

What do pilot studies for an experiment check?

A
  • Do participants understand the instructions
  • Do participants understand the task
  • Is the time to do the task to long or short
  • Are the tasks appropriate
249
Q

What do pilot studies for an observation check?

A
  • Are the behavioural categories suitable, objective, operationalised
  • Are there enough examples of behavioural categories
  • Is the sampling used appropriate
  • Is the location appropriate
250
Q

What do pilot studies for a self-report check?

A
  • Are the questions in the self report methods clear, not too complicated, unambiguous
  • Are the responses appropriate and answerable in close ended questions
  • Are there any unanswered questions and if so why
  • If any ethical issues are raised with the questions being asked
251
Q

What is the definition of reliability?

A

Refers to the consistency of the test/measurement/researcg

252
Q

What does reliability refer too?

A

How well research can be replicated at another time and/or by other researchers

253
Q

When is a test considered reliable?

A

If the same results are repeatedly found

254
Q

What are the two ways of assessing reliability?

A
  • Test retest
  • Inter observer(rater) method
255
Q

What is the test-retest method?

A
  • Where a test/questionare/interview is administered on at least two occasions with a reasonable time gap to the same sample of participants
    -Two indépendant sets of scores are therefore created which are then compared
  • If similar results are produced each then it is reliable
256
Q

What is the inter-observer (rater) method?

A

AQA A-level Psychology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions