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Semester 2 > Reproduction and Urino-genital > Flashcards

Reproduction and Urino-genital Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of membrane transport?

A

Saturation
Specificity
Competition

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1
Q

What hormone is produced by Leydig cells in the testes?

A

Testosterone

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2
Q

Can renal transport reach saturation for all substances?

A

Yes except Na

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3
Q

In which animal is the cortex NOT outside the medulla in the ovaries?

A

Horse (ovulatory fossa, opposite way round)

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4
Q

What is the follicular epithelium called in the secondary follicles?

A

Membrane granulosa

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5
Q

What is the function of the oviducts?

A

Transport the ovum from the ovary to the site of fertilisation
Transports spermatozoa from the site of deposition to the site of fertilisation
Provides an appropriate environment for fertilisation
Transports the fertilised ovum to the uterine horns were implantation and further development may occur

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6
Q

What is contained in the Antrum of follicles?

A

Follicular fluid

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7
Q

What are the main functions of the urinary system?

A

a. Excretion of metabolic waste products and salts
b. Elimination of toxic substances
c. Regulation of fluid, salt, and acid-base balance
d. Modulation of blood pressure

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8
Q

Where are Leydig cells found in the testes?

A

Interstitial connective tissue

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9
Q

What do the efferent ductules connect?

A

Rete testis with epididymis

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10
Q

In the vas derefens, what epithelium is the lumen lined with?

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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11
Q

In the vas deferens, what are the 3 smooth muscle layers?

A

Thin inner longitudinal
Thick middle circular
Thick outer longitudinal

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12
Q

In which animals are seminal vesicles (located above prostate) absent?

A

Carnivores

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13
Q

What type of glands are present in the prostate and seminal vesicles?

A

Tubuloalveolar glands

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14
Q

What do the tubuloalveolar glands of the prostate empty into?

A

Urethra

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15
Q

Secretions from the prostate tubuloalveolar glands are rich in what?

A

Citric acid, acid phosphatase, and proteolytic enzymes

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16
Q

What are the cylinders of erectile tissue in the penis?

A

Single corpus spongiosum

Paired corpora cavernosum

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17
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

Seminiferous tubules

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18
Q

The ovary is divisible into which 2 things?

A

Cortex and medulla

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19
Q

Of the cortex and medulla, which contains the developing oocytes?

A

Cortex (parenchyma)

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20
Q

What produces follicular fluid?

A

Follicular epithelium

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21
Q

Which 2 hormones produced by thecal and granulosa cells in the corpus luteum maintain pregnancy?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone

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22
Q

What is atresia?

A

Terminated development of a follicle

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23
Q

What physiological changes occur to the oviduct as the egg gets closer to the uterus?

A

Muscular layer gets thicker

Lumen diameter decreases

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24
Q

Give 2 characteristics of the oestrus uterus

A

Thick endometrium

Highly developed glands

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25
Q

What are the 4 functions of the oviducts?

A
  1. Transport ovum form ovary to site of fertilisation
  2. Help transport sperm to site of fertilisation
  3. Provide an appropriate environment for fertilisation
  4. Transport the fertilised ovum to the uterine horns for implantation
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26
Q

What are the functions of the mucous plug of the cervix?

A

Seals off uterus during pregnancy, maintains a stable and sterile internal environment for embryonic development

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27
Q

What is the serosa layer made of?

A

Loose connective tissue

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28
Q

What are the main cells of the interstitial connective tissue in the testes?

A

Leydig cells (produce testosterone)

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29
Q

What are the primary cells of the seminiferous epithelium and what do they do?

A

Sertoli cells, act as support cells for sperm

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30
Q

What is milk production controlled by?

A

Prolactin

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31
Q

What is milk ejection controlled by?

A

Oxytocin

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32
Q

What epithelium does the vagina have?

A

Stratified squamous

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33
Q

What environment is present in the vagina?

A

Acidic

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34
Q

What kind of gland is the mammary gland?

A

Modified sweat gland

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35
Q

Which hormones are required for development of the mammary glands between puberty and pregnancy?

A

Oestrogen-ducts begin to branch and increase in diameter
Progesterone-terminal portions of branch begin to form alveoli
Prolactin and GH-complete and rapid development of ducts

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36
Q

How many ducts per teat in:
Ruminants
Horse/pig
Cat/dog

A

Ruminants=1
Horse/pig=2-3
Cat/dog=5-6

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37
Q

Why do secretory cells of the mammary gland have increased mitochondria, smooth ER and rER?

A

Mitochondria-energy
Smooth ER-phospholipid and triglyceride synthesis
rER-protein synthesis

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38
Q

What is the name of the protein in milk?

A

Casein

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39
Q

Out of a cow and a bitch, which ones milk has the highest fat and energy content?

A

Bitch

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40
Q

Which ions are present in milk?

A

Na+, K+, Cl-

Ca2+ (free calcium, bound to casein, 30mM/L)

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41
Q

How long is milk withheld for after parturition?

A

4 days

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42
Q

In colostrum, what are the immunoglobulins present produced by?

A

Plasma cells in the gland

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43
Q

Which hormones increase during late pregnancy?

Which decreases?

A

Cortisol, prolactin, oestrogen and placental lactogen (produced by placenta)
Progesterone decreases

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44
Q

How do decreased levels of progesterone stimulate milk secretion?

A

Progesterone inhibits synthesis of prolactin receptors, so low progesterone enables synthesis of prolactin receptors.
Alpha-lactalbumin synthesis is stimulated.
Alpha-lactalbumin up-regulates enzymes involves in lactose synthesis.
Milk secretion is stimulated

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45
Q

How is hormonal control of galactopoesis (maintenance of milk secretion) achieved?

A

Removal of milk by suckling/milking-causes release of oxytocin and prolactin from pituitary. Prolactin maintains alveolar cell metabolism and secretion of alpha-lactalbumin (lactose synthesis)
Ruminants-GH can uphold secretion via IGF-1

Alveolar cells secrete a protein-FIL (feedback inhibitor of lactation). FIL builds up and inhibits further secretion unless removed by milking

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46
Q

How is milk ejected from the mammary gland?

A

Contraction of myoepithelial cells pushes milk into larger ducts and cisterns

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47
Q

What is GnRH? What does it do?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
Released by hypothalamus
Drives the release of LH and FSH

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48
Q

What is the definition of puberty?

A

The acquisition of reproductive competence

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49
Q

What factors affect the onset of puberty?

A

Size and fatness (female)
Season of birth and photoperiod (may reflect energy supply)
Social cues (larger groups-pig- and presence of male)

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50
Q

What are the gender-specific definitions of puberty for males and females?

A

Males: age when ejaculate contains sufficient spermatozoa to fertilise
Females: age at which female can support a pregnancy without deleterious effects

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51
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Formation of female gamete

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52
Q

When does the development of primordial to primary follicles occur?

A

Puberty

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53
Q

In the ovarian cycle, what controls the release of:
Oestrogen
Progesterone

A

Oestrogen=endocrine follicles

Progesterone=corpus luteum

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54
Q

What does FSH do?

A

Stimulates the growth and recruitment of immature ovarian follicles

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55
Q

What does LH do?

A

Maintains function in the corpus luteum
Produces precursors for oestrogen production
Stimulates ovulation of follicle, maturation and luteinisation

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56
Q

A surge of which hormone brings about ovulation?

A

LH

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57
Q

Which phase folllows ovulation?

Which hormone is dominant here?

A

Luteal phase

Progesterone

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58
Q

What is proestrus?

A

Follicular (oestrogen-dominant) phase of ovarian cycle

Female NOT sexually receptive

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59
Q

What is oestrus?

A

Female is sexually receptive, oestrogen is dominant

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60
Q

What is dioestrus/metoestrus?

A

Corpus luteum/progesterone-dominant phase of ovarian cycle

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61
Q

What is anoestrus?

A

Reproductive inactivity-no cyclic ovarian activity

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62
Q

Which animals are polyestrus? (many oestrus cycles per year)

A

Cow, pig, cat, rodent

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63
Q

Which animals are seasonal polyestrus?

A

Horse (spring breeding)

Sheep (autumn breeding)

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64
Q

What are reflex ovulators?

A

Animals in which the brain controls reproduction
In the absence of coitus there is only a follicular phase
The GnRH pulse generator is not sensitive enough to oestrogen to induce an LH surge
Additional inputs during copulation eg stretch inputs from vagina

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65
Q

What hormone do Sertoli cells produce?

A

Inhibin

Convert testosterone to oestrogen

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66
Q

Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone?

A

LH

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67
Q

What is the sperm-testis barrier?

A

Physical barrier between blood vessels and seminiferous tubules
Formed by tight junctions between Sertoli cells which divide tubules into basal (in contact with blood vessels) and adluminal compartments

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68
Q

Why is it important to know the spermatogenic cycle?

A

Breeding males: if male is ill, we need to know how long we need to wait before his spermatozoa are normal

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69
Q

Where is oestrogen produced?

A

Granulosa cells of follicles

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70
Q

Which hormone inhibits GnRH?

A

Progesterone

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71
Q

What is luteolysis?

Which hormone causes it?

A

Loss of progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum followed by loss of luteal tissue mass
Prostaglandin

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72
Q

How is prostaglandin released at luteolysis (end of luteal phase)?
In which species is prostaglandin not released?

A

Oxytocin (from CL and posterior pituitary) binds to its receptors on endometrial cells of the uterus
Cats and dogs (prostaglandin has no known role)

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73
Q

Which hormone inhibits LH?

A

Progesterone

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74
Q

Where does fertilisation occur?

A

Ampulla of oviduct

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75
Q

What are the definitions of emission and ejaculation?

A

Emission=movement of seminal fluids from accessory sex glands into pelvic urethra, which then mix with spermatozoa

Ejaculation=expulsion of spermatozoa and seminal plasma from male reproductive tract (under sympathetic control)

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76
Q

What is sperm capacitation?

A

Process which makes sperm fertile.
The surface molecules of sperm become coated with seminal plasma proteins that mask membrane molecules.
In the female tract, the seminal plasma coating and some surface molecules are removed, revealing molecules that can bind to zona pellucida of oocyte.

77
Q

What is the zona block?

A

Process by which zona pellucida undergoes biochemical changes so that further sperm cannot penetrate

78
Q

What is the fertile period?

A

Time during which mating could result in conception

79
Q

What is the acrosomal reaction?

A

(Sperm binds to zona pellucida)
Swelling of acrosome membrane. Fuses with plasma membrane. Forms vesicles. Releases pockets of enzymes which enable sperm to pierce egg

80
Q

Which hormone maintains pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

81
Q

How does a fertilised egg stop luteolysis occuring and stopping the pregnancy?

A

Embryo releases interferon, which blocks oxytocin receptors, therefore uterus doesn’t produce prostaglandin (which causes luteolysis) and progesterone levels don’t decrease.
Progesterone maintains pregnancy.

82
Q

What does the embryo release to let the mother know she’s pregnant?

A

Interferon

83
Q

What are the 3 endocrine functions of the placenta?

A

Produces hormones to:
Maintain pregnancy
Stimulate maternal mammary gland
Promote foetal growth

84
Q

What defines a cotyledonary placenta?

In which species is this present?

A

Attachment is via foetal cotyledons and maternal caruncles

Ruminants and sheep

85
Q

What defines a diffuse placenta?

In which species is this present?

A

Attachment occurs throughout placenta

Pigs and horses

86
Q

What defines a zonary placenta?

In which species is this present?

A

Placenta forms a band around the foetus

Dog and cat

87
Q

Which species are epitheliochorial? (6 layers between egg and maternal blood)
Which are endotheliochorial? (5 layers between egg and maternal blood)

A

Epitheliochorial=pig, horse, sheep, ruminant

Endotheliochorial=dog, cat

88
Q

What determines whether a foetus will be male or female?

A

SRY protein on Y chromosome

Degenerates paramesonephric ducts, which would otherwise become vagina, ovaries, cervix and uterus

89
Q

What is freemartinism in cattle?

A

Twins-male and female. Share placental blood supply.
Testes develop before ovaries
AMH and testosterone from the male are passed over to female, preventing her reproductive tract from developing properly
Female is sterile (male is fine)

90
Q

When does the placenta take over progesterone secretion in the cow, bitch, cat, ewe, sow, horse

A 
Cow=6-8 months
Bitch and cat=never-all comes from CL
Ewe=50 days
Sow=never-all comes from CL 
Horse=70 days
91
Q

What is parturition initiated by?

A

Foetus (foetal hypothalamus)
Release of foetal ACTH
Increase in foetal cortisol

92
Q

How does relaxin contribute to initiation of parturition?

A

Stimulated by prostaglandin, produced by CL/placenta

Causes softening of soft tissue and cervix, and increased elasticity of pelvic ligaments

93
Q

How does oestradiol contribute to initiation of parturition?

A

Increases secretion of mucous (washing out cervical plug, lubricating vaginal and cervical canal)
Increases myometrial contractions

94
Q

What are the 3 stages of parturition?

A

1=Initiation of myometrial contractions and cervical dilation
2=Expulsion of foetus
3=Expulsion of foetal membranes

95
Q

Where does urine collect before drainage to bladder?

A

Renal pelvis

96
Q

Which vessels provide blood supply to the kidneys?

A

Left/right renal artery and vein

97
Q

Where are the kidneys situated in the abdomen?

A

Right=at level with L1-L3 (higher than left kidney)

Left=at level with L2-L4 (cranial pole more caudal than right kidney)

98
Q

What is the trigone of the bladder?

A

Area where ureters enter and urethra exits

99
Q

What are the 2 ligaments of the bladder?

A 
Median ligament (to ventral abdominal wall)
Lateral ligaments (to pelvic wall)
100
Q

Where does the bladder lie in the male and female?

A

Male=ventral to descending colon

Female=ventral to uterus/cervix

101
Q

Why must the ovarian ligament be ligated during a spay?

A

Contains the ovarian artery and vein

102
Q

What are the 4 peritoneal attachments of the ovary?

A

Mesovarium (ovarian ligament)
Mesosalpinx
Suspensory ligament
Proper ligament of ovary

103
Q

How is the uterus attached to the lateral body wall?

A

By the mesometrium (broad ligament)

Round ligament of uterus runs in broad ligament from ovary through inguinal canal

104
Q

Which vessels provide the blood supply for the vagina, uterus, and ovaries?

A

Ovarian artery and vein, anastomose with uterine artery and vein
Vaginal artery and vein, cranial branch becomes uterine artery and vein that runs in broad ligament

105
Q

Where are the ovaries located in the abdomen?

A

Dorsally at caudal pole of kidneys
Level of 13th rib dorsally
Level of umbilicus ventrally (hence this being cranial landmark for ventral midline spay)

106
Q

What are the cranial and caudal landmarks for a bitch spay?

A

Cranial=level of umbilicus

Caudal=2/3rd distance from umbilicus to pelvic rim

107
Q

Where is the uterine body/cervix located in the abdomen?

A

Midline, ventral to descending colon/rectum, dorsal to bladder

108
Q

Where are the uterine horns located in the abdomen?

A

From lateral ovaries to midline uterine body, between intestinal mass and abdominal wall

109
Q

How many pairs of mammae are there in a bitch? (teats)

A

5:
2 thoracic
2 abdominal
1 inguinal

110
Q

Which vessels supply blood to the mammary glands?

A

Cranial via cranial superficial epigastric

Caudal via caudal superficial epigastric

111
Q

Which vessels provide lymph drainage to the mammary glands?

A

Cranial 3 pairs via axillary

Caudal 2 pairs via inguinal

112
Q

What is the perineum?

A

Area beneath tail around anus

113
Q

What is the inguinal canal?

A

Potential space between the layers of the abdominal wall muscles, that communicates with an external pouch

114
Q

Where do the testes start development?

Why do they descend?

A

Abdomen at caudal poles of kidneys

Must descend through inguinal canal to scrotum as sperm development is hindered at body temp

115
Q

Which vessels supply blood to the scrotum?

A

Branch of external pudendal artery and vein

116
Q

What are the layers of the testes? (5)

A 
Skin
Tunica dartos
Spermatic fascia (external spermatic, cremasteric and internal spermatic fascia)
Parietal peritoneum (vaginal tunic)
Visceral peritoneum
117
Q

Why is the testicular vein arranged in a mesh encasing the testicular artery?

A

Allows cooling of arterial blood via heat exchange with venous blood from testis

118
Q

How is the spermatic sac attached to the scrotum?

A

Via scrotal ligament

This is broken in a closed castrate to free the testis

119
Q

What does the spermatic sac consist of?

A

Vaginal tunic with closely adherent internal spermatic fascia and cremasteric fascia

120
Q

Which layers are incised during an open castration?

A

Skin
Tunica dartos
Spermatic fascia (external, cremasteric, internal)
Vaginal tunic

121
Q

Which layers are incised during a closed castration?

A

Inguinal skin
Tunica dartos
External spermatic fascia

122
Q

Which erectile tissue of the penis encloses the urethra?

A

Corpus spongiosum

123
Q

What are the 2 types of corpus cavernosum?

A

Musculocavernous: smooth muscle with large cavernous spaces (horse)
Fibro-elastic: fibrous and elastic tissue arranged in a sigmoid flexure with small cavernous spaces

124
Q

Which vessel supplies arterial blood to the penis and which vessel drains it?

A

Branch of internal pudendal artery

Drained by internal pudendal vein (and external pudendal vein in horse)

125
Q

What are the 3 muscles of the penis? What do they do?

A

Retractor penis muscle-retracts penis back into sheath
Ischiocavernosus muscle-prevents venous drainage of blood during erection, rhythmic contractions increase pressure in corpus cavernosum during erection
Bulbospongiosus muscle- same as ischiocavernosus

126
Q

What is contained within the ventral groove of the os penis?

A

Urethra

127
Q

What makes up the double structure of the glans penis?

A

Bulbus glandis covers proximal half of os penis

Pars longa glandis covers distal half of os penis

128
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the urinary system?

A

Excretion of metabolic waste products and salt
Elimination of toxic substances
Regulation of fluid, salt, and acid-base balance
Modulation of blood pressure

129
Q

What is the renal cortex composed of?

A

Cortical labyrinth and medullary rays

130
Q

What is contained in the sparse cortical and medullary interstitial connective tissue that surrounds the blood vessels and renal tubules?

A

Reticular fibres and fibrocytes

131
Q

What comprises a renal lobe?

A

Renal medullary pyramid and its associated cortical tissue

132
Q

Which species have multi-lobar kidneys?

A

Pig (intermediate-smooth surface and internal multilobar structure) and cow

133
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Uriniferous tubule

134
Q

Where would you find fenestrated capillaries?

A

Glomerulus

135
Q

What makes up a renal corpuscle?

Where are they found?

A

Bowman’s capsule plus glomerulus

Cortex

136
Q

What name is given to the cells and matrix that occupy the spaces between the capillary loops in the glomerulus?

A

Mesangium

137
Q

In the nephron, which is the only tubule with a brush border?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

138
Q

Where is the majority of water and glucose in the filtrate reabsorbed in the nephrons?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

139
Q

What do juxtaglomerular cells secrete and in response to what?

A

Renin, in response to decreased blood pressure or a change in the Na+ and Cl- conc. in the distal tubule
Renin increases filtration pressure

140
Q

What effects does angiotensin II have?

Urinary system

A

Increases blood pressure (arteriolar constriction and ADH secretion)
Stimulates secretion of aldosterone from zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

141
Q

What effect does aldosterone have on reabsorption and secretion?

A

Increases reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- from distal convoluted tubule
Increases reabsorption of Na+ from the collecting ducts
Increases K+ secretion

142
Q

As the filtrate descends through tubules in the medulla of the kidneys, what happens to it?

A

Becomes increasingly concentrated:
Water moves out into interstitial tissue
Solutes remain in tubule
Urea diffuses into tubule

143
Q

As the filtrate ascends through tubules in the medulla of the kidneys, what happens to it?

A

Becomes less concentrated:
Water is retained in tubule
Solutes enter interstitial fluid

144
Q

What is reabsorbed (into capillary) in the distal convoluted tubule?
What is secreted (into tubule)?

A

Reabsorbed: Water, Na+, Cl-, Ca2+
Secreted: K+, H+

145
Q

What are the definitions of reabsorption and secretion in the nephrons of the kidneys?
Filtration?

A

Reabsorption= transport (active or passive) from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillaries
Secretion= transport (active) from the interstitial fluid to the tubular fluid
Filtration=movement of water and solutes across glomerular capillaries into nephron

146
Q

What are the advantages of extensive filtration of plasma?

A

Fast clearance of foreign/waste products out of plasma

Simple homeostasis-if water/ions aren’t needed to maintain homeostasis, they are excreted

147
Q

Which specialisations in the glomerulus allow a large volume of filtrate to be generated?

A
  1. Fenestrations of epithelial cells-prevents filtration of RBCs but allows components of blood plasma to pass through
  2. Basal lamina prevents filtration of larger proteins
  3. Slit membrane between pedicels (of podocytes) prevents filtration of medium-sized proteins
148
Q

Which features of the renal corpuscle increase its filtering capacity?

A

Large surface area
Low resistance to movement of fluid (thin and porous nature of filtration membrane)
High level of glomerular capillary blood pressure

149
Q

What is the ‘filtration fraction’?

A

The fraction of plasma in the afferent arterioles of the kidneys that becomes filtrate

150
Q

What 3 factors affect glomerular filtration rate?

A

Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
Glomerular capillary flow rate
Glomerular capillary surface area

151
Q

What is GFR?

A

Glomerular filtration rate

Amount of filtrate produced in kidneys per minute

152
Q

When there are local alterations in blood flow and pressure, which mechanisms maintain normal GFR (autoregulation)?

A

Dilation of afferent arteriole
Dilation of glomerular capillaries
Constriction of efferent arteriole

153
Q

What makes up the juxtamedullary apparatus?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells (arteriole cells) and macula densa (tubule cells)

154
Q

How is autoregulation of GFR acheived?

A

Macula densa cells in tubule (ascending loop of Henle) detect an increase in GFR
They send a paracrine signal which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

155
Q

Are there specific membrane transporters for urea?

A

No

156
Q

How are proteins reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Endocytosis, degraded to amino acid in tubular cells, then moved to capillaries via carrier-mediated transport

157
Q

What is reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A 
Na+ (active transport, Na+/K+ pumps)
Anions (electrochemical gradient)
Water (osmosis)
Amino acids and glucose (secondary active transport)
Urea (diffusion)
HCO3- (facilitated diffusion)
K+ (diffusion)
158
Q

Where does secretion of ionised organic acids and bases take place?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

159
Q

What is secreted by the peritubular capillaries into the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

H+ (via antiporters)

160
Q

How does the countercurrent system work in the Loop of Henle?

A

Descending loop is freely permeable to water but not Na+ or Cl-
Ascending loop is not permeable to water, but the thick ascending limb actively pumps out Na+, K+ and Cl- from filtrate to ECF
This increases the osmotic pressure of ECF, which draws more water out of the descending loop so that the filtrate becomes increasingly concentrated
To prevent the ECF becoming too diluted, much of the secreted water is taken in by the vasa recta

161
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Insets water pores (AQP2) into apical membrane of collecting duct, increasing renal water absorption
Restores blood volume and pressure

162
Q

What happens to ADH secretion when an animal drinks a large amount of water in a short space of time?

A

It decreases (causing reduced water reabsorption and increased water in urine)

163
Q

Which hormone enables active reabsorption of Ca2+ from DCT to capillary?

A

Parathyroid hormone

164
Q

How is Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion increased in the principle cells of the renal collecting duct?

A

Increased activity of existing channels and pumps

Synthesis of new channels and pumps

165
Q

Which hormone increases Na+ absorption and K+ secretion?

A

Aldosterone

166
Q

What does the hormone erythropoietin do? What releases it and when?

A

Production of RBCs
Released by kidneys in times of low O2
Targets red marrow of bone marrow and speeds up maturation and release of immature RBCs

168
Q

Does urine composition change between the collecting ducts and bladder?

A

No except in horses-glands in the renal pelvis and upper ureter secrete mucous
Equine urine is therefore quite viscous

169
Q

What sympathetic effects enable the bladder to fill?

Which neurotransmitter acts on which receptors?

A

Relaxation of detrusor muscle (noradrenaline, beta-2)

Contraction of internal sphincter (noradrenaline, alpha-1)

170
Q

What somatic motor effect enables the bladder to fill?

Which neurotransmitter acts on which receptor?

A

Continuous excitation of the external urethral sphincter muscle (acetylcholine on nicotinic receptors)

171
Q

What parasympathetic effects cause the bladder to empty?

Which neurotransmitter acts on which receptor?

A

Contraction of detrusor muscle
Relaxation of internal sphincter
Via acetylcholine acting on muscarinic receptors

172
Q

What somatic motor effect causes the bladder to empty?

A

Inhibition of continuous excitation of external sphincter

173
Q

How is positive feedback achieved during urination?

A

Urine stimulates sensory cells in the urethra, which increases parasympathetic stimulation of detrusor muscle

174
Q

Why can an animal, up to a point, delay bladder emptying?

A

External urethral sphincter muscle is under voluntary control

175
Q

What are the limits for pH of ECF?

A

Between 7.35 and 7.45

Above or below=acidosis or alkalosis

176
Q

What is the single biggest input of acid under normal conditions?

A

CO2 from production of ATP

CO2 + H2O -> <- H+ + HCO3-

177
Q

What effect does increased plasma CO2 have on plasma pH?

A

Makes it more acidic, decreased pH

more H+ produced

178
Q

In the DCT, how is secretion of H+ regulated?

A

Type A cells secrete H+ into tubule during acidosis and reabsorb HCO3-

179
Q

What is the difference between respiratory and metabolic acidosis?

A

Respiratory acidosis occurs when CO2 accumulates because of hypoventilation

Metabolic acidosis occurs when non-respiratory acids accumulate

180
Q

What is plasma osmolarity monitored by?

A

Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus

181
Q

What are the stimuli for ADH release?

A 
Plasma osmolarity (increased)
Blood pressure (decreased)
Blood volume (decreased)
182
Q

What does angiotensin II do?

A

Vasocontriction of arterioles
Aldosterone secretion
ADH secretion
Increase blood pressure (via medulla oblongata reflexes)

183
Q

What does ANP do?

A

(opposite to aldosterone)
Decreases blood pressure, ADH secretion, aldosterone secretion
Increases water and Na+ secretion
Vasodilation of afferent arterioles

In response to high blood pressure

184
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Increases blood pressure
Increases Na+ reabsorption from kidney tubules
Increases K+ secretion into tubules/urine

185
Q

When does potassium retention occur?

A

When pH falls

186
Q

What is azotaemia?

What causes it?

A

Abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds in the blood (eg urea)

Caused by decreased GFR

187
Q

What are the 3 types of azotaemia?

High levels of nitrogen-containing compounds in blood

A

Pre-renal: Reduced blood supply to kidney
Renal: Intrinsic disease of kidney
Post-renal: Blockage of urine flow below the kidneys

188
Q

How can you distinguish between pre-renal and renal azotaemia?

A

Renal= animal can NOT concentrate urine

can if pre-renal

189
Q

What key changes in blood are associated with kidney dysfunction?

A

Increased urea and creatine
Increased K+
Decreased HCO3-
Metabolic acidosis

190
Q

What key changes in urine are associated with kidney dysfunction?

A

Glucose in urine
Protein/amino acids in urine
Dilute urine (unable to concentrate urine)

191
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism
Causes decreased aldosterone secretion:
Decreased Na+ reabsorption, decreased K+ secretion, bradycardia, hypovalaemic shock

213
Q

Which are of the bladder is sensitive to expansion and signals to the brain that it needs to empty?

A

Trigone

Semester 2 (10 decks)

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