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Semester 2 > OSPE Anatomy > Flashcards

OSPE Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

In which direction do the fibres run in the external oblique muscle?

A

Caudoventrally (from cranial to caudal)

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1
Q

Where do the cranial 2 pairs of mammary glands receive their blood supply from?
Where do the caudal 3 pairs receive their blood supply from?

A

Superficial cranial epigastric artery (branch of internal thoracic artery)

Superficial caudal epigastric artery (branch of external pudendal artery)

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2
Q

In which direction do the fibres run in the internal oblique muscle?

A

Cranioventrally (from caudal to cranial)

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3
Q

Which ligament runs within the falciform ligament in the bitch?

A

Round ligament (remnant of umbilical vein)

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4
Q

What is the name of the potential space between the 2 layers of greater omentum?

A

Omental bursa

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5
Q

What is the name of the only opening to the omental bursa?

Where is it situated in the abdomen and what is it bordered by?

A

Epiploic foramen
Cranioventral abdomen
Bordered by hepatic portal vein, liver and caudal vena cava

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6
Q

The mesentery of the jejunum contains many what?

A

Lymph nodes
Situated near the body wall
Associated with the blood vessels that drain the gut

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7
Q

How can you identify the ileum from the jejunum?

A

Short (15cm)

Only part of intestines to have antimesenteric blood vessels

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8
Q

What shape is the colon?

A

Question mark

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9
Q

Of the 2 kidneys, which is more cranial?

A

Right

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10
Q

Where are the adrenal glands?

A

They lie craniomedially to their respective kidney

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11
Q

What is the function of the platysma muscle?

Which nerve innervates it?

A

Draws the commisure of the lips caudally

Cervical branch of facial

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12
Q

What kind of salivary gland is the parotid salivary gland?

A

Serous

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13
Q

What kind of salivary glands are the mandibular, sublingual and zygomatic glands?

A

Mixed

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14
Q

The mandibular lymph nodes lie either side of which vein?

A

Facial vein

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15
Q

Where is the zygomatic salivary gland located?

A

Base of the orbit, medial to the zygomatic arch

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16
Q

In the radius, is the styloid process situated medially or laterally?

A

Medially

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17
Q

Why do horses have very large transverse processes?

A

To support the large GI tract

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18
Q

On the humerus, is the trochlea situated medially or laterally?

A

Medially

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19
Q

In the dog, which process prevents backwards movement of the jaw?

A

Retroarticular process

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20
Q

What part of the humerus does the radius articulate with?

A

Trochlea and capitulum

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21
Q

Of the tibia and fibula, which is medial?

A

Tibia

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22
Q

What are the 2 components of an invertebral disc?

A 
Nucleus pulposus (soft centre)
Annulus fibrosis (dense fibrous tissue)
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23
Q

What is the large hole lateral to the tympanic bulla?

A

External auditory meatus

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24
Q

What are the 2 holes in the hard palate called?

What lies within them?

A

Palatine fissures

Vomeronasal organ

25
Q

What is the chief function of the:
Dorsal meatus
Middle meatus
Ventral meatus

A

Dorsal=olfaction (leads to caudal dorsal nasal cavity)
Middle=communicates with maxillary sinus
Ventral=main route of inspired air to lungs

26
Q

What runs through the cribriform plate?

A

Branches of the olfactory nerve

27
Q

What is a sinus?

A

An air-filled diverticulum of the nasal cavity

28
Q

Does the frontal sinus communicate with any other cavity in the carnivore?
Where is the opening?

A

Yes-directly with the nasal cavity

Between the ethmoturbinate bones at the caudal end of the nasal cavity

29
Q

If an adult animal is dehorned, water vapour can sometimes be seen escaping from the horn stump when breathing, why?

A

Frontal sinus is continuous with nasal cavity

30
Q

What part of the brain needs destroying to cause rapid death?

A

Medulla oblongata

31
Q

What nerves innervate the lining of the frontal sinus?

A

Opthalmic branch of trigeminal

32
Q

Which teeth would the rostral maxillary sinus give access to in the horse?

A

Cheek teeth 4 and 5

33
Q

Name 2 features of the maxillary sinus that make it prone to infection

A

Frontal sinus drains into it

Close association with upper cheek teeth, so tooth root infection can break through alveolar bone into maxillary sinus

34
Q

What structure passes through the infraorbital canal (bony tube within the maxilla)?
Where does it exit?

A 
Infraorbital nerve (branch of maxillary trigeminal)
Infraorbital foramen
35
Q

Why might you open up a trephine hole in a horse?

A

Drain infection of sinus

Remove broken/infected tooth

36
Q

Which bones are shortened in a brachycephalic skull?

A

Frontal, maxilla, palatine, nasal, incisive

37
Q

Why could pressure on the muzzle of a brachycephalic dog be dangerous?

A

Could occlude nasal airway as extra soft tissue and lack of bony support would block nostrils. If mouth is held shut, dog can’t breathe

38
Q

What epithelium is present on the soft palate:
Respiratory surface
Oral surface

A

Respiratory=Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
Oral=stratified squamous epithelium with rete pegs for anchorage

39
Q

What word means variation in colour of red blood cells?

A

Polychromasia

40
Q

What word means variation in size of red blood cells?

A

Anisocytosis

41
Q

What word means variation in shape of red blood cells?

A

Poikilocytosis

42
Q

Taste buds contain which kind of glands?

A

Serous

43
Q

In terms of anaesthesia, why is an inhalational agent safer than an intravenous agent?

A

Intravenous agents require metabolism (usually by liver) to deactivate the agent and allow the animal to regain consciousness whereas with an inhalational agent, just by stopping delivery of the inhalational agent allows the animal to regain consciousness

44
Q

What does inhalational anaesthetic consist of?

A

An appropriate controlled level of inhalational agent mixed with oxygen

45
Q

What are the 5 principal components of an anaesthetic machine?

A
  1. Fresh gas supply (oxygen)
  2. Flow meter with bypass valve (to deliver fresh oxygen without inhalational agent direct to the patient in case of emergency)
  3. A vaporiser (mixes an appropriate controlled level of inhalational agent with oxygen to maintain general anaesthesia)
  4. A breathing circuit with a pressure relief valve (interface between patient and anaesthetic machine)
  5. A scavenging system to remove exhaled gases away from the vet’s environment
46
Q

What are the 2 types of breathing circuits?

A

Re-breathing (patient re-breathes expired gas, contains higher levels of CO2 which must be extracted before patient rebreathes expired gas. Economical but high resistance, therefore only suitable for patients over 25kg)
Non re-breathing (expired gas is flushed out of circuit uneconomical but low resistance, therefore suitable for patients under 25kg)

47
Q

What removes CO2 from expired gas so that it’s safe to be re-breathed?

A

Soda lime cannister

48
Q

Parallel lack is a modification of which non rebreathing circuit?

A

Mapleson A

49
Q

What are the 2 non-rebreathing circuit modifications and which mapleson circuits are they modifications of?

A 
Parallel lack (Mapleson A-2 parallel tubes)
Co-axial Bain (Mapleson D-fresh gas tube is within expired gas tube)
50
Q

What is minute volume?
(Anaesthetic equipment)
What is a good approximation of this?

A

Volume of gas expired per minute

200mls/kg/min

51
Q

By how many times must flow rate exceed minute volume?

Mapleson A, D and F

A

Mapleson A: 1 x minute volume
Mapleson D: 2 to 2.5 x minute volume
Mapleson F: 2.5 to 3 x minute volume

52
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s too high?

A

Wasteful-fresh gas is wasted

53
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s slightly low?

A

There is some dead space gas, but this is acceptable

54
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s too low?

A

Alveolar gas is not flushed out, it is dangerous to breathe this back in

55
Q

How do ventral turbinates differ in horses and dogs?

A

Bottom scroll is missing in horse

In the dog, there are extra scrolls on the main scroll

56
Q

What are the 4 attachments of the ovaries?

A

Ovarian ligament-attaches ovary to lateral body wall at caudal pole of kidney. Contains ovarian artery and vein so must be ligated in spay
Mesosalpinx-attaches ovary to uterine tube (part of broad ligament)
Suspensory ligament-attaches ovary to lateral body wall at caudal pole of kidney, must be broken in bitch spay to expose the ovary
Proper ligament of ovary-attaches ovary to cranial end of uterine horn

57
Q

How does the uterus attach to the lateral body wall?

A

Broad ligament (mesometrium)

58
Q

Which muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A 
Levator ani
Coccygeus
Rectococcygeus 
Internal and external anal sphincters 
Internal obturator
59
Q

What supplies blood to the penis?

A

Internal pudendal artery

60
Q

What are the muscles of the penis?

A

Retractor penis muscle
Ischiocavernosus muscle
Bulbospongiosus muscle

Semester 2 (10 decks)

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