Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small (Chloe) > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

At what age range do dogs typically reach puberty?

A

Between 6 and 23 months. Small dogs typically turn earlier than large dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can cause delayed puberty in dogs?

A

Systemic disease
Slow weight gain
Chromosomal abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do queens first come into oestrus?

A

6 to 10 months of age - can be influenced by season and bcs/weight. Occurs in the spring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some causes of prolonged proestrus/oestrus?

A

Can be normal
Follicular cysts
Ovarian tumours
Adrenal tumours
Non-oestrus attraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a split oestrus?

A

Normal oestrus followed by another a short time later. Absence of ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a silent oestrus?

A

Normal cyclicity without external signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause prolonged anoestrus?

A

Failure of observation
Systemic disease
Drug-induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the optimal mating time in the bitch?

A

Ovulation can vary between day 5 and day 32.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are causes for a bitch to fail to get/stay pregnant?

A

Inappropriate mating times
Male factor infertility
Abnormal uterine environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a pyometra?

A

Bacterial contamination of the uterus. May occur during oestrus when the cervix is relaxed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What age of dogs are pyometras most common?

A

Middle aged to older bitches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What hormone do follicular cysts produce?

A

Oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What hormone do luteal cysts produce?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian tumour?

A

Granulosa cell tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some signs of libido?

A

Sniffing, jumping and playing
Bitch stands and deviates tail
Rapid thrusting movements
Dogs tie and turn to face caudally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some characteristics of normal testicles?

A

Freely moveable
Even
U/s: Moderately hypoechoic parenchyma, echogenic stippling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 fractions of ejaculate?

A
  1. 0.5 to 2ml of prostatic fluid containing no sperm. During foreplay.
  2. 0.5 to 2ml of sperm rich semen deposited in cranial vagina. During intromission.
  3. 15 to 20ml of prostatic fluid containing no sperm. During tie.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What problems can occur during mating?

A

Poor libido - inexperienced or poor management
Mating difficult - inexperience, abnormal conformation, psychological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the bitch’s breeding cycle

A

Mono-oestrus, non-seasonal, spontaneous ovulators, long anoestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the queen’s breeding cycle

A

Poly-oestrus, seasonal, induced ovulatory, no luteal phase is not ovulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What virus causes vestibular lesions in the genital tract of dogs and bitches? Can also cause reabsorption, abortion and stillbirths in bitches.

A

Canine herpes virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can canine herpes virus be acquired?

A

Venereally or via respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What four viruses can cause pregnancy loss in the bitch?

A

Canine herpes virus
Parvovirus
Adenovirus
Distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 3 viruses can cause pregnancy loss in the queen?

A

Feline leukaemia virus (FeLV)
Feline herpes virus
Feline panleukopenia virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What features of vaginal endoscopy can be used to indicate when the bitch is coming into ovulation?

A

Change in size, colour, moistness and contour of the mucosal folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

From what day of pregnancy can you use ultrasound to P/D in the bitch?

A

Day 20 after ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

From what day of pregnancy can you use ultrasound to P/D in the queen?

A

Day 18 after ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What signs of foetal death can be detected on radiography?

A

Loss of normal posture
Overlapping of skull bites
Accumulation of gas in the foetus/uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most commonest cause of infertility in the bitch?

A

Mating at the incorrect time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most commonest cause of infertility in the queen?

A

Mating an insufficient number of times on the correct day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is pituitary dwarfism?

A

Congenital growth hormone deficiency - abnormal development of the pituitary gland where hormone producing cells fail to differentiate during gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What breed of dog is pre-disposed with pituitary dwarfism?

A

German Shepherds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What hormones are involved in pituitary dwarfism?

A

TSH, prolactin, gonadotrophins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What clinical signs are present with pituitary dwarfism?

A

Stunted growth
Delaying dentition
Puppy coat, bilateral symmetrical alopecia
Abnormal reproductive development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What treatment is available for pituitary dwarfism?

A

Growth hormones, progestogens, supplement thyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is abnormal in primary congenital hypothyroidism?

A

The thyroid glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is abnormal in secondary congenital hypothyroidism?

A

The pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is normal in tertiary congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are signs of disproportionate dwarfism?

A

Wide skull
Macroglossia
Delayed dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the clinical signs of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Weight loss/stunted growth
Voluminous fatty diarrhoea
Flatulence
Borborygmi
Vomiting
Polydipsia
Greasy hair coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do you treat exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Supplement pancreatic enzymes
Avoid high fat/fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the definition of juvenile diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin deficiency (usually absolute) <6months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the clinical signs of juvenile diabetes mellitus?

A

Stunted growth, signs of adult diabetes mellitus, concurrent disorders - EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a shunt?

A

When a foetal vascular structure fails to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do portosystemic shunts typically present?

A

Neuro signs/ hepatic encephalopathy - depression, blindness, ataxia, seizures
GI - Hypersalivation, V+, D+
Urinary - Dysuria, pollakiuria, haematuria, stranguria
Stunted growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do acquired shunts present differently to congenital shunts?

A

Present with ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does a persistent right aortic arch present?

A

Regurgitation soon after weaning due to compression on the oesophagus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the types of congenital renal disease?

A

Dysplasia/hypoplasia
Aplasia/Agenesis
Renal fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How much weight should a puppy gain each day from the day its born?

A

5 to 10% per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What should the respiratory rate of a new born puppy be?

A

15-50 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What should the temperature of a new-borns puppy be?

A

34 degrees Celsius

52
Q

Is green/red/brown discharge normal after parturition?

A

Yes

53
Q

What are the 4 steps of monitoring new born puppies for the first 2 weeks of life?

A
  1. Ensure colostrum and milk intake
  2. Hydration status
  3. Monitoring environmental environmental temperature and pup behaviour
  4. Regular clinical examination
54
Q

How to monitor hydration status in the neonate?

A

Urine exam, weight gain and skin elasticity

55
Q

What antimicrobial may be considered in the neonate with minor disease?

A

Amoxiclav

56
Q

What are signs of significant disease in the neonate?

A

Onset of downward spiral. Failure to suck resulting in circulatory collapse and death.

57
Q

What are the most life threatening problems for a puppy between 2 and 6 weeks of age?

A

Dehydration for diarrhoea
Internal/external parasites
Traumatic insults

58
Q

What are clinical signs of a fading puppy?

A

Poor respiratory function
Respiratory distress
Inability to suck
Fatal hypoxia
Dehydration
Low blood sugars
Hypothermia and death

59
Q

What percentage of mammary tumours are malignant in dogs?

A

50%

60
Q

What percentage of mammary tumours are malignant in cats?

A

85%

61
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for mammary neoplasia

A

Previous use of progesterone
Early ovariectomy reduces risk
Obesity
Hormone receptors

62
Q

What are poor prognostic indicators for mammary neoplasia?

A

Rapid growth, poor delineation, inflammatory tissue, ulceration, regional metastasis, large size

63
Q

What surgical techniques are there for removal of mammary tumours?

A

Lumpectomy
Single, regional or complete mastectomy

64
Q

What is galactostasis?

A

Congestion of the mammary gland

65
Q

How do you treat galactostasis?

A

Reduce food intake, cold packs and encourage suckling/milking

66
Q

What is agalactia?

A

Failure of milk production or milk let-down

67
Q

How do you treat agalactia?

A

Metoclopramide (production) or oxytocin (let-down)

68
Q

What bacteria are common pathogens for mastitis?

A

E.coli
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus

69
Q

What are clinical signs of mastitis?

A

Swelling, heat, pain, abscessation

70
Q

What initial antibiotics are recommended for the treatment of mastitis?

A

Cephalexin and amoxiclav.

71
Q

What hormone causes pseudopregnancy?

A

Prolactin

72
Q

What is fibroepithelial hyperplasia?

A

Significant mammary enlargement causes by local growth hormone production in response to progesterone

73
Q

What are clinical signs of fibroepithelial hyperplasia?

A

Glands are firm, massive, oedematous, ulcerated.
FNA shows epithelial and spindle cells.

74
Q

How do you treat fibroepithelial hyperplasia?

A

Remove progesterone stimulation - surgery, monitor

75
Q

What are common testicular diseases?

A

Tumours
Abnormal descent
Degeneration
Torsion of spermatic cord
Orchitis
Inguinal hernia

76
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Inflammation of the penis and preputial lining

77
Q

What is balanitis?

A

Inflammation of the penis - haemorrhagic spots on the penile skin

78
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Abnormally small preputial orifice

79
Q

What is azoospermia?

A

Apparently normal ejaculation but no sperm

80
Q

What diagnostic techniques are available for the prostate gland?

A

Rectal palpation and massage
Radiography and U/S
Semen evaluation
Urinalysis
Prostatic aspiration/biopsy
Haematology + blood culture

81
Q

What hormones are related to benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Androgen and oestrogen ratios

82
Q

What treatment options are available for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Castration, progestogens, GnRH depot agonist, Finasteride

83
Q

What pathogen most commonly causes acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

E.Coli

84
Q

What treatment options are available for cystic uterus masculinus?

A

Castration, surgical excision +/- omentalisation

85
Q

What is the most common type of prostatic neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

86
Q

What are some indicators of poor mothering behaviour?

A

Bitch won’t settle
Picks up and carries pups
Doesn’t let them suck
Aggressive to owner or visitors
Aggressive to pups

87
Q

How long does normal uterine involution take in the bitch?

A

12 weeks

88
Q

How long does normal uterine involution take in the queen?

A

6 weeks

89
Q

What is the treatment for suspected retained foetal membranes?

A

Oxytocin and antibiotics.
Consider low dose prostaglandin

90
Q

In what time period should the pup’s placenta be passed?

A

Within 20 minutes of each pup.

91
Q

What can cause post-partum metritis?

A

Difficult or prolonged births
Placental retention
Abortion

92
Q

What are the clinical signs of post-partum metritis?

A

Depression, pyrexia, anorexia, purulent vulval discharge, neutrophilia with left shift, uterine enlargement

93
Q

What is the treatment for post-partum metritis?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics, fluid therapy, ecbolic agents

94
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Nervousness
Panting
Whining
Hypersalivation
Stiff gait
Tetany

95
Q

What treatment is used for excessive milk production at weaning?

A

Cabergoline

96
Q

What is conception failure?

A

Not getting pregnant

97
Q

What is resorption?

A

Loss of the embryo

98
Q

What is abortion?

A

Loss and expulsion of the foetus

99
Q

What is a stillbirth?

A

Expulsion of term but death foetus

100
Q

What causes mating induced endometritis?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH) and commensal bacteria

101
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine herpes virus in neonates?

A

Sudden death
Haemorrhage
Vomiting/diarrhoea
Weight loss and failure to suck
Constant complaining
Neurological signs
Ocular disorders

102
Q

What are non-infectious causes of resorption and abortion?

A

Abnormal uterine environmental, foetal abnormalities or low progesterone

103
Q

What is the normal length of dog gestation?

A

63 +/- 1 day from ovulation

104
Q

What is the normal foetal heart rate at term?

A

170-230bpm or at least 4x maternal HR

105
Q

What does a foetal heart rate of less than 150bpm indicate?

A

Stress/hypoxia

106
Q

What does a foetal heart rate of less than 130bpm indicate?

A

Poor survival if not delivered with 2 to 3 hours

107
Q

What does a foetal heart rate of less than 100bpm indicate?

A

Immediate intervention to hasten delivery before demise of puppies

108
Q

What hormones increase from the release of GnRH agonists?

A

LH and FSH

109
Q

What are GnRH agonists licenced for?

A

Control of behaviour and fertility in male dogs
Temporary suppression of oestrus and delay of puberty in bitches

110
Q

What are the negative feedback effects of progestogens?

A

Closes the cervix
Stimulates endometrial proliferation
Suppresses myometrial activity
Mammary enlargement

111
Q

What are the adverse effects of progestogens?

A

Increased appetite
Risk of cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH)
Acromegaly, coat changes
Suppression of spermatogenesis
Masculinised female pups, cryptorchid male pups.

112
Q

What is the treatment of pseudopregnancy?

A

Progestogens, cabergoline

113
Q

What are the effects of oestrogens on the reproductive tract?

A

Oedema, pheromone production and changes the function of the uterine tube and uterus.

114
Q

What do prostaglandins cause?

A

The lysis of the corpus luteum.

115
Q

What are the adverse effects of prostaglandins?

A

Restlessness, hypersalivation, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia

116
Q

How do you treat an open pyometra?

A

Low dose prostaglandin, twice daily for 5 to 10 days.
IVFT and suitable ABs

117
Q

What are the actions of oxytocin?

A

Contraction of the uterine smooth muscle when receptors are present.
Pharmacological contraction of uterine smooth muscle when few receptors are present
Aid milk let-down

118
Q

What are the adverse effects of prolactin inhibitors?

A

Nausea, vomiting, lethargy, abortion and return to oestrus

119
Q

What are the uses progesterone receptor antagonists?

A

Prevention of implantation, termination of pregnancy at any stage, treatment of pyometra

120
Q

When is melatonin produced?

A

In response to decreased daylight

121
Q

What are the advantages of surgical sterilisation?

A

Reduction in incidence of mammary neoplasia
Prevention of uterine disease
Prevention of ovarian disease
Prevention of endocrine disease

122
Q

What are the disadvantages of surgical sterilisation?

A

Increased incidence of urinary incontinence
Changes in coat texture
Tendence to gain weight
Changes in behaviour
Increase incidence of some neoplasia

123
Q

Why is there an increased risk of regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia for the pregnant bitch under GA?

A

Increased gastric motility and reduced oesophageal sphincter tone

124
Q

Why would the pregnant bitch need more oxygen during GA?

A

Increased oxygen consumption and basal metabolic rate due to increased cardiac workload to meet the needs of the foetuses.

125
Q

What premed considerations are needed for a pregnant bitch?

A

Use low-end of dose range (up to 60% less)
Consider an opioid - methadone
Pre-oxygenate to prevent hypoxaemia
Consider omeprazole and maropitant

Small (Chloe) (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions