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Small (Chloe) > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What are some allergy triggers?

A

Environmental allergens
Food
Ectoparasites
Contact allergens
Microorganisms
Drugs

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2
Q

What is canine atopic dermatitis?

A

Common, chronic, relapsing, pruritic and inflammatory skin syndrome with characteristic clinical features.

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3
Q

What are some common environmental allergens?

A

Dust mites, pollens and moulds

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4
Q

When does environmental canine atopic dermatitis occur?

A

On re-exposure of an allergen

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5
Q

What pathophysiology occurs on re-exposure to an allergen?

A

Degranulation of mast cells and production of cytokines from activated T-cells.

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6
Q

What are the 7 points of Favrot’s criteria for environmental CAD?

A
  1. Age of onset <3years
  2. Living mostly indoors
  3. Glucocorticoid-responsive pruritus
  4. Non-lesional pruritus
  5. Affected front feet and/pr pinnae
  6. Unaffected ear margins
  7. Unaffected dorsal/lumbar area
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7
Q

What are the clinical signs of uncomplicated environmental CAD?

A

Erythema, self-induced alopecia, excoriations, primary popular eruption

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8
Q

What common food sources can cause a food allergy in dogs?

A

Beef, dairy, chicken and wheat

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9
Q

What is feline atopic skin syndrome?

A

Inflammatory/pruritus skin syndrome likely associated with IgE

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10
Q

Pros and cons of using glucocorticoids for allergies

A

Pros: Highly effective for inflammation and pruritus, rapid onset (24hrs), inexpensive
Cons: Significant side effect risk

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11
Q

What is oclacitinib (apoquel) licenced for?

A

Dogs that are a minimum of 1 year old

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12
Q

What is the action of lokivetmab (cytopoint)?

A

Blocks interleukin-31

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13
Q

Pros and cons of lokivetmab?

A

Pros: Good safety profile, excellent anti-pruritic, rapid onset, use in dogs of any age, with impaired liver/kidney function and neoplasia
Cons: Dogs only, efficacy may be lost with time, minimal anti-inflammatory effect, rare anaphylaxis

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14
Q

What is ciclosporin licenced for?

A

Dogs and cats

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15
Q

What is the action of ciclosporin?

A

T-cell suppressor

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16
Q

What are the challenges with cat allergy management?

A
  • Few licenced products
  • Administration of treatments more difficult
  • Vet visits more stressful
  • Scratching can cause rapid and severe damage
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17
Q

What is the most common bacterial skin infection?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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18
Q

What are signs of a bacterial skin infection?

A

Focal to multifocal patches of alopecia +/- pustules and crusts.

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19
Q

Most common species of ringworm

A

Microsporum canis

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20
Q

Indications for mild cases of ringworm

A

Scale and associated alopecia. Multifocal patches are often circular and typically 4-6cm +/- hyperpigmentation. Follicular casts.

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21
Q

Diagnostic options for ringworm

A

Woods lamp, trichography, in house DTM, external lab fungal culture +/- PCR

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22
Q

What causes demodicosis?

A

Demodex mites

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23
Q

Indications of juvenile onset demodicosis

A

Localised or generalised. Alopecia, scaling, blue-grey hyperpigmentation, comedones, follicular casts +/- superficial bacterial infection

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24
Q

What diseases are follicular casts a common presentation of?

A

Demodicosis
Dermatophytosis
Sebaceous adenitis

25
Q

Clinical signs of demodex cati

A

Comedones, alopecia, erythema, crust and scale

26
Q

Treatment options for demodex cati

A

Isoxazolines, selemectin or sarolaner

27
Q

Breed pre-disposition to sebaceous adenitis

A

Akitas and poodles

28
Q

Breed pre-disposition to dermatomyositis

A

Collies

29
Q

Main clinical sign of alopecia areata

A

Rapid hair loss followed by incomplete regrowth of white hair

30
Q

What is telogen defluxion?

A

Sudden loss of hair that occurs 1-3 months post-stressful incident.

31
Q

What is alopecia X?

A

Primary hair loss follows by complete alopecia and hyperpigmentation

32
Q

What medications can cause injection alopecia?

A

Glucocorticoids, vaccines and depot antibiotics

33
Q

4 hair synthesis defects

A
  1. Congenital alopecia
  2. Pattern alopecia
  3. Follicular dysplasia
  4. Anagen defluxion/effluvium
34
Q

Age range of environmental atopic dermatitis

A

6 months to 3 years

35
Q

Typical age of onset of food induced atopic dermatitis

A

Less than 1 year

36
Q

Presentation of deep pyoderma

A

Furunculosis, abscess or cellulitis

37
Q

Differentials for pinnal margin pruritus

A

Scabies
Neotrombicular autumnalis

38
Q

What 3 physiological factors can be associated with otitis?

A

Temperature, humidity and pH

39
Q

Normal flora of the otitis externis

A

Predominantly gram positive cocci and malassezia

40
Q

Otodecetes cyanotis treatment

A

Ear cream, cleaner =/- steroids

41
Q

Consequences of otitis media

A

Conductive deafness, Horner’s syndrome and vestibular syndrome

42
Q

Clinical signs of otitis interna

A

Head tilt to affected side
Spontaneous or rotatory nystagmus
Asymmetrical limb ataxia
Falling
Vomiting +/- anorexia

43
Q

The four feline cutaneous reaction patterns

A

Head and neck pruritus
Miliary dermatitis
Bilaterally symmetrical alopecia
Eosinophilic granuloma complex lesions

44
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

Involves imbalance between types of organisms in the microbiome

45
Q

Canine intertrigo

A

Skin fold infection

46
Q

Acute moist dermatitis

A

Acute lesions caused by skin self-trauma

47
Q

What is impetigo associated with?

A

Immature immune system/ immunosuppression

48
Q

What drugs are contraindicated with deep pyoderma?

A

Corticosteroids and oclacitinib

49
Q

What are the risk factors for meticillin-resistant staphylococcal pyoderma (MRS)?

A

Previous antimicrobial therapy, repeated visits to the vets and invasive procedures

50
Q

Definition of pruritis

A

Unpleasant sensation that elicits the desire or reflex to scratch

51
Q

Biggest cause of feline face, head and neck pruritus

A

Ectoparasites

52
Q

Common sites of eosinophilic granuloma complex

A

Caudal thighs and oral cavity

53
Q

Minimum length of time for an exclusion diet trial

A

8 weeks

54
Q

What is scale?

A

Presence of flakes and keratin in the hair coat and on the skin

55
Q

Breed predisposition to Zn-responsive dermatosis

A

Husky

56
Q

Key histological finding of Zinc-responsive dermatosis

A

Hyperkeratosis

57
Q

Breed pre-disposition of Ichthyosis

A

Golden retriever

58
Q

Cutaneous lupus signalment for FDLE and MCLE

A

FDLE - GSDS - 7 year onset
MCLE - Female GSDs, 6 year onset

59
Q

Colloquial name for decubital ulcers

A

Pressure sores

Small (Chloe) (11 decks)

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