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Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 cell types form bone?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes and osteoclasts

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2
Q

What is lamellar bone composed of?

A

Parallel-orientated collagen fibres

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3
Q

How is woven bone characterisied?

A

Collagen fibres arranged in an irregular meshwork

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4
Q

What does brachygnathia mean?

A

Abnormally short jaw

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5
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Dorsal curvature of the spinal column

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6
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Ventral curvature of the spinal column

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7
Q

What is scolisos?

A

Lateral deviation of the spinal column

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8
Q

What is syndactyly?

A

Fusion of digits

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9
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Reduction in bone mass

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10
Q

What is rickets?

A

Failure of mineralisation in the growing skeleton or adults

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11
Q

What are the causes of rickers?

A

Calcium/vitamin D deficiency
Phosphorus deficiency
Chronic renal failure

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12
Q

What is fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

Increased widespread osteoclastic resorption of bone and replacement by fibrous tissue.

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13
Q

What is the signalment associated with metaphyseal osteopathy?

A

Young dogs (2-6 months), large breeds

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14
Q

What are the clinical signs of metaphyseal osteopathy?

A

Lameness, fever, swollen, painful metaphysis in multiple long bones.

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15
Q

What is the most common primary bone neoplasia in dogs and cats?

A

Osteosarcomas

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16
Q

What is the most common treatment for pharyngeal fractures?

A

External coaptation with dressings and splints

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17
Q

What is the most common treatment for carpal fractures and subluxations?

A

Arthrodesis

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18
Q

What is the top differential for cellulitis and acute onset of lameness in the cat?

A

Cat bite

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19
Q

What is the breed pre-disposition for pododermatitis?

A

English bull terrier

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20
Q

What breed is pre-disposed to sesamoiditis?

A

Greyhounds

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21
Q

What is found on clinical exam with sesamoiditis?

A

Profound acute lameness with pinpoint pain on applying pressure over the affected sesamoid.

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22
Q

What is paronychia?

A

Bacterial infection in the nail base

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23
Q

What is onychomycosis?

A

Fungal infection seen in multiple nails

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24
Q

When should neoplasia of the nail bred be considered?

A

Any non-healing nail bed infection or a torn nail that fails to heal after removal

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25
Q

What can influence the degree of post-operative fracture care?

A

Strength of repair and confidence in it
Nature of fracture
Age of patient
Temperament of patient
Degree to which owner can be relied on

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26
Q

What is the aim of open fracture reduction?

A

Try to achieve 100% reduction

27
Q

What can be a post-operative complication of cerclage wires?

A

Loosing of the wires can result in fracture instability as they twist.

28
Q

What are some of the post-operative risks of IM pins?

A

Damage to sciatic nerve, migration, rotation of the fracture around the pin, enters joint

29
Q

What are the clinical signs of osteomyelitis?

A

Lame, swelling, warmth, discharging sinus, pyrexia

30
Q

What type of malunion are well tolerated?

A

Craniocaudal malunions

31
Q

How is blood supply distributed to the bone?

A

1/3 periosteal and 2/3 endosteal

32
Q

What is classes as a comminuted fracture?

A

Consists of at least 3 pieces of bone

33
Q

What is classed as an avulsion fracture?

A

Distractive force results in a fracture.

34
Q

What is primary bone healing?

A

When there is bone to bone heling. Requires intimate contact of the bone ends.

35
Q

What is secondary bone healing?

A

When there is intervening callus formation

36
Q

What anaesthesia considerations are there for head and mandibular fractures?

A

Often have compromised airways and reduced local reflexes. Consider tracheotomy or pharyngology.
Consider feeding tube at time of surgery.

37
Q

What is the simplest management technique for mandibular fractures?

38
Q

What species are temporomandibular luxation seen almost exclusively in?

39
Q

What breeds are overrepresented with temporomandibular dysplasia?

A

Basset hounds and Persian cats

40
Q

What are the two types of temporomandibular ankylosis?

A

Intrascapular and extrascapular

41
Q

What is Perthe’s disease?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

42
Q

What is the pre-disposition of Perthe’s disease?

A

Toy and small breed dogs less than 6 months old
Manchester Terrier - heritability

43
Q

What are the clinical signs of Perthe’s disease?

A

Lameness associated with marked muscle atrophy. Reluctance to jump or go up and down the stairs.

44
Q

How is metaphyseal osteopathy characterised?

A

Dogs less than 6 months
Severe and excruciating painful swelling to metaphyseal region of all limbs.
Pyrexic

45
Q

What is the signalment of craniomandibular osteopathy?

A

Small terriers less than 6 months old

46
Q

What is the typical presentation of panosteitis?

A

Male GSD less than a year old that’s depressed, Pyrexic with severe lameness and pain on palpation of diaphysis.

47
Q

What is the result of osteochondrosis?

A

Thickened cartilage which fragments. Allows contact of synovial fluid with subchondral bone.
Cartilage can form a flap. Subchondral bone can fracture.

48
Q

When does the onset elbow dysplasia occur?

A

5-7 months

49
Q

What are the clinical sign of elbow dysplasia?

A

Chronic lameness worse on rising, tends to hold limb abducted and externally rotated.
Pain on manipulation and flexion with an ununited anconeal process.
Joint effusion and muscle atrophy

50
Q

Differentials for acute lameness in the mature animal

A

Sprains, acute cruciate rupture, fractures, cellulitis

51
Q

Differentials for chronic lameness in the mature animal

A

Osteoarthritis, humeral intercondylar fissure, nerve root tumour

52
Q

Differentials for intermittent lameness in the mature animal

A

Patella luxation, dislocation of the tendon of origin of the long digital extensor, superficial digital flexor instabililty

53
Q

What is the common signalment for humeral intercondylar fissure?

A

Breed: Spaniels, French bulldog
Age: Young to middle aged

54
Q

What is the most common bone tumour?

A

Osteosarcoma

55
Q

What are the pre-dilection sites for osteosarcomas?

A

Proximal humerus and tibia.
Distal radius and femur

56
Q

What are patella fractures in cats associated with?

A

Retained deciduous teeth

57
Q

Clinical history of osteoarthritis

A

Chronic lameness, worse in morning or after rising. Swelling to the joints. Reluctance to mount stairs or jump in car.

58
Q

Action of monoclonal antibodies in osteoarthritis

A

Directed against nerve growth factors

59
Q

What is an erosive form of immune mediated polyarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

60
Q

Indications of a myopathy

A

Muscle atrophy
Reduced muscle tone and local reflexes
Dysphonia, dysphagia and regurgitation
Megaoesophagus

61
Q

Describe myotonia

A

Increased tone and poor relaxation after muscle stimulation

62
Q

What is arthroplasty?

A

Excision or replacement of a joint

63
Q

What is arthrodesis?

A

Surgical fusion of a joint

64
Q

What are the indications for arthroplasty?

A
  • Grossly dysplastic joints
  • Severe and intractable pain from osteoarthritic joints
  • Un-reconstructable articular fractures
  • Persistent luxation

Small (Chloe) (11 decks)

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