Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Semester 4 > Repro Session 7 > Flashcards

Repro Session 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What stimulates formation of the blood-testis barrier?

A

Testosterone and androgen-binding protein of Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is LH necessary for spermatogenesis?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which two hormone cans initiate spermatogenesis in the absence of LH?

A

FSH and testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the action of oestrogen secreted by Leydig cells?

A

Increase sperm viability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which cells secrete inhibin in the male?

A

Sertoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a spermatid become after spermiogenesis?

A

Spermatozoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens in the head of a spermatid during spermiogenesis?

A

Nuclear condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is the acrosome of a spermatid formed?

A

Golgi apparatus secrete lysozyme like enzymes into vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of the acrosome?

A

Future penetration of an ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the acrosome of a spermatid found?

A

In the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the mid-piece of a spermatid.

A

Mitochondria become packed around contractile filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does the tail of a spermatid develop?

A

Centriole arises and micrtobules grow from it to form axoneme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the axoneme?

A

Shaft of flagellum with 20 micro tubules arranged in 9 doublets and 2 singlets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to excess cytoplasm during spermiogenesis?

A

Removed with excess organelles by testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does LH act on to cause testosterone secretion?

A

Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What surface molecules are found on a spermatozoa?

A

Proteins and carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the maturity and motility of spermatozoa.

A

Mature but lack motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are spermatozoa released?

A

Via spermation from Sertoli cells into lumen of seminiferous tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do Sertoli cells release in addition to spermatozoa?

A

Testicular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of testicular fluid?

A

Carry spermatozoa via peristaltic contractions to the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the surface proteins of spermatozoa covered in when they reach the epididymis?

A

Seminal plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to spermatozoa in the epididymis?

A

Gain motility, become fertile and be stored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does storing spermatozoa for several months have an impact in fertility?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to spermatozoa that are not released within a few months of arrival at the epipdidymis?

A

Phagocytosed by epididymal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the stages involved in maturation of the oocyte nucleus?

A

Meiosis I, nuclear membrane disappears, 1st polar body formed, Meiosis II, stop in metaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does the 1st polar body formed during oocyte nuclear maturation go?

A

Perivitelline space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What process are involved in oocyte cytoplasm maturation?

A

Organelle distribution, protein and lipid synthesis and cytoskeleton dynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens during organelle redistribution in oocyte cytoplasm maturation?

A

Mitochondria and ER form granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do protein and lipid synthesis during oocyte cytoplasm maturation form?

A

Cortical granules and lipid drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What cytoskeleton dynamics take place during oocyte cytoplasm maturation?

A

Movement of microfilaments to the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are dizygotic twins formed?

A

2 eggs are ovulated and fertilised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens during the excitement phase of coitus in both the male and female?

A

Sensory and psychological stimulation activate the limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

Instinct and mod part of the brain that initiates sex drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the neural consequences of activation of the limbic system?

A

Activation of sacral parasympathetic nerves and inhibition of thoracolumbar sympathetic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the consequences of activation of the sacral parasympathetic nervous system in the female?

A

Vasocongestion causing vaginal lubrication, clitoris engorgement, uterine elevation, increased muscle tone, increased HR, increased BP and vaginalis elongation and expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is nitric oxide synthase activated in the male excitement phase of coitus?

A

ACh acts on M3 receptors of endothelial cells causing an increase in calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the consequence of NO production from stimulated eNOS in the excitement phase of the male?

A

Causes arteriolar vasodilation in corpora cavernosa to increase penile bloodflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens in penile filling?

A

Latency period with increased blood but no erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the end results of the male excitement phase?

A

Penile tumescence (erection), scrotal skin thickens and tenses, testes elevate and engorge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the effect of continued stimulation on muscle tone, HR and BP in the female plateau phase of coitus?

A

Further increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What change is visible in the labia minora in the plateau phase?

A

Deepens in colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is the orgasmic platform found?

A

Lower 1/3 of vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does the clitoris do during the plateau phase?

A

Draws under its hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the function of Bartholin mucus secretion in the plateau phase ?

A

Lubricate vestibule for penis entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the positions of the uterus and vagina in the plateau phase.

A

Uterus fully elevated. Inner 2/3 of vagina fully distended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does activation of the sacrospinous reflex impede venous return in the male plateau phase?

A

Contracts ischiocavernosus causing compression of the crus penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What decreases arterial inflow in the male plateau phase?

A

Intracavernous pressure rising towards systemic circulatory levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the function of stimulation of the Cowper’s and Littre’s glands in the male plateau phase?

A

Secretions lubricate distal urethra and neutralise urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the thoracolumbar sympathetic reflex cause in the male emission phase?

A

Contraction of ductus deferens, ampulla, seminal vesicle and prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why do the urethral sphincters contract in the male emission phase?

A

Prevent retrograde ejaculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where does semen pool during the male emission phase?

A

Urethral bulb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two stages of the male orgasm phase?

A

Emission and ejaculation/expulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the neural involvement in the ejactulation phase?

A

Spinal reflex, cortical control, SNS L1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the action of neural activity in the ejaculation phase?

A

Contraction of smooth muscles in glands and ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What stimulates the pudendal nerve in the ejaculation phase?

A

Internal urethral filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does stimulation of the pudendal nerve cause in the ejaculation phase?

A

Contractions of genital organs, ischio- and bulbocavernosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens to the orgasmic platform in the female orgasmic phase?

A

Rhythmically contracts 3-15 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does pudendal nerve stimulation in the female orgasm phase cause?

A

Uterus (fundus to cervix) and anal sphincter contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens to the clitoris in the orgasm phase of coitus?

A

Remains under hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Does the inner 2/3 of vagina move during the orgasm phase of coitus?

A

No, remains motionless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Are multiple orgasms possible?

A

Yes but only in the female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are all visible changes in the breast during coitus due to?

A

Venous engorgement and increased arterial flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What changes are seen in the breasts during coitus?

A

Increased breast size, nipples erect, distinct veins, increase in areolar size and sex flush on breasts and upper abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the G spot?

A

Grafenberg spot = area of erotic sensitivity on anterior vaginal wall similar to male prostate tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens when the G spot is stimulated?

A

Small amount of fluid released that is enzymatically similar to prostatic secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What neural activity brings about the male and female resolution phase?

A

Activation of thoracolumbar sympathetic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the effects in the vasculature of the resolution phase of coitus?

A

Contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle and increase venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the results of the male resolution phase?

A

Detumescence, flaccidity, refractory period, testes descend and scrotum wrinkles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the results of the female resolution phase?

A

Clitoris descends, labia regress and vagina shortens and narrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the oust common cause of sexual dysfunction and has an increasing incidence?

A

Desire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What two categories can sexual dysfunction due to desire be divided into?

A

Hypo- and hyperactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe sexual dysfunction due to hypoactive desire.

A

Little or no interest in sex, can lead to revulsion or fear of one or all aspects of process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is hypoactive desire in sexual dysfunction often a result of?

A

Abuse or assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How does the severity of sexual dysfunction due to hyperactive desire vary?

A

From abnormally high interest in sex to nymphomaniac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is Klüver Bucci syndrome?

A

Pts with bilateral medial temporal lobe lesions from trauma, metastases etc display hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, visual agnosia and docility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What changes due to female ageing can lead to reports of desire and arousal?

A

Decreased vasocongestion, loss of vaginal and urethral elasticity, decreased length and width of vagina, fewer orgasmic contractions and more rapid resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How does decreased vasocongestion cause a reduction in desire and arousal?

A

Loss of vaginal lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the normal number of sperm in 2-4 ml of semen?

A

20-200 X 10^6 per ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What proportion of sperm in 2-4 ml swim forward vigorously?

A

> 60%

80
Q

What usually happens to semen within an hour of expulsion?

A

Become gelatinous and reliquefy

81
Q

What proportion of the ejaculate do the seminal vesicles secrete?

A

60%

82
Q

What is semenogelin?

A

Clotting factor released by the seminal vesicles

83
Q

What are the components of the seminal vesicle fluid part of ejaculate?

A

Alkaline fluid, fructose, prostaglandins, clotting factors

84
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins from seminal vesicle secretions?

A

Increase spermatozoa motility and increase female genital smooth muscle contraction

85
Q

What proportion of the ejaculate is formed by prostatic secretions?

A

25%

86
Q

What are the components of the prostatic secretions in the ejaculatory fluid?

A

Milky acidic fluid, proteolytic enzymes citric acid, acid phosphatase

87
Q

What is the purpose of proteolytic enzymes from the prostatic secretions?

A

Re-liquefaction of semen

88
Q

What is the citric acid found in prostatic secretions contributing to ejaculatory fluid used for?

A

Krebs cycle

89
Q

What proportion of the ejaculatory fluid is due to bulbourethral gland secretions?

A

5%

90
Q

What abnormal morphology can sperm display?

A

Giant, macro, double headed, double tailed, long head, rough head or abnormal mid-piece

91
Q

What is the problem in sexual dysfunction to to female sexual arousal?

A

Persistent recurrent inability to lubricate in response to swelling

92
Q

What is sexual dysfunction due to male arousal called?

A

Impotence

93
Q

What is the most common cause of impotence?

A

Psychological due to descending inhibition of spinal reflexes due to cortical control

94
Q

What are the physical origins of impotence?

A

Tear in fibrous tissue of corpus cavernosa, atherosclerosis, diabetes, alcohol, beta-blockers, diuretics

95
Q

How does Viagra treat impotence?

A

Inhibit cGMP breakdown therefore increasing NO action

96
Q

What are the 8 stages of fertilisation?

A

Semen deposition and transport; spermatid penetration of oocyte; block to polyspermy; syngomy; cleavage; compaction; hatching; implantation

97
Q

When must semen deposition be timed so that fertilisation occurs?

A

Needs to be 3-0 days prior to ovulation

98
Q

Why must the deposition of sperm be relatively tightly timed?

A

Sperm can survive up to 5 days but the oocyte is phagocytosed within 6-24 hours

99
Q

When is the fertile time of the menstrual cycle?

A

Days 11.5-16

100
Q

What happens to the oocyte upon fertilisation?

A

Takes 3-4 days to travel from ovary to body of uterus

101
Q

What does failure of the fertilised oocyte to travel to the uterus cause?

A

Ectopic pregnancy leading to a non-viable embryo

102
Q

How many spermatid reach the site of fertilisation in the female repro tract?

A

300

103
Q

What is the action of oxytocin on the uterine body?

A

Stimulates uterine contraction

104
Q

Where is semen deposited in the female repro tract?

A

Junction of vagina and cervix

105
Q

How does the cervical mucus appear when oestrogen only is present?

A

Abundant and non-viscous

106
Q

How does the cervical mucus appear when oestrogen and progesterone are acting?

A

Thick, sticky plug

107
Q

What is the function of the oestrogen and progesterone stimulated cervical mucus?

A

Protects conceptus from infection

108
Q

How many sperm are sacrificed to disperse the zona pellucida?

A

299

109
Q

What does the sperm need to penetrate to facilitate fertilisation?

A

Corona radiata and zona pellucida

110
Q

What is the corona radiata?

A

Layer of follicular cells around oocyte

111
Q

What allows binding of sperm to ZP3 proteins on the oocyte?

A

Exposure to female repro tract removing seminal plasma coatings and some spermatid surface molecules exposing proteins

112
Q

What does binding of sperm to ZP3 cause?

A

Acrosome reaction

113
Q

What happens in the acrosome reaction?

A

Intracellular calcium signalling causes acrosomal enzymes to digest the zona pellucida

114
Q

Where on the oocyte does the sperm bind?

A

Region rich in microvilli not region over metaphase chromosomes

115
Q

When does the oocyte become a zygote?

A

Once the sperm has moved into the cytoplasm

116
Q

How does sperm tail movement change during penetration of the oocyte?

A

Changes from beat to whip-like action

117
Q

What are the two blocks to polyspermy and how do they differ?

A

Fast (temporary) and slow (permanent)

118
Q

What happens in the fast block to polyspermy?

A

Electrical change to oocyte RMP from -75 mV to +20 mV due to sodium channel opening

119
Q

Where does the wave of depolarisation in fast block polyspermy start?

A

Site of sperm entry

120
Q

What happens in the slow block to polyspermy?

A

Calcium from ER causes wave of granule exocytosis

121
Q

Why does granule exocytosis occur in a wave in the slow block to polyspermy?

A

Enzymes released stimulate adjacent granules

122
Q

What does the cortical matrix modify?

A

Existing extracellular matrix

123
Q

What is syngomy?

A

Union of male and female pronuclei to form diploid zygote

124
Q

What happens to the oocyte during syngomy?

A

Completes meiosis II and expels second polar body

125
Q

What happens during the cleavage stage of fertilisation?

A

Rapid mitotic divisions and metabolic changes amusing increasing number but not size of cells

126
Q

What happens if two separate cell masses develop during cleavage?

A

Monozygotic twins

127
Q

Why does the size of cells not increase in cleavage?

A

No new cytoplasm or organelles are formed

128
Q

Why does each cell during cleavage have to be totipotent?

A

Needed to increase nuclear/cytoplasm ratio as one cannot transcribe enough RNA

129
Q

How can the division in cleavage be described?

A

Asynchronous

130
Q

When does compaction occur?

A

8-cell stage

131
Q

What happens during compaction?

A

Polarisation and tight junction formation to crest inner embryo environment

132
Q

What happens during hatching in fertilisation?

A

Enzymes from trophoblast cells digest ZP opposite to inner cell mass

133
Q

Why is the ZP opposite the inner cell mass digested in hatching?

A

Reduce risk of enzymatic damage to embryo

134
Q

What happens to the conceptus between ovulation and implantation?

A

Nourishment in intrauterine fluid for 2-3 days

135
Q

When does implantation occur with respect to ovulation?

A

6 days later

136
Q

What allows the trophoblast overlying the inner-cell mass to adhere to the progesterone primed endometrium in implantation?

A

It is sticky

137
Q

Does the blastocyst display totipotency?

A

No

138
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

3 or more pronuclei due to polyspermy or failure of second polar body extrusion

139
Q

How long does it take for the zygote to become a blastocyst?

A

7 days (days 14-21)

140
Q

What are the 3 methods of ‘natural’ contraception?

A

Abstinence, coitus interruptus, rhythm methods

141
Q

Why is pt education needed in coitus interruptus?

A

Need to know sperm is present in pre-ejaculate

142
Q

What does the rhythm method of contraception require?

A

Regular cycle

143
Q

If a regular mestrual cycle lasts 28 days, when is the fertile period?

A

Days 7-16

144
Q

What is vasectomy?

A

Bilateral split of vas deferens to prevent spermatid entering ejaculate

145
Q

Is coitus affected by vasectomy?

A

No

146
Q

Can vasectomy be reversed?

A

Yes

147
Q

Why must the ejaculate be tested before relying on vasectomy for contraception?

A

Risk of residual sperm in ligated vas deferens

148
Q

What are the 3 barrier methods of contraception?

A

Condoms, diaphragm and cap

149
Q

What is used in addition to barrier methods to make the most effective?

A

Spermicide

150
Q

What additional advantage does condom use have other than contraception?

A

Protects against STDs

151
Q

Describe how diaphragms are used in contraception.

A

Lies diagonally across cervix to hold sperm in acidic vagina to reduce survival time

152
Q

Why does diaphragm use as a contraceptive require aureate fitting?

A

Does not occlude passage of sperm

153
Q

How does a cap work as a contraceptive?

A

Physical barrier to sperm across the cervix

154
Q

How can alteration of the cervical mucus be used as a contraceptive method?

A

Progesterone can be used to mediate the production of thick ‘hostile’ mucus to inhibit sperm passage

155
Q

How can progesterone be administered as a contraceptive?

A

Combined OCP, depot progesterone, implant/pill

156
Q

What methods can be used to prevent ovulation in contraception?

A

Combined OCP, depot progesterone or progesterone only implant/pill

157
Q

How does the combined OCP prevent ovulation?

A

Oestrogen causes loss of mid-cycle +ve feedback so no LH surge. Together with progesterone causes -ve feedback on HPA axis to inhibit follicular development

158
Q

How does depot progesterone prevent ovulation?

A

Given IM every 3 months causes -ve feedback of HPA axis

159
Q

How long is the progesterone-only implant effective for?

A

5 years

160
Q

What is the main mechanism by which progesterone only implant/pill prevents conception?

A

Alsatian of cervical mucus (may inhibit ovulation at low dose)

161
Q

How does female sterilisation serve as a contraceptive?

A

Clips/rings/ligation used to occlude Fallopian tubes

162
Q

What are the problems with using female sterilisation for contraception?

A

Not very reversible and may recanalise

163
Q

How can implantation be inhibited as a method of contraception?

A

Hormones such as OCP, POP, depot, progesterone implant directly affect receptivity of endometrium and indirectly via absence of corpus luteum causing endometrial preparation

164
Q

How does post-coital contraception work?

A

Combined high dose oestrogen and progesterone or progesterone only make lining unfavourable for implantation up to 72 hours after intercourse

165
Q

Why is post-coital contraception most effective within 72 hours of intercourse?

A

Embryo stays in uterine tubes in this time

166
Q

What are the problems associated with post-coital contraception?

A

May disrupt ovulation +/- luteal function impairment

167
Q

How does an intrauterine copper device act as a contraceptive?

A

Interferes with endometrial enzymes and possibly sperm transport by inducing a foreign body reaction

168
Q

Why does IUCD not lead to PID?

A

Copper is inert

169
Q

Which IUD carries a slightly higher infection risk?

A

Copper

170
Q

When is an IUCD used for contraception?

A

For pure contraception with normal menstruation

171
Q

How does a progesterone IUD act as a contraceptive?

A

Interferes with implantation

172
Q

What additional benefits can a progesterone IUD give with contraception?

A

Easing of fibroid and endometriosis symptoms

173
Q

When is a progesterone IUD used [unlicensed] and why?

A

Menorrhagia as after a year of use periods are light/absent

174
Q

What is there a risk of if fertilisation occurs despite POP use?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

175
Q

Why is the efficacy of OCP, POP, implants and depot good for contraception?

A

Multi-action

176
Q

What is the definition of infertility?

A

Failure to conceive within 1 year

177
Q

What proportion of couples are affected by infertility?

A

~15%

178
Q

How is infertility due to female, male and unexplained cause split?

A

20-25% male, 45-60% female, 20-30% unexplained

179
Q

What is male primary infertility?

A

No children by any partner

180
Q

What is primary female infertility?

A

No conception ever

181
Q

What is secondary infertility?

A

Failure to conceive following previous pregnancy whether this pregnancy was successful or not

182
Q

What are three female causes of infertility?

A

Coital problems, anovulation and tubal occlusion

183
Q

How do coital problems cause infertility?

A

Spasms of vaginalis muscle make coitus painful/impossible

184
Q

When is anovulation normal in female reproductive life?

A

At start and end

185
Q

What can cause anovulation during reproductive life?

A

Weight loss, hyperprolactinaemia, exercise, stress, pituitary tumours, pituitary necrosis, ovarian failure, menopause, radio or chemotherapy, PCOS

186
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

Hypopituitarism due to post-partum haemorrhage

187
Q

How does PCOS cause anovulation?

A

Uncertain pathogenesis causes high androgens, raising LH/FSH ratio, causing insulin resistance and cyst formation

188
Q

What are the treatment options for anovulation?

A

Anti-oestrogen, FSH, pulsatile GnRH agonists

189
Q

How can anovulation be diagnosed?

A

Look at hormones and anti-Müllerian hormone for follicle number

190
Q

How can tubal occlusion cause infertility?

A

Sterilisation or scarring prevents passage of conceptus

191
Q

How is tubal occlusion diagnosed?

A

Hysterectosalpinography

192
Q

What are the treatment options for tubal occlusion?

A

Reanastomosis or assisted contraception

193
Q

How can abnormal/absent production arise?

A

Testicular disease causing abnormal production, infection or vasectomy causing obstruction of ducts, hypothalamic/pituitary dysfunction

194
Q

How can infertility due to abnormal/absent production be identified?

A

Semen analysis shows motility +/- morphology will be low

195
Q

Why does semen analysis require a period of abstinence and regular interval between analyses?

A

Spermatogenesis is cyclic

Semester 4 (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions