Renal Flashcards

Exam 3

1
Q

~____% of total body weight is water

A

60
- varies w/ gender, age, body fat %
- ↑Muscle=↑Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intracellular fluid makes up ___ of TBW, while extracellular fluid makes up ___

A

2/3
1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Extracellular fluid includes ______ and ______. What are their respective amounts?

A

ISF - 3/4
Plasma - 1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Osmolar homeostasis is mainly mediated by osmolality-sensors in the?

A

anterior hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osmolar homeostasis does what 3 things?

A
  • Stimulate thirst
  • Cause Pituitary Release of Vasopressin (ADH)
  • Cardiac atria releases ANP→act on kidney to ↓Na+/H20 reabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Volume homeostasis is mediated by?

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus - sense changes in volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the response to dec volume by volume homeostasis?

A

↓Vol @ JGA triggers Renin-Angiotensinogen-Aldosterone system (RAAS)→Na+/H20 reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the normal values of sodium? What is too low/high for surgery?

A

135-145 mEq/L
- ≤125 or ≥ 155, want correction prior to elective case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 potential underlying causes of hypo/hypernatremia?

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Euvolemic
  • Hypervolemic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___% of hospitalized pts are hyponatremia. What are the causes?

A

15%
- over fluid-resuscitation
- ↑endog vasopressin → inc H2O reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyponatremia d/t hypovolemia causes and differentiation

A
  • Renal losses (urine Na > 20) - diuretic excess, mineralocorticoid deficiency, salt-losing nephritis, renal tubular acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, ketonuria, osmotic diuresis
  • Extrarenal losses (urine Na < 20) - vomiting, diarrhea, 3rd space losses, burns, pancreatitis, muscle trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hyponatremia d/t euvolemia causes and differentiation

A
  • Salt-restricted diet (urine Na < 20)
  • Other (urine Na > 20) - glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, high sympathetic drive, drugs, SIADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hyponatremia d/t hypervolemia causes and differentiation

A
  • Avid Na reabsorption (urine Na < 20) - nephrotic syndrome, cardiac failure, cirrhosis
  • Renal loses (urine Na > 20) - acute or chronic renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyponatremia d/t hypervolemia S/S

A

peripheral edema, rales, ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neuro S/S of hyponatremia

A

start with HA and confusion
- N/V, fatigue, muscle cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The most severe consequences of hyponatremia include? What is the serum Na level?

A

Seizures, coma, and death
< 120 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the tx for hyponatremia?

A
  • Treat underlying cause (look at volume status), electrolyte drinks, NS, diuretics
  • Hypertonic/3% NaCl: 80ml/hr over 15h (max 1.5 mEq/L/hr, check Na+ q4h while replacing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rapid correction of hyponatremia occurs at what rate and can cause what syndrome?

A

Rapid correction >6 mEq/L in 24 h)
Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome (often permanent neuro damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for hyponatremic seizures?

A

3-5ml/kg of 3% over 20 min, until seizures resolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the common causes of hypernatremia?

A
  • Excessive evaporation
  • Poor oral intake (very young, very old, altered mental status)
  • Overcorrection of hyponatremia
  • Diabetes insipidus - loss of dilute urine
  • GI losses
  • Excessive sodium bicarb (treating acidosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hypernatremia d/t hypovolemia causes and differentiation

A
  • Renal salt and water loss (urine Na > 20) - osmotic or loop diuretics, postrenal obstruction, intrinsic renal disease, profound glycosuria
  • Extrarenal salt and water loss (urine Na < 20) - diarrhea, GI fistulas, burns, sweating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hypernatremia d/t hypovolemia s/s

A

Dec skin turgor, flat neck veins, dry mucous membranes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypernatremia d/t euvolemia causes and differentiation

A

Urine Na variable
- renal water loss: DI (central, nephrogenic, or gestational)
- extrarenal water loss: insensible losses (respiratory tract, skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypernatremia d/t hypervolemia causes and differentiation

A

Urine Na > 20 - sodium gains
- hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s, hypertonic dialysis, IV sodium bicarb, NaCl tablets, hyperalimentation, hypertonic saline enemas, salt water drowning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Hypernatremia d/t hypervolemia s/s
peripheral edema, rales, ascities
26
What are the general s/s of hypernatremia?
- Orthostasis - Restlessness - Lethargy - Tremor/Muscle twitching/spasticity - Seizures - Death
27
What is the tx for hypernatremia?
Route cause, Assess volume status (VS, UOP, Turgor, CVP) - Hypovolemic: normal saline - Euvolemic: water replacement (po or D5W) - Hypervolemic: diuretics
28
When treating hypernatremia, Na+ reduction rate should be equal or less than _______ to avoid what?
Want Na+ reduction rate ≤0.5 mmol/L/hr, and ≤ 10 mmol/L per day to avoid cerebral edema, seizures, and neurologic damage
29
What are the 3 major causes of hypokalemia?
renal or GI loss and transcellular shift - also DKA, HCTZ, and excessive licorice
30
Normal values for K+? Values for elective sx?
3.5-5 mEq/L - K+ < 5.5 mEq/L on elective surgery
31
Serum K+ reflects ________ more than total body K+
transmembrane K+ regulation
32
Aldosterone causes the distal nephron to secrete ___ and reabsorb ___
Secrete K+ and reabsorb Na+ - Aldosterone inversely affects K+
33
In renal failure, K+ _______ declines
Excretion - excretions shift toward GI system
34
What causes hypokalemia d/t increased renal potassium loss?
TZDs, loop diuretics, mineralocorticoids, high-dose glucocorticoids, abx (-cilins), drugs that deplete Mg (aminoglycosides), surgical trauma, hyperglycemia, and hyperaldosteronism
35
What causes hypokalemia d/t excessive GI potassium loss?
- Vomiting and diarrhea - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, - Jejunoileal bypass - Malabsorption - Chemo - NG suction
36
What causes hypokalemia d/t transcellular potassium shift?
- B-adrenergic agonists, tocolytic drugs (ritodrine), insulin - alkalosis (Respiratory/Metabolic) - familial periodic paralysis - hypercalcemia or hypomagnesemia
37
What are the s/s of hypokalemia?
Generally cardiac and neuromuscular: - Muscle weakness/Cramps - Ileus - Dysrhythmias, U wave
38
What is the tx for hypokalemia?
- Underlying cause - Potassium PO > IV (CVC); IV may require days - Generally, K+ given @ 10-20mEq/L/hr IV - Each 10 meq IV K+→↑Serum K+ by ~0.1 mmol/L - Avoid excessive insulin, β-agonists, bicarb, hyperventilation, diuretics
39
What are the causes of hyperkalemia?
- Renal failure - Hypoaldosteronism - Drugs that inhibit RAAS or K+ excretion - Depolarizing NMB (Sux - 0.5-1 mEq/L) - Acidosis (Respiratory/Metabolic) - Cell death (trauma, tourniquet) - Massive blood transfusion
40
What are the s/s of hyperkalemia?
- Chronic may be minimally symptomatic (malaise, GI upset) - Skeletal muscle paralysis,↓fine motor - Cardiac dysrhythmias
41
What is the EKG progression of hyperkalemia?
- peaked T wave - P wave disappearance - prolonged QRS complex - sine waves - asystole
42
What is the tx for hyperkalemia?
- Dialyze within 24h prior to surgery (ALSO initially causes hypovolemia) - Calcium- 1st initial treatment - Hyperventilation (↑pH by 0.1 →↓K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L) - Insulin +/- glucose (10u IV: 25g D50) works in 10-20 min - Bicarb - Loop Diuretics - Kayexalate (hrs to days) - Avoid Sux, hypoventilation, LR & K+ containing IV fluids
43
How much calcium is stored in the ECF vs in bones?
Only 1% body’s Ca++ is in ECF; 99% stored in bone
44
___% of plasma Ca++ is PB to albumin and rendered inactive
60% - Only ionized plasma Ca++ is physiologically active
45
What are the normal iCa levels?
1.2-1.38 mmol/L
46
Ionized Ca++ level is affected by ____ and ____
albumin levels and pH ↑pH/Alkalosis→↑Ca++ binding to albumin (therefore ↓iCa++)
47
Which 3 hormones regulate Ca++? What are their functions?
- Parathyroid hormone: ↑’s GI absorption, renal reabsorption, and regulates bone/bloodstream levels - Vitamin D: augments intestinal Ca++ absorption - Calcitonin: promotes storage of Ca++ in bone
48
What are the 5 causes of hypocalcemia?
- ↓Parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion - Magnesium deficiency - Low Vit D or disorder of Vit D metabolism - Renal failure (kidneys not responding to PTH) - Massive blood transfusion (citrate preservative binds Ca++)
49
What are the main two causes of hypercalcemia?
- Hyperparathyroid serum Ca++ <11 - Cancer serum Ca++ >13
50
What are the less common causes of hypercalcemia?
- Vit D intoxication - Milk-alkali syndrome (excessive GI Ca++ absorption) - Granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis)
51
What are the s/s of hypocalcemia?
paresthesias, irritability, HoTN, seizures, myocardial depression, prolonged QT-I, post-parathyroidectomy-hypocalcemia-induced-laryngospasm
52
What are the s/s of hypercalcemia?
confusion, lethargy, hypotonia, abd pain, N/V, short QT-I - chronic = hypercalciuria and nephrolithiasis
53
What are the causes of hypomagnesemia?
- Low dietary intake or absorption - Renal wasting
54
What are the s/s of hypomagnesemia?
- Muscle weakness or excitation - Seizures - Ventricular dysrhythmia (Polymorphic V-tack/Torsades De Pointes)
55
What is the tx for hypomagnesemia?
- d/o severity of sx - Slower infusions for less severe - Torsade's/seizures→ 2g Mag Sulfate
56
What are the causes of hypermagnesemia?
Very uncommon, generally due to over-treatment - Pre-eclampsia/Eclampsia - Pheochromocytoma
57
What are the s/s of hypermagnesemia with dosing intervals?
4-5 mEq/L: Lethargy, N/V, Flushing >6 mEq/L: HoTN, ↓DTR >10 mEq/L: Paralysis, apnea, heart blocks, cardiac arrest
58
What is the tx for hypermagnesemia?
- Diuresis, IV Calcium (stabilize cell mbrn), Dialysis - Check mag level at regular intervals if on gtt
59
Between which vertebrae can the kidneys be found?
Located retroperitoneal btw T12-L4
60
The right kidney is slightly ______ to left to accommodate the ______
caudal, liver
61
The _______ is the structural/functional unit of the kidney; each kidney has ___
nephron, 1 mil
62
The kidneys receive __% of CO. Which layer receives most of the RBF?
20%, cortex (85-90% of RBF)
63
Which portion of the kidney is especially susceptible to de RBF?
Medulla
64
What are the 3 main hormones the kidney produces? What are their roles?
- EPO involved in RBCs production - Calcitriol maintains serum Ca++ - PG’s key inflammatory modulators, vasodilatory effects, maintain renal blood flow
65
What is a normal GFR? What is GFR best at measuring?
125-140 mL/min - Best measure renal function over time
66
What is a normal creatinine clearance? What is it the most reliable measure of?
110-140 mL/min - GFR bc creatinine freely filtered, not reabsorbed
67
What is a normal serum creatinine level? How does it relate to GFR?
0.6-1.3 mg/dL - SC inversely related to GFR
68
Which renal function lab is best for detecting acute changes?
Serum creatinine
69
_______ is the renal function lab that correlates with muscle mass
serum creatinine
70
What is the normal BUN? What does a high or low BUN mean?
10-20 mg/dL - affected by diet - Low BUN could mean malnourished or volume-diluted - High could mean ↑protein diet, dehydrated, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting
71
What is the normal BUN:creatinine ratio? What does it measure?
10:1 - hydration status
72
What level is considered proteinuria?
<150 mg/dL >750mg/day could suggest glomerular injury or UTI
73
What is the normal urine specific gravity? What does it measure?
1.001-1.035 - measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine; compares 1 mL of urine to 1 mL of water
74
What is a normal UOP? What is considered oliguria?
- UOP- 30 ml/hr; 0.5-1ml/kg/hr - Oliguria: <500mL in 24h
75
What are the different methods to monitor volume?
- US to assess IVC - CVP, RAP - LAP, PCWP - PAP - SVV
76
IVC collapse of __% indicates fluid deficit
50%
77
AKI effects __% hospitalized pts & __% ICU pts
20%, 50%
78
What is the hallmark of AKI?
Azotemia: buildup of nitrogenous products s/a urea, creatinine
79
What are the risk factors of AKI?
Pre-existing renal disease, age, CHF, PVD, DM, sepsis (hypotension), jaundice, major operative procedures, IV Contrast
80
What is the diagnostic criteria for AKI?
- ↑SCr by 0.3 mg/dL within 48 h - ↑SCr by 50% within 7 days - ↓Creatinine clearance by 50% - Abrupt oliguria *although not always seen in AKI
81
What are the physical s/s of AKI?
- Asymptomatic - Malaise - HoTN - Hypovolemic or hypervolemic
82
What are the 3 types of AKI?
Pre-renal: ↓ renal perfusion Renal: nephron injury Post-renal: outflow obstruction
83
Which type of AKI is the easiest to treat?
Post-renal
84
What are the causes of pre-renal azotemia?
Hemorrhage, GI fluid loss, trauma, sx, burns, cardiogenic shock, sepsis, aortic clamping, thromboembolism
85
What are the causes of renal azotemia?
Acute glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, interstitial nephritis, ATN, contrast dye, nephrotoxic drugs, and myoglobinuria
86
What are the causes of post-renal azotemia?
Nephrolithiasis, BPH, clot retention, and bladder carcinoma
87
What is the most common form of AKI?
Pre-renal - Anesthesia meds + volume & blood loss →↓RBF
88
What is the treatment for pre-renal azotemia?
Restore RBF - Fluids, Mannitol, Diuretics, maintain MAP, Pressors?
89
Differentiate between a BUN:Cr ratio in pre-renal vs renal AKI
Pre-Renal - BUN:Cr is >20:1 Renal - BUN:Cr often < 15:1
90
What are the s/s and patho behind renal azotemia?
- ↓GFR(late sx) - ↓urea reabsorption in prox tubule →↓BUN - ↓Creatinine filtration→↑blood creatinine
91
What are the neuro complications of AKI?
- Related to protein/amino acids buildup in blood - Uremic Encephalopathy (dialysis improves) - Mobility disorders - Neuropathies - Myopathies - Seizures - Stroke
92
What are the CV complications of AKI?
- Systemic hypertension - Left ventricular hypertrophy - CHF - Pulmonary edema - Uremic cardiomyopathy - Arrhythmias - In order of incidence HTN→ LVH→ CHF→ischemic heart disease→ anemic heart failure→ rhythm disturbances→pericarditis with or without effusion→ cardiac tamponade, uremic cardiomyopathy
93
What are the hematological complications of AKI?
Anemia - ↓ EPO production - ↓ red cell production - ↓ red cell survival - platelet dysfunction
94
What is the treatment for anemia caused by AKI?
Prophylactic DDAVP - ↑VWF & Factor VIII to improve coagulation (vWF disrupted by uremia)
95
What are the metabolic complications of AKI?
- Hyperkalemia - Water/sodium imbalances - Hypoalbuminemia (kidneys allowing albumin to escape) - Metabolic acidosis - Malnutrition - Hyperparathyroidism
96
What is the preferred vasopressor for AKI?
Vasopressin - preferentially constricts the Efferent arteriole
97
How can prophylactic bicarb help AKI in anesthesia?
- Decreases the formation of free-radicals - Prevents ATN from causing renal failure
98
What are the 2 leading causes of CKD?
DM and HTN
99
What are the 5 stages of CKD?
1: kidney damage w/ normal or inc GFR (GFR > 90) 2: kidney damage w/ mildly dec GFR (60-89) 3: mod dec GFR (30-59) 4: severely dec GFR (15-29) 5: kidney failure (GFR < 15)
100
GFR decreases by ___ per decade starting from age __
10, age 20
101
What is the first-line tx for CKD?
TZD
102
Which populations are high risk for silent MI?
Women and Diabetics (and CKD!)
103
HD vs PD for CKD?
PD is slower, less dramatic volume shifts, may be more suitable to those that cant tolerate fluid swings/vol shifts (i.e. pts w/poor cardiac function)
104
What is the leading COD in dialysis patients?
Infection
105
What is the most common SE of dialysis?
HoTN
106
Desmopressin peak and duration? Con?
Peak 2-4h; lasts 6-8h Tachyphylaxis
107
What anesthetic meds should be avoided in a patient with CKD?
- lipid-soluble drugs (reabsorbed by renal tubular cells) - meds w/ active metabolites (morphine and Demerol)
108
Which drugs are given with renal dosing based on GFR in patients with CKD?
Lipid INsoluble drugs - TZDs, loop diuretics, digoxin, abx (prolonged DoA)
109
Dialysis pts should be dialyzed within ___ preceding elective surgery
24h
110
What is the best NMB for CKD patients?
cisatracurium (Nimbex)
111
Which induction drugs are renally excreted?
phenobarb and thiopental
112
Which muscle relaxants are renally excreted?
pancuronium and vecuronium
113
Which cholinesterase inhibitors are renally excreted?
edrophonium and neostigmine
114
Which CV drugs are renally excreted?
Atropine, digoxin, glycopyrrolate, hydralazine, milrinone
115
Which antimicrobials are renally excreted?
Aminoglycosides, cephalosporins, penicillins, and vanco