Coagulation Flashcards

Exam 4

1
Q

Normal hemostasis is a balance btw ______, ________, and _______ that inhibit uncontrolled thrombogenesis

A

clot generation, thrombus formation, andregulatory mechanisms

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2
Q

What are the 3 goals of hemostasis?

A
  1. to limit blood loss from vascular injury
  2. maintain intravascular blood flow
  3. promote revascularization after thrombosis
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3
Q

What are the 2 stages of hemostasis?

A

Primary:Immediateplatelet deposition at the endovascular injury site (initial platelet plug formation, minor injuries)

Secondary: clotting factors activated, stabilized clot formed, and secured with crosslinked fibrin

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4
Q

Vascular endothelial cells have ________, ________, and ________ effects to inhibit clot formation

A

antiplatelet, anticoagulant, fibrolytic

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5
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of the endothelial cells are _______ charged to repel ________

A

negatively, platelets

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6
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of the endothelial cells produce platelet inhibitors such as ________ and ________

A

prostacyclin and nitric oxide

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7
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of the endothelial cells excrete __________, which degrades adenosine diphosphate (ADP), a _______ activator

A

adenosine diphosphatase
platelet

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8
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of the endothelial cells increase ________, an anticoagulant, and synthesize ______

A

protein C, tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

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9
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of the endothelial cells produce Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI), which inhibits factor___ & ______

A

Xa and TF-VIIa complex

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10
Q

Platelets are derived from

A

bone-marrow megakaryocytes

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11
Q

Inactive platelets circulate as disc-shaped _______ cells with a lifespan of _______

A

anuclear, 8-12 days

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12
Q

Approx __% of platelets are consumed to support vascular integrity with ________ new platelets formed daily

A

10%, 120-150 billion

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13
Q

The platelet membrane contains numerous receptors and a surface ________system, which increases membrane __________

A

canalicular, surface area

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14
Q

Damage to endothelium exposes the underlying extracellular matrix (ECM), which contains what 3 things?

A

collagen, von Willebrands factor, and other glycoproteins

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15
Q

Upon exposure to contents in the ECM, platelets undergo 3 phases of alteration:

A
  • 1st: adhesion
  • 2nd: activation
  • 3rd: aggregation
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16
Q

______: occurs upon exposure to ECM proteins

A

Adhesion

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17
Q

_________:stimulated when platelet interacts w/collagen & tissue factor (TF), causing the release of granular contents

A

Activation

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18
Q

Which 2 types of storage granules do platelets contain?

A

alpha granules and dense bodies

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19
Q

________: occurs when the granular contents are released, which activate additional platelets, propagating plasma-mediated coagulation

A

Aggregation

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20
Q

Alpha granules contain

A

fibrinogen, factors V & VIII, vWF, Plt-derived growth factor

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21
Q

Dense bodies contain

A

ADP, ATP, calcium, serotonin, histamine, epinephrine

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22
Q

Each stage of the clotting cascade requires the assembly of membrane-bound activated tenase-complexes composed of

A

1) a substrate (inactive precursor)
2) an enzyme (activated coagulation factor)
3) a cofactor (accelerator or catalyst)
4) calcium

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23
Q

Factor 1 aka ______

A

fibrinogen

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24
Q

Factor 2 aka ______

A

prothrombin

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25
Q

Factor 3 aka ______

A

tissue thromboplastin

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26
Q

Factor 4 aka ______

A

calcium ions

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27
Q

Factor 5 aka ______

A

labile factor

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28
Q

Factor 7 aka ______

A

stable factor

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29
Q

Factor 8 aka ______

A

antihemophilic factor

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30
Q

Factor 9 aka ______

A

Christmas factor or plasma thromboplastin component (PTC)

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31
Q

Factor 10 aka ______

A

stuart-prower factor

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32
Q

Factor 11 aka ______

A

plasma thromboplastin antecedent (TPA)

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33
Q

Factor 12 aka ______

A

hageman factor

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34
Q

Factor 13 aka ______

A

fibrin stabilizing factor

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35
Q

The extrinsic pathway is the initiation phase of __________ hemostasis

A

plasma-mediated

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36
Q

What initiates the extrinsic pathway?

A

endothelial injury which exposes TF to plasma

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37
Q

Describe the order of the extrinsic pathway

A

TF exposed -> TF/VIIa complex -> activates X to Xa
TF/VIIa complex -> activates IX to IXa

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38
Q

The intrinsic pathway is an ___________ system to propagate ________ generation initiated by the extrinsic pathway

A

amplification, thrombin

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39
Q

Describe the steps and order of the intrinsic pathway

A

12 -> 11 -> 9+8 -> 10
- upon contact with (-) charged surface, factor 12 becomes activated
- factor 12a converts 11 to 11a
- factor 9a + 8a + plt membrane phospholipid + calcium converts 10 to 10a

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40
Q

Activated thrombin activates which factors?

A

5, 7, 8, 11

amplifies additional clotting

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41
Q

Describe the steps and order of the common pathway

A
  • Factor 10 becomes 10a and binds with 5a to form “prothrombinase complex”
  • prothrombinase complex rapidly convert prothrombin (2) to thrombin (2a)
  • thrombin attaches to the platelets and converts fibrinogen (1) to fibrin (1a)
  • fibrin molecules crosslink to form a mesh that stabilizes the clot
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42
Q

Thrombin cleaves ______ from _____ to generate _____, which polymerizes into strands to form basic clots

A

fibrinopeptides, fibrinogen, fibrin

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43
Q

What is the key-step in regulating hemostasis

A

thrombin generation

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44
Q

What converts prothrombin (2) to thrombin (2a)

A

prothrombin complexes (Xa +Va + calcium)

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45
Q

Both the intrinsic and extrinsic factors are initiated by a ________

A

catalyst (activator or tissue injury)

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46
Q

What are the 4 major coagulation counter-mechanisms

A
  • fibrinolysis
  • Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
  • Protein C system
  • Serine protease inhibitors (SERPINs)
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47
Q

How does fibrinolysis stop coagulation

A

inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

(plasmin breaks down clots enzymatically, and degrades factors 5 and 8)

48
Q

How does tissue factor pathway inhibitor stop coagulation

A

forms complex between 10a and TF/7a that downregulates the extrinsic pathway

49
Q

How does the protein C system inhibit coagulation

A

inhibits factors 2, 5a, 8a

50
Q

What are the 3 examples of SERPINs and how do they work

A
  • antithrombin (AT): inhibits factors thrombin (2a), 9a, 10a, 11a, 12a
  • Heparin: binds to AT, causing conformational change that accelerates AT
  • Heparin cofactor II: inhibits thrombin (2a) alone
51
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

vWF disease, 1% of population

52
Q

A deficiency of vWF causes what?

A

defective platelet adhesion/aggregation

vWF plays critical role in plt adhesion and prevents degredation of factor 8

53
Q

What coagulation lab values would be expected for patient with vWF deficiency?

A

Routine coag labs generally not helpful
- Platelets normal
- PT normal
- aPTT might be prolonged (d/t level of factor 8)

Better tests would be vWF level, vWF-plt binding activity, factor 8 level, platelet function assasy

54
Q

Mild vWF disease is often responsive to ______

A

DDAVP (↑ vWF)

55
Q

Hemophilia A is caused by ______ deficiency; occurs 1 in ______ people

A

factor 8 deficiency; 1 in 5000

56
Q

Hemophilia B is caused by _____ deficiency; occurs 1 in _____ people

A

factory 9 deficiency; 1 in 30,000

57
Q

What coagulation lab values would be expected for patient with hemophilia

A
  • normal PT, Plts, bleeding time
  • prolonged PTT
58
Q

What can be given prior to surgery for patient with hemophilia

A

DDAVP, factor 8 and/or factor 9

59
Q

Which drugs commonly result in anticoagulation

A
  • Heparin
  • Warfarin
  • Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOAC)
  • beta-lactam Abx
  • Nitroprusside
  • NTG
  • NO
  • SSRIs
60
Q

Which supplements have anticoagulant effects

A
  • Garlic
  • Ginger
  • Gingko
  • Grapeseed oil
  • Cayenne
  • St. john’s wort
  • Tumeric
  • Vitamin E, large doses
61
Q

Which coagulation factors are primary produced in the liver

A

5, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12, protein C & S, antithrombin

62
Q

CKD patients display a baseline anemia d/t

A
  • lack of EPO production
  • Platelet dysfunction (due to uremic environment)
63
Q

Treatment of platelet dysfunction includes

A
  • Cryo (rich in vWF)
  • DDAVP
  • Conjugated estrogen given preop x5 days
64
Q

DIC is a pathological hemostatic response to _______ causing excessive activation of the ______ pathway, which overwhelms anticoagulant mechanisms and generates ______ ________

A

TF/7a complex, extrinsic pathway, intravascular thrombin

65
Q

DIC may be precipitated by what

A
  • trauma
  • amniotic fluid embolus
  • malignancy
  • sepsis
  • incompatible blood transfusion
66
Q

What lab findings would be expected in patient in DIC

A
  • ↓ plts
  • prolong PT/PTT/Thrombin time
  • ↑ soluble fibrin & fibrin degredation products
67
Q

Trauma induced coagulopathy (TIC) occurs due to what 3 things

A
  • acidosis
  • hypothermia
  • hemodilution

thought to be related to activated protein C decreasing thrombin generation

68
Q

The most common inherited prothrombotic diseases are caused by

A

mutation of factor 5 or prothrombin

69
Q

Factor V Leiden mutation leads to _____ resistance

A

activated protein C

70
Q

Prothrombin mutation causes a ______ in prothrombin concentration, leading to ________

A

increase, hypercoagulation

71
Q

Thrombophilia generally manifests as ____

A

venous thrombosis

72
Q

Thrombophilia is highly susceptible to _____

A

Virchow’s Triad
- blood stasis
- endothelial injury
- hypercoagulability

73
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder with antibodies against _______, and is characterized by recurrent _______ and ______

A

phospholipid-binding proteins, thrombosis and pregnancy loss

requires life-long anticoagulants

74
Q

HIT occurs within ______ days after heparin tx

75
Q

Risk factors for HIT include

A
  • women
  • pts receiving high heparin doses (cardiopulm bypass)
  • heparin > LMWH
76
Q

HIT diagnosis is confirmed with

A

HIT antibody testing

77
Q

Antibodies for HIT are typically cleared from circulation in how long

78
Q

Which pathways does prothrombin time (PT) measure? Which factors does it reflect?

A

extrinsic & common
factors 1,2,5,7,10

79
Q

What is PT used to monitor?

A

Vit K antagonists s/a warfarin

80
Q

aPTT measures seconds until clot forms after mixing plasma with _____ and ____ and an activator of the ____ pathway

A

phospholipid, calcium, intrinsic

81
Q

Which pathways does aPTT assess? Which factors does it reflect?

A

intrinsic and common
factors 8 and 9

82
Q

Which lab is used to measure effect of heparin?

A

aPTT and ACT, Anti-factor 10a activity assay

83
Q

normal platelet count is

A

> 100,000 plts/microliter

84
Q

ACT is used to asses which pathways? What is normal value?

A

intrinsic & common pathways
normal = 107 +/- 13 seconds (94-120)

85
Q

1mg of protamine reverses ______ heparin

86
Q

What does R time on TEG measure? What is normal value? Indicates a problem with what? Treament?

A
  • Time to start of forming clot
  • normal = 5-10min
  • indicates problem with coagulation factors
  • Tx= FFP
87
Q

What does K time on TEG measure? What is normal value? Indicates a problem with what? Treament?

A
  • Time until clot reaches a fixed strength
  • normal = 1-3 min
  • indicates problem with fibrinogen
  • Tx= cryo
88
Q

What does alpha angle on TEG measure? What is normal value? Indicates a problem with what? Treament?

A
  • Speed of fibrin accumulation
  • normal= 53-72 degrees
  • indicates issue with Fibrinogen
  • Tx= cryo
89
Q

What does MA on TEG measure? What is normal value? Indicates a problem with what? Treament?

A
  • highest vertical amplitude of TEG
  • normal = 50-70mm
  • indicates issue with platelets
  • Tx= plts and/or DDAVP
90
Q

What does LY30 on TEG measure? What is normal value? Indicates a problem with what? Treament?

A
  • percentage of amplitude reduction 30min after max amplitude
  • normal = 0-8%
  • indicates excess fibrinolysis
  • Tx= TXA or aminocaproic acid
91
Q

ASA antiplatelet effects persist for how long after d/c

92
Q

NSAIDs antiplatelet effect persists for how long after d/c

93
Q

clopidogrel (plavix) antiplatelet effects persists how long after d/c

94
Q

Ticlopidine antiplatelet effects persists how long after d/c

A

14-21 days

95
Q

Ticagrelor & Cangrelor antiplatelet effects persists how long after d/c

96
Q

Which drugs are GIIb/IIIa antagonists? how do they work?

A

abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

prevent vWF and fibrinogen from binding to GIIb/IIIa receptors

97
Q

What are vitamin K dependent factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S

98
Q

Warfarin is the DOC for ____ and _____

A

afib & valve replacements

99
Q

What is the 1/2life of warfarin

100
Q

Warfarin is frequently monitored with which lab? what is therapeutic?

A

PT/INR, therapeutic INR= 2-3

101
Q

How does heparin act as anticoagulant

A

binds to antithrombin -> directly inhibits soluble thrombin and factor 10a

102
Q

Protamine is ineffective at reversing which drug(s)

A

Fondaparinux, partially effective on LMWH

103
Q

Examples of direct thrombin inhibitors are

A
  • Hirudin: found in leeches
  • Argatroban: reversibly binds to thrombin
  • Bivalirudin: shortest HL of DTIs (DOC for liver and renal impairment)
  • Dabigatran (Pradaxa): 1st DOAC - approved for CVA prevention and non-valvular afib
104
Q

Which drugs are DOACs

A
  • Dabigatran (pradaxa)
  • rivaroxaban (xarelto)
  • apixaban (eliquis)
  • edoxaban (savaysa)
105
Q

Most thrombolytics are ________ that convert ______ to ______ which breaks down ______ to ______

A

serine proteases, convert plasminogen to plasmin, which beaks down fibrinogen to fibrin

106
Q

The two categories of thrombolytics are:

A
  • Fibrin-specific: tPA, reteplase, tenecteplase
  • Non-fibrin specific: strptokinase (not widely used d/t allergic reactions
107
Q

Surgery is contraindicated for how long after thrombolytics are given

A

within 10 days

108
Q

Absolute contraindications for thrombolytics include

A
  • vascular lesions
  • severe HTN
  • recent cranial surgery or trauma
  • brain tumor
  • ischemic stroke < 3months prior
  • active bleeding
109
Q

Relative contraindications for thrombolytics include

A
  • Ischemic stroke >3 months prior
  • active peptic ulcer
  • current use of anticoagulant drugs
  • pregnancy
  • prolonged/traumatic CPR <3 weeks prior
  • Major surgery <3 weeks prior
110
Q

2 classes of procoagulants are

A

antifibrinolytics and factor replacements

111
Q

What are the 2 subclasses of antifibrinolytics

A
  • Lysine analogues: epsilon-amino-caproic acid (EACA) and tranexamic acid (TXA)
  • SERPIN: aprotinin (off market)
112
Q

Preop guidelines for warfarin include

A

low risk: d/c 5 days prior, restart 12-24hr postop
high risk: d/c 5 days prior, bridge w/ UFH or LMWH

113
Q

Preop guidelines for heparin include

A

UFH: d/c 4-6hrs preop, resume >12hr postop
LMWH: d/c 24hrs preop, resume 24hr postop

114
Q

Preop guidelines for ASA include

A

mod/high risk: continue ASA
low risk: stop 7-10 days prior

115
Q

Preop guidelines for coronary stent placement include

A

bare-metal stent: delay elective surgery for 6 weeks
drug-eluding stent: delay elective surgery for 6 months

116
Q

Which is the only Direct Thrombin Inhibitor with a reversal agent/antidote

A

Dabigatran (pradaxa), reversal is Idadrucizumab

117
Q

The reversal agent for DOAC Factor 10a inhibitors is

A

Andexanet (a derivative of factor 10a)