Hepatic and Biliary Flashcards

Exam 3

1
Q
A
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2
Q

How many hepatic veins are there? What do they drain into?

A

3 - right, middle, and left
Drain into vena cava

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3
Q

The right and left lobes of the liver are separated by the ____________

A

Falciform Ligament

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4
Q

There are __ total segments of the liver

A

8 - divided by blood supply and bile drainage

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5
Q

Bile ducts travel along _______, and bile drains through the _______ into _____ and _______

A

portal veins
hepatic duct
gall bladder and common bile duct

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6
Q

Bile enters the duodenum via the ______

A

Ampulla of Vater

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7
Q

The liver receives how much of CO?

A

25% - 1.25-1.5 L/min
- highest proportionate COP of all organs

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8
Q

The portal vein arises from what?

A

The splanchnic vein and superior mesenteric vein

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9
Q

Why is portal vein blood partially deoxygenated?

A

Perfuses GI organs, pancreas & spleen

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10
Q

The portal vein provides ___% of HBF, while the hepatic artery provides __%

A

75%, 25%

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11
Q

What percentage of oxygen delivered to the liver is via the portal vein vs the hepatic artery?

A

50% each

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12
Q

The hepatic artery branches off the _____

A

aorta

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13
Q

The hepatic artery _______ in response to low portal venous flow

A

dilates

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of portal HTN?

A

Cirrhosis

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15
Q

Portal HTN can result in _____ and ______

A

↑Portal venous pressure → blood backsupinto systemic circulation
- esophageal and gastric varices

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16
Q

What is a normal HVPG, portal HTN, and variceal rupture?

A

Normal 1-5 mmHg
HVPG > 10 mmHg
HVPG > 12 mmHg

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17
Q

What are the risk factors of liver disease (9)?

A

Family hx, ETOH, lifestyle, DM, obesity, illicit Drug use, mult sexual partners, tattoos, transfusion

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18
Q

What are the signs of liver disease on physical exam (7)?

A

Pruritis, jaundice, ascites, asterixis (flapping tremor), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, spider nevi

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19
Q

What are the 7 liver labs?

A
  • BMP, CBC
  • PT/INR
  • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
  • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    • most liver-specific enzymes
  • Bilirubin
  • Alkaline Phosphatase
  • ɣ-glutamyl-transferase (GGT)
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20
Q

Which imaging can detect portal blood flow?

A

Doppler US

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21
Q

What are the 3 groups of hepatobiliary disease?

A
  • Hepatocellular injury
  • Reduced synthetic function
  • Cholestasis
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22
Q

Which labs will be increased in hepatocellular injury?

A

↑AST/ALT (hepatocyte enzymes)
- Acute Liver Failure (ALF): elevated 25x
- Alcoholic Liver Dz (ALD): AST:ALT ratio usually at least 2:1
- NAFLD: ratio usually 1:1

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23
Q

Which lab values will be altered in reduced synthetic function?

A

↓Albumin, ↑PT/INR

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24
Q

Which lab values will be altered in cholestasis?

A

↑AlkPhosphatase,↑GGT,↑bilirubin

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25
Q

Which lab values will be altered in bilirubin overload (hemolysis)?

A

Increased unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin

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26
Q

_______ secrete bile through bile ducts into the CHD

A

Hepatocytes

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27
Q

Which organ stores bile? What vessel secretes bile directly into the duodenum?

A

GB stores bile to deliver during meals, CBD secretes bile directly into duodenum

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28
Q

What are the risk factors of cholelithiasis “gallstones”?

A

Obesity, ↑cholesterol, DM, pregnancy, female, family hx

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29
Q

What are the S/S of cholelithiasis “gallstones”?

A

80% asymptomatic
- RUQ pain, referred to shoulders
- N/V, indigestion
- fever (acute obstruction)

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30
Q

What is the treatment of gallstones?

A

IVF, abx, pain mgmt, and lap cholecystectomy

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31
Q

What is choledocolithiasis?

A

Stone obstructing CBD→ biliary colic

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32
Q

What are the initial vs cholangitis s/s of choledocolithiasis?

A
  • Initial sx: N/V, cramping, RUQ pain
  • Cholangitis sx: fever, rigors, jaundice
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33
Q

What is the treatment for choledocolithiasis?

A

Endoscopic removal of stone via ERCP

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34
Q

How does an Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) work?

A
  • Endoscopist threads guidewire through Sphincter of Oddi, into Ampulla of Vaterto retrieve stone from pancreatic duct or CBD
  • GA, usually prone w/left tilt (head to R, tape ETT to left)
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35
Q

How is an oddi spasm treated during ERCP?

A

1 mg of glucagon

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36
Q

______ is the end product of heme-breakdown

A

Bilirubin

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37
Q

What is the difference between conjugated vs unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Unconjugated “indirect”bilirubin is PB to albumin, transported to liver, conjugated into to its H20-soluble “direct” state, excreted into bile

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38
Q

What is the patho of unconjugated vs conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A
  • Unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia: imbalance btw bilirubin synthesis & conjugation
  • Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia:caused by anobstruction, causing reflux of conjugated bilirubin into the circulation
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39
Q

What are the causes of unconjugated vs conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Unconjugated: physiologic jaundice of newborn, jaundice of prematurity, hgb disorders (sickle cell), hemolysis, hereditary defects in conjugation, drug-induced, sepsis
Conjugated: intrahepatic cholestasis, hepatocellular injury, benign post-op jaundice, Dubin-Johnson syndrome, Rotor syndrome, obstructive jaundice, and biliary atresia

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40
Q

What are the 5 most common types of viral hepatitis? Which are more chronic?

A

A-E
B and C

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41
Q

___ is most common viral hepatitis requiring liver transplant in US

A

HCV

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42
Q

What is the treatment for viral hepatitis?

A

12 week course Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir

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43
Q

What happens if viral hepatitis goes untreated?

A

cirrhosis, then hepatocellular carcinoma

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44
Q

Differentiate between type B vs C viral hepatitis

A

B and C - transmitted percutaneously and sexually
B incubation 60-110 days, C is 35-70 days
Type C is worse for adults - chronic liver disease 75% of patients
Type B worse for children - chronic liver disease in 80-90%

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45
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

A

Alcoholic liver disease

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46
Q

What is the treatment for ALD?

A
  • Treatment centered around abstinence
  • Management sx of liver failure
  • Platelet count <50,000 requires blood transfusion
  • Liver transplant an option if criteria is met (abstinence for 1 year)
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47
Q

What are the s/s of ALD (9)?

A
  • Malnutrition
  • Muscle wasting
  • Parotid gland hypertrophy
  • Jaundice
  • thrombocytopenia
  • Ascites
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Pedal edema
  • Sx of ETOH withdrawal may occur 24-72h after stopping
48
Q

What are the differing lab values in patients with ALD?

A
  • ↑Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • ↑Liver enzymes
  • ↑ɣ-glutamyl-transferase (GGT)
  • ↑Bilirubin
  • Blood ethanol (acuteintox)
49
Q

How is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease diagnosed?

A
  • hepatocytes contain>5% fat
  • Imaging and histology
  • Liver biopsy= gold standard in distinguishing NAFLD from other liver dx
50
Q

What are the causes of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

Obesity, Insulin resistance, DM2, Metabolic syndrome

51
Q

How does non-alcoholic fatty liver disease progress?

A
  • Progresses to NASH, cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma
  • NAFLD & NASH have become additional leading causes of liver transplant in US
52
Q

What is the treatment for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

diet and exercise, liver transplant indicated for advanced fibrosis, cirrhosis, related complications

53
Q

What is the prevalence of NAFLD?

A

1/4 regardless of weight
6/10 diabetics
9/10 obese people

54
Q

Which progresses faster? alcoholic or non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

55
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis effects women _____ than men

56
Q

What are the expected lab values of autoimmune hepatitis?

A
  • +autoantibodies & hypergammaglobulinemia
  • AST/ALT may be 10-20x norm in acute AIH
57
Q

What is the treatment for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

steroids, azathioprine (immunosuppressant)
- Liver transplant indicated when tx fails or acute liver failure ensues

58
Q

What is the most common cause of drug-induced liver injury?

A

Acetaminophen OD - normally reversible after drug is removed

59
Q

What are the 3 specific disorders of inborn errors of metabolism?

A
  • Wilsons Disease
  • Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
  • Hemochromatosis
60
Q

Inborn Errors of Metabolism occur in 1:_____ births

61
Q

_______ are a group of rare, genetically inherited disorders that lead to a defect in the enzymes that breakdown and store protein, carbohydrates &fatty acids

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

62
Q

Wilsons Disease is also known as _______ and is characterized by impaired ______ metabolism

A

hepatolenticular degeneration
copper

63
Q

Copper buildup leads to oxidative stress in the ______, _______, and _______

A

liver,basal ganglia, and cornea

64
Q

What are the s/s of Wilsons disease? Lab values?

A

Sx: range from asymptomatic to sudden-onset liver failure along with neurologic & psychiatricmanifestations
Tx: Copper-chelation therapy & oral zinc to bind copper in the GI tract

65
Q

How is Wilsons disease diagnosed?

A

Lab tests (serum ceruloplasmin,aminotransferases,urine copper level)
- Possible liver biopsy for copper level

66
Q

_______ is a genetic disorder resulting in a defectiveα-1 antitrypsin protein

A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

67
Q

α-1 antitrypsin proteins protect the _____ and _____ from _______

A

liver & lungs from neutrophil elastase

68
Q

__________ is the #1 genetic cause of liver transplant in children

A

α-1 antitrypsin deficiency

69
Q

How is α-1 antitrypsin deficiency diagnosed?

A

confirmed w/α-1 antitrypsin phenotyping

70
Q

How is α-1 antitrypsin deficiency treated?

A

pooledα-1 antitrypsin is effective for pulmonary sx; however, it doesn’t help with liver disease
- Liver transplant is the only curative treatment for liver disease inα-1 antitrypsin deficiency

71
Q

________ is the excessive intestinal absorption of iron

A

Hemochromatosis
- Excess iron accumulates in organs and causes damage to the tissues

72
Q

What causes Hemochromatosis? How is it diagnosed?

A

Maybe genetic or caused by repetitive blood transfusions or iron infusions
Dx: genetic mutation testing

73
Q

What are the expected lab values for patients with Hemochromatosis?

A

Labs reveal elevated AST/ALT, transferrin saturation, and ferritin
Liver bx may quantify iron levels in the liver and assess the level of damage

74
Q

What is the treatment for Hemochromatosis?

A

Tx: weekly phlebotomy, iron-chelating drugs, liver transplant

75
Q

What is a common comorbidity of patients with Hemochromatosis?

A

cardiomyopathies

76
Q

_______ is an autoimmune, chronic inflammation of the larger bile ducts, resulting in fibrosis in the biliary tree?

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)

77
Q

How does PSC progress?

A

Fibrosis in biliarytree→strictures (beads on string appearance)→ cirrhosis, ESLD

78
Q

Males are ____ likely to have PSC than women

A

more, onset 40s

79
Q

What are the s/s of PSC?

A

Fatigue, itching, deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K), cirrhosis

80
Q

How is PSC diagnosed?

A
  • Dx: MRCP or ERCP showing biliary strictures w/ dilated bile ducts
  • Liver biopsy reinforces dx, but isn’t always performed
81
Q

What are the expected lab values of patients with PSC?

A

Labs:↑alkaline phosphatase andɣ-glutamyl-transferase, +auto-antibodies

82
Q

What is the treatment for patients with PSC?

A
  • No drug treatments are proven to be effective
  • Liver transplant is only long term treatment
  • Re-occurrence is common after transplant d/t autoimmune nature
83
Q

_________ is the autoimmune, destruction of bile ducts withperiportal inflammation & cholestasis

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)

84
Q

Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC) is also known as

A

biliary cirrhosis

85
Q

What are the s/s of PBC?

A

jaundice, fatigue,& itching

86
Q

PBC can lead to…

A

liver scarring, fibrosis, cirrhosis

87
Q

What causes PBC? What population typically has it?

A
  • Females > Males; often dx’d in middle-ages
  • Thought to be c/b exposure to environmental toxins in genetically susceptible individuals
88
Q

What are the expected lab values of patients with PBC?

A

Labs: ↑Alk Phos,↑GGT, + Antimitochondrial antibodies

89
Q

How is PBC diagnosed?

A
  • Imaging: CT,MRI, & MRCP to r/o bile duct obstructions
  • Liver biopsy reveals bile duct destruction andinfiltration w/lymphocytes
90
Q

What is the treatment for PBC?

A

No cure, but exogenous bile acids slow progression

91
Q

Acute liver injury occurs within _____ after insult. 50% of cases are caused by ______

A

6 months
drug-induced - acetaminophen

92
Q

What are other causes of acute liver failure?

A

Viral hepatitis, autoimmune, hypoxia, ALF of pregnancy, HELLP

93
Q

What are the s/s of acute liver failure?

A

Jaundice, nausea, RUQ pain, cerebral edema, encephalopathy, multi-organ failure, death
Massive hepatocyte necrosis→ cellular swelling &mbrndisruption

94
Q

What is the tx of acute liver failure?

A

Treat the cause, supportive care, liver transplant

95
Q

What are the expected lab values of acute liver failure?

A

Rapid increase in AST/ALT, AMS, coagulopathy

96
Q

_____ is final stage liver disease; characterized by normal _____ being replaced with ____

A

cirrhosis
Normal liver parenchyma replaced with scar tissue

97
Q

What are the s/s of cirrhosis?

A
  • Often asymptomatic in early stages
  • Sx’s progress to jaundice, ascites, varices, coagulopathy, encephalopathy
98
Q

What are the most common causes of cirrhosis?

A

ALD, NAFL, HCV, HBV

99
Q

What are the expected lab values of patients with cirrhosis?

A

Elevated labs: AST/ALT, bilirubin, Alk phosphatase, PT/INR
- thrombocytopenia

100
Q

_______ is the only cure for cirrhosis

A

transplant

101
Q

What are the 8 complications from cirrhosis?

A

Portal HTN, ascites, bacterial peritonitis, varices, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal syndrome, hepatopulmonary syndrome, and portopulmonary HTN

102
Q

What is the most common complication of cirrhosis? Treatment?

A

ascities
- ↓Salt diet, albumin replacement
- Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) - Reduces P-HTN and ascites

103
Q

_______ is the most lethal complication of varicies; treatment?

A

Hemorrhage
- Beta blockers help reduce risk
- Prophylactic endoscopic variceal banding & ligation
- Refractory bleeding → balloon tamponade

104
Q

________ is a complication of cirrhosis in which there is buildup of nitrogenous waste d/t poor liver detoxification

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy

105
Q

What are the s/s and tx for Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A
  • Neuropsychiatric symptoms (cognitive impairment → coma)
  • Tx: Lactulose, Rifaximin to ↓ammonia-producing bacteria in gut
106
Q

What is the patho of Hepatorenal Syndrome? Tx?

A
  • Excess production of endogenous vasodilators (NO, PGs)→↓SVR→↓RBF
  • Tx: Midodrine, Octreotide, Albumin
107
Q

_________ is a triad of chronic liver disease, hypoxemia, intrapulmonary vascular dilation

A

Hepatopulmonary Syndrome

108
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of Hepatopulmonary Syndrome?

A

Platypnea (hypoxemia when upright) d/t R to L intrapulmonary shunt

109
Q

What is the patho and tx for Portopulmonary HTN?

A
  • Pulmonary HTN accompanied by portal HTN
  • Systemic vasodilation triggers production of pulmonary vasoconstrictors
  • Tx: PD-I’s, NO, prostacyclin analogs, and endothelin receptor antagonists; transplant is only cure
110
Q

What are the 2 scoring systems for liver disease? What values are they based on?

A
  • Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP):points based on bilirubin, albumin, PT, encephalopathy, ascites
  • Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD): scorebased on bilirubin, INR, creatinine, sodium
111
Q

Anesthesia considerations for patients with liver disease?

A
  • ↑Risks aspiration, HoTN, hypoxemia
  • Colloids > crystalloids for resuscitation
  • Alcoholism increases MAC of volatile anesthetics
  • Drugs may have slow onset/prolongedDoA
  • Succs and Cisatracurium are ideal (not liver-metabolized)
112
Q

What is the Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) procedure?

A
  • “TIPS” procedure to manage portal HTN
  • Stent or graft placed btw hepatic vein and portal vein
  • Shunts portal flow to systemic circulation
  • Reduces the portosystemic pressure gradient
113
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for TIPS?

A

Indications:
- Refractory variceal hemorrhage
- Refractory ascites

Contraindications:
- Heart Failure
- Tricuspid regurgitation
- Severe pulmonary HTN

114
Q

What is a partial hepatectomy?

A
  • Resection to remove neoplasms, leaving adequate tissue for regeneration
  • Up to 75% removal is tolerated in pts with normal liver function
115
Q

What are the anesthetic considerations of a patient undergoing a partial hepatectomy?

A
  • Invasive monitoring - surgeon may clamp IVC or hepatic artery
  • Blood products available - postop coagulation disturbances
  • Adequate vascular access for blood/pressors - maintain low CVP by fluid restriction to reduce blood loss
116
Q

What is the intra-op mgmt for liver transplant?

A
  • Maintain hemodynamics (Pressors/Inotropes readily available) - A-line, CVC, PA cath, TEE
  • Control coagulation