Neurological Diseases Flashcards

Exam 3

1
Q

CBF is modulated by what 5 things?

A
  • cerebral metabolic rate
  • cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
  • arterial blood carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
  • arterial blood oxygen (PaO2)
  • various drugs and intracranial pathologies
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2
Q

CPP formula

A

CPP = MAP-ICP

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3
Q

With autoregulation, CBF is approx _____ brain tissue per minute; mL/min? __% of CO?

A

50 mL/100g
- 750ml/min
- 15% of COP

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4
Q

The intracranial & spinal vault contains what 3 things?

A

neural tissue (brain + spinal cord), blood, and CSF

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5
Q

The intracranial & spinal vault is enclosed by what?

A

the dura mater and bone

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6
Q

Under normal conditions, brain tissue, intracranial CSF, and intracranial blood have a combined volume of _______. At this volume, ICP is _______

A

1200-1500mL
5-15 mmHg

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7
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie hypothesis?

A

any increase in one component of intracranial volume must be offset by a decrease in another component to prevent an elevated ICP; eventually, compensatory mechanisms can fail, resulting in cerebral ischemia

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8
Q

The intracranial vault is considered ____________

A

compartmentalized

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9
Q

What are the meningeal barriers that separate the brain contents?

A

the falx cerebri and the tentorium cerebelli

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10
Q

__________ is a reflection of dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres

A

the falx cerebri

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11
Q

____________ is a reflection of durathat lies rostral to the cerebellum and marks the border btw the supratentorial and infratentorial spaces

A

the tentorium cerebelli

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12
Q

Herniation syndromes are categorized based on what?

A

the region of brain affected

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13
Q

Herniation of hemispheric contents under the falx cerebri; typically, compressing branches of theanterior cerebral artery. What does this type of herniation lead to?

A

Subfalcine Herniation
- creating a midline shift

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14
Q

Herniation of the supratentorial contents past the tentorium cerebelli, causing brainstemcompression in a rostral to caudal direction. What does this type of herniation lead to?

A

Transtentorial Herniation
- This leads to AMS, defects in gaze and ocular reflexes, hemodynamic andrespiratory compromise, and death

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15
Q

A subtype oftranstentorial herniation, where the uncus (medial portion of temporal lobe)herniatesoverthe tentorium cerebelli. What does this type of herniation result in?

A

Uncal Herniation
- This results in ipsilateral oculomotor nerve dysfunction

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16
Q

What are the s/s of uncal herniation?

A

Pupillary dilatation, ptosis, and lateral deviation of the affected eye, brainstem compression and death

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17
Q

Herniation of the ____________ can occur due to elevated infratentorial pressure, causing the cerebellarstructures to herniate through the foramen magnum

A

cerebellar tonsils

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18
Q

What are the s/s of herniation of the cerebellar tonsils?

A

Sx: medullary dysfunction, cardiorespiratory instability and subsequently death

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19
Q

What are the 4 brain herniation examples?

A
  1. Subfalcine
  2. Transtentorial
  3. Cerebellar contents through foramen magnum
  4. Traumatic event causing herniation out of cranial cavity
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20
Q

What are the 4 causes of increased ICP?

A

Tumors, intracranial hematomas, blood in the CSF, and infections

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21
Q

What are the 3 ways that tumors can lead to increased ICP?

A
  1. directly because of their size
  2. indirectly by causing edema in surrounding brain tissue
  3. by obstructing CSF flow, as seen with tumors involving the third ventricle
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22
Q

What are the non-pharmacologic methods to decrease ICP?

A
  • Elevation of the head: encourages jugular venous outflow
  • Hyperventilation: lowers PaC02
  • CSF drainage: external ventricular drain (EVD)
  • Surgical decompression
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23
Q

What are the pharmacologic methods to decrease ICP?

A
  • Hyperosmotic drugs: increase osmolarity, drawing fluid across BBB
  • Diuretics: induce systemic hypovolemia
  • Corticosteroids: decrease swelling and enhance the integrity of the BBB
  • Cerebral vasoconstricting anesthetics (propofol): decrease CMR02 and CBF
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24
Q

What are the 6 genetic neurologic disorders?

A
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Lambert Eaton Syndrome
  • Myasthenia Syndrome
  • Muscular Dystrophies
  • Myotonic Dystrophies
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25
Q

______ is a progressive, autoimmune demyelination of central nerve fibers

A

MS

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26
Q

What is the onset age of MS? Risk factors?

A
  • Onset age 20-40
  • Rx factors: Female, 1st deg relative, EBV, other AI disorders, smoking
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27
Q

MS is characterized by what?

A

Characterized by periods of exacerbations & remissions

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28
Q

What are the triggers for MS?

A

Triggers: stress, elevated temps, postpartum period

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29
Q

What are the s/s of MS?

A

Sx: motor weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairment, autonomic instability. Sx vary b/o site of demyelination

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30
Q

What is the tx for MS?

A

No cure - managed with corticosteroids, immune modulators, targeted antibodies

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31
Q

What labs are considered before anesthesia in MS and MG?

A

CBC, BMP, +/-LFT
- LFT if on Dantrolene & Azathioprine(bone marrow suppression, liver function impairment)

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32
Q

Why should sux be avoided in MS patients?

A

induces hyperkalemia - upregulated nACh-R

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33
Q

__________ is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are generated against nAC-R at the skeletal motor endplate

A

MG

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34
Q

Which muscles are effected in MG?

A

Effects skeletal muscle, not smooth or cardiac muscle

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35
Q

What are the s/s of MG with cranial nerve involvement?

A
  • Ocular sx common-diplopia, ptosis
  • Bulbar involvement → laryngeal/pharyngeal weakness→ respiratory insufficiency, aspiration rx
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36
Q

What are the general s/s of MG?

A

Muscle weakness, exacerbated w/exercise, pain, insomnia, infection, and sx

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37
Q

How common is thymic-hyperplasia in MG? What is the tx?

A

10% - thymectomy

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38
Q

What is the tx for MG?

A

Tx: Ach-E inhibitors (Pyridostigmine), immunosuppressive agents, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

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39
Q

Which anesthesia meds have altered responses in pts with MG?

A
  • Reduce paralytic dosage to avoid prolonged muscle weakness
  • Caution with opioids to avoid respiratory compromise
  • Ach-E inhibitors may prolong Succs and Ester LA’s
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40
Q

_________ is a disorder resulting in the development of auto-antibodiesagainst VG Calcium channels

A

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome
- Reduce Ca++ influx into the presynaptic Ca++ channels→↓Ach release @ the NMJ

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41
Q

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome is associated with what?

A

small cell lung carcinoma

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42
Q

What are the s/s of Eaton-Lambert Syndrome?

A

Similar to MG - progressive limb-girdle weakness, dysautonomia, oculobulbar palsy

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43
Q

What is the tx of Eaton-Lambert Syndrome?

A

Selective K+ chnl blocker “3-4 diaminopyridine”, Ach-E inhibitors, immunologics (Azathioprine), steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

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44
Q

Which meds are ELS pts sensitive to?

A
  • VERY sensitive to ND-NMB & D-NMB
  • Significantly more sensitive to ND-NMB than MG patients
  • Extreme caution on paralytic and opioid dosing
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45
Q

______ is a hereditary disorder of muscle fiber degeneration c/b breakdown of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex

A

Muscular Dystrophy

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46
Q

What is the most common type of MD? How many types are there?

A

Duchenne MD = most common & severe form
- 6 types

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47
Q

Which genetic neurologic disorder is associated with MH?

A

MD - avoid sux, VA, ND-NMBDs
- hypermetabolic syndrome

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48
Q

What are the s/s of MD?

A

Sx: progressive muscle wasting w/o motor/sensoryabnormalities, kyphoscoliosis, long bone fragility, respiratory weakness, frequent pneumonia, EKG changes
- Elevated serum creatine kinase c/b muscle wasting

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49
Q

What is the onset, WCB age, and average lifespan of Duchenne MD pts?

A

Occurs only in boys, onset 2-5y. Wheelchair-bound by age 8-10. Avg lifespan ̴20-25y d/t cardiopulmonary complications

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50
Q

What labs should be obtained prior to anesthesia in patients with MD?

A

CBC, BMP, PFTs, consider CK

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51
Q

What kind of anesthesia can be given to pts with MD?

A
  • Consider low dose rocuronium and TIVA for GA
  • RA preferred over GA to avoid triggers and cardiopulmonary complications
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52
Q

ACh-E inhibitors prolong what drugs?

A

sux and ester LA’s

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53
Q

______ is prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation

A

myotonia

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54
Q

What is the most common myotonia? Onset?

A

Myotonic Dystrophy
- Onset 20-30’s

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55
Q

What are the s/s of Myotonic Dystrophy?

A

Sx: muscle wasting in face, masseter, hand, pre-tibial muscles
- may also affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles
- cardiac conduction may be affected; 20% have MVP

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56
Q

_______ is a milder type of myotonia involving the skeletal muscles (smooth & cardiac muscles are spared)

A

Myotonia Congenita

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57
Q

________ is a rare form of myotonia in which core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes

A

Central Core disease

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58
Q

What are the s/s of Central Core disease?

A
  • Proximal muscle weakness & scoliosis
  • Myotonias are triggered by stress & cold temps
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59
Q

What is the tx for central core disease?

A

Tx: No cure. Sx managed w/Quinine, Procainamide, Steroids

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60
Q

What are patients with myotonia disorders at higher risk for under anesthesia?

A
  • GI hypomotility-↑aspiration risk
  • High rx of endocrine abnormalities (check thyroid & glucose levels)
  • Pts are at increased risk for post-op resp weakness
61
Q

What meds should be avoided or given with caution in pts with myotonia disorders?

A
  • Avoid Succinylcholine b/c fasciculations trigger myotonia
  • Caution with opioids to avoid post-op respiratory depression
62
Q

What are the 3 major dementia syndromes?

A

Alzheimer’s (70%), vascular dementia (25%), and Parkinson’s (5%)

63
Q

Patients with dementia syndromes are at increased risk for what under anesthesia? What type of anesthesia is ideal?

A
  • aspiration
  • ↑risk for post-op delirium (consider TIVA)
  • RA preferred to ↓opioid requirements
64
Q

__________ is the degeneration of dopaminergic fibers of basal ganglia

A

Parkinsons Disease

65
Q

What is the cause and pathophysiology of Parkinsons Disease?

A
  • Unknown cause; Advanced age is biggest risk factor
  • Dopamine regulates (inhibits excess stimulation) the extrapyramidal motor system, which is stimulated by Ach
  • In Parkinsons, these motor neurons are over stimulated
66
Q

What is the Parkinsons triad? What are the other s/s?

A

Triad of sx: skeletal muscle tremor, rigidity, akinesia
- Rhythmic “pill rolling,” facial rigidity, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, respiratory difficulty, depression & dementia

67
Q

What is the tx for Parkinsons?

A

Tx: Levodopa (crosses BBB), anticholinergics, MAOIs (inhibit dopamine degradation), Deep brain stimulator

68
Q

What meds should be avoided in patients with Parkinsons?

A
  • PO Levodopa must be continued to avoid unstable extreme extrapyramidal effects s/a chest wall rigidity
  • Avoid Reglan, Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones
  • Avoid Demerol if on MAOI
69
Q

What consideration is necessary in Parkinson’s pts with deep brain stimulators?

A
  • Deep brain stimulators may need to be disabled to avoid interaction w/cautery
  • If cautery used, bipolar recommended as it reduces the scattering of electro-currant
70
Q

What are common s/s of brain tumors? (8)

A
  • ↑ICP
  • Papilledema
  • Headache
  • AMS
  • Mobilityimpairment
  • Vomiting
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Seizures
71
Q

_________ are the most common CNS glial cells

A

Astrocytes

72
Q

What are the 4 types of Astrocytomas?

A

Gliomas, pilocytic astrocytomas, anaplastic astrocytomas, glioblastoma multiforme

73
Q

Name the Astrocytoma type: Primary tumors, least aggressive astrocytomas often found in young adults with new-onset seizures

74
Q

Name the Astrocytoma type: mostly benign tumors in children and young adults that have good outcomes with resection

A

Pilocyctic astrocytomas

75
Q

Name the Astrocytoma type: poorly differetiated, usually evolves into Glioblastoma Multiforme

A

Anaplastic astrocytomas

76
Q

Name the Astrocytoma type: carry a high mortality - life expectancy within weeks even w/ tx (requires sx debulking and chemo)

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme

77
Q

Name the brain tumor type: Arise from dura or arachnoid tissue; usually benign - good prognosis w/surgical resection

A

Meningiomas

78
Q

Name the brain tumor type: Noncancerous, varying subtypes; - Transsphenoidalor open craniotomy for removal is usually curative

A

Pituitary Adenomas

79
Q

Name the brain tumor type: -Usually benign schwannomas involving the vestibular component of CN VIII within the auditory canal (Good prognosis w/resection +/- radiation)

A

Acoustic Neuromas

80
Q

Name the brain tumor type: can vary widely in origin &symptoms; outcomes are generally less favorable

A

Metastatic carcinomas

81
Q

Why are pts with brain tumors usually on steroids?

A

to minimize cerebral edema

82
Q

________ are commonly used in pts w/ supratentorial lesions, closer to motor cortex

A

Anticonvulsants

83
Q

________ can be used to reduce intracranial volume & pressure in pts w/ brain tumors

84
Q

_____ is the leading cause of death and disability, worldwide

85
Q

2 stroke types

A
  • ischemia (88% of cases)
  • hemorrhage (12% of cases)
86
Q

Blood is supplied to the brain from:

A

internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries

87
Q

Clinical features of an occluded anterior cerebral artery

A

contralateral leg weakness

88
Q

Clinical features of an occluded middle cerebral artery

A

contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory deficit (face and arm more than leg), aphasia (dominant hemisphere), and contralateral visual field defect

89
Q

Clinical features of an occluded posterior cerebral artery

A

contralateral visual field defect and contralateral hemiparesis

90
Q

Clinical features of an occluded penetrating artery

A

contralateral hemiparesis and contralateral hemisensory deficits

91
Q

Clinical features of an occluded basilar artery

A

oculomotor deficits and/or ataxia with crossed sensory and motor deficits

92
Q

Clinical features of an occluded vertebral artery

A

lower cranial nerve deficits and/or ataxia with crossed sensory deficits

93
Q

____________ occlusion of a vessel that supplies a region of brain resulting in cellular ischemia

A

ischemic stroke

94
Q

______________ a sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within 24 hrs

A

Transient ischemic attack

95
Q

____ of pts who experience a TIAwill subsequently suffer a stroke

96
Q

Thrombolytic intervention should occur within ______ of an ischemic stroke

97
Q

How can youdistinguish an ischemia strokefrom an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

non-contrast CT

98
Q

What are the 5 classifications of ischemic stroke causes according to the TOAST?

A
  1. Large artery atherosclerosis (e.g., carotid stenosis)
  2. Small vessel occlusion (e.g., lacunar stroke)
  3. Cardioaortic embolic (e.g., emboli from atrial fibrillation)
  4. Other etiology (e.g., stroke due to hypercoagulable states or vasculopathies)
  5. Undetermined etiology
99
Q

What is the tx for an ischemic CVA?

A

PO aspirin, tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), and revascularization

100
Q

Patients w/ ischemic stroke frequently have __ risk factors

A

CV - HTN, DM, CAD, Afib, andvalvular disease, that could impact vasoactive drug choices and hemodynamic goal

101
Q

________ is bleeding inside the cranial vault that impairs perfusion of the brain

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

102
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke is __ more likely to cause death than ischemic stroke

103
Q

The 2 most reliable predictors of outcome in a hemorrhagic stroke are:

A

estimated blood volume & change in LOC

104
Q

What are the 5 subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes?

A

Based on location of blood:
- Bloodwithin the brain: intraparenchymal hemorrhage
- Blood in the epidural space: epidural hematoma
- Blood in the subdural space: subdural hematoma
- Blood in subarachnoid space: subarachnoid hemorrhage
- Blood located in the ventricular system: intraventricular hemorrhage (usually occurs in conjunction with other types of hemorrhagic stroke)

105
Q

What is the tx of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Conservative tx: reduction of ICP,blood pressure control, seizure precautions, and vigilant monitoring
- Surgical treatment involves evacuation of the hematoma

106
Q

What are the 3 types of neurologic vascular disorders?

A
  • Cerebral vascular disease
  • Aneurysms
  • Arteriovenous Malformations
107
Q

If a pt w/ cerebrovascular disease is on a new anticoagulant for thrombus, how long must they wait for elective sx?

108
Q

How often are cerebral aneurysms diagnosed before rupture?

A
  • Majority aneurysms not diagnosed before rupture
  • Only1/3 aneurysm pts have sx before rupture
109
Q

What are the s/s of cerebral aneurysms?

A

Headache, photophobia, confusion, hemiparesis, coma

110
Q

What are the risk factors of cerebral aneurysms?

A

HTN, smoking, female, oral contraceptives, cocaine use

111
Q

How are cerebral aneurysms diagnosed?

A

CT/angio, MRI, Lumbar puncture w/CSF analysis if rupture suspected

112
Q

Intervention for cerebral aneurysms should be performed within ___ of rupture for best outcomes. What is the sx tx?

A

72 hours
- Surgical tx: coiling, stenting, trapping/bypass (very large aneurysms)

113
Q

How long after SAH are patients at risk for vasospasm?

A

3-15 days post SAH

114
Q

What is the patho of Post-SAH Vasospasms?

A

Free hgb triggers inflammatory mediators, which reduce nitric oxide availability and increase endothelin 1, leading to vasoconstriction

115
Q

What is the triple H therapy for post-SAH vasospasm?

A

Hypertension, Hypervolemia, Hemodilution
- To avoid complications of hypervolemia, HTN is the initial main treatment
- Interventional treatments s/a balloon dilation and direct injection of vasodilators relieve the spasm

116
Q

Hunt and Hess classification for aneurysms

A

Scores 0-5 - 5 has 40-50% mortality
1. unruptured
2. ruptured w/ min HA and no neuro deficits
3. mod-severe HA, no deficit other than cranial nerve palsy
4. drowsiness, confusion, or mild focal motor deficit
5. stupor, sig hemiparesis, early decerebration
6. deep coma, decerebrate rigidity

117
Q

Glasgow coma scale score for aneurysms

A

0-5
0 - intact, unruptured aneurysm
1 - score 15, no major focal deficit
2 - score 13-14, no major focal deficit
3 - score 13-14, with major focal deficit
4 - score 7-12, may have major focal deficit
5 - score 2-6, may have major focal deficit

118
Q

________ is an arterial to venous connection w/o intervening capillaries that creates an area of high flow, low resistance shunting; believed to be congenital

A

Arteriovenous Malformations “AVM”

119
Q

The majority of AVMs are ______

A

supratentorial

120
Q

What are the s/s of AVMs? Dx?

A

Sx: range from mass-effects to hemorrhage
Dx: Angiogram, MRI

121
Q

Spetzler-Martin AVM grading system

A

1-5: dep on nidus size, eloquence of adjacent pain, and pattern of venous drainage
1 = 100% pts w/ no post-op neuro deficit
5 = 69% pts w/ no post-op neuro deficit

122
Q

What are the 4 congenital brain diseases?

A
  • Chiari Malformations
  • Tuberous Sclerosis
  • Von Hippel-Lindau Dz
  • Neurofibromatosis
123
Q

________ is a congenital brain abnormality with displacement of the cerebellum

A

Chiari Malformation

124
Q

What are the 4 types of Chiari Malformation?

A

Type 1: downwarddisplacement ofcerebellum
Type 2 (Arnold Chiari): downwarddisplacementofcerebellar vermis, often assoc w/myelomeningocele
Type 3: Rare; occipital encephalocele w/downward cerebellar displacement
Type 4: cerebellar hypoplasia w/o displacement of posterior fossa contents *Not compatible with life

125
Q

What are the s/s of Chiari Malformation? Tx?

A

Sx: headache, extending to shoulders/arms,visual disturbances, ataxia
Tx: Surgical decompression

126
Q

What is the other name for Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Bourneville Disease

127
Q

_____________ is an autosomal dominant disease, causing benign hemartomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations that can occur anywhere in the body

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

128
Q

What lesions of the brain are included in Tuberous Sclerosis? What other areas are often involved?

A

cortical tumors & giant-cell astrocytomas
- Often involves co-existing tumors of face,oropharnyx, heart, lungs, liver &kidneys

129
Q

How does Tuberous Sclerosis present?

A

mental retardation and seizure disorders

130
Q

___________ is a genetic disease process involving formations of benign tumors of the CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas and kidneys

A

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease

131
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease may present with ________. Anesthetic consideration?

A

pheochromocytoma - exaggerated HTN

132
Q

What are the 3 types of neurofibromatosis?

A

Type 1 (most common)
Type 2
Schwannomatosis (rare)

133
Q

What are the anesthetic considerations for pts w/ neurofibromatosis

A
  • increased ICP, airway issues, scoliosis, possibility of pheochromocytoma
  • Avoid NA d/t high likelihood of spinal tumors
134
Q

_______ is the excessive CSF accumulation, causing ↑ICP, leading to ventricular dilatation; due to an imbalance between CSF production and absorption

A

Hydrocephalus

135
Q

What is the tx for Hydrocephalus?

A
  • diuretics (furosemide & acetazolamide decrease CSF production)
  • Serial lumbar punctures as a temporizing measure
  • The majority of cases require surgical treatment VP shunt or ETV
136
Q

Hydrocephalus can be caused by

A

congenital or acquired d/t meningitis, tumors,head injury, or stroke

137
Q

A VP shunt is a drain placed in the ______ of the brain and empties into the ________

A

ventricle, peritoneum (Ventriculoperitoneal)

138
Q

ETV: catheter placed into the __________ that drains into the ________, __________, or more rarely the _________

A

lateral ventricle
peritoneal space, right atrium, or pleural space
(endoscopic third ventriculostomy)

139
Q

Shunt malfunction occurs most frequently in the ________ of placement (high failure rate)

A

first year

140
Q

How are TBIs categorized?

A

“penetrating” or “non-penetrating,” d/o breech of dura
- Severity categorized by Glasco-Coma Scale

141
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary injuries in TBIs

A
  • Primary injury: occurs at time of insult
  • Secondary injuries: neuroinflammation, cerebral edema, hypoxia, anemia, electrolyte imbalances, and neurogenic shock
142
Q

When is intubation required in severe TBI?

A

GCS <9, AW trauma, resp distress

143
Q

What are the pre-anesthesia considerations for TBIs?

A

Do not delay emergent surgery
- C-spine stabilization, adequate IV access, CVC, Aline
- uncrossmatched blood if no time for T & C
- Refrain from NGT/OGT –potential for basal skull fx
- Intra-op ISTAT labs, Pressors, Bicarb, Calcium, & Blood products

144
Q

Glasgow coma score components

A

eye opening, verbal response, motor response; score 3-15

145
Q

______ is a transient, paroxysmal, synchronous discharge of neurons in the brain

146
Q

Which transient abnormalities can cause seizures?

A

hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperthermia, intoxication - tx underlying cause

147
Q

Antiepileptic drugs decrease _______ or enhance _______

A

decrease neuronal excitability
enhance inhibition

148
Q

Which anti-seizure meds are enzyme-inducers? How do they impact anesthetics?

A
  • Phenytoin, Tegretol, Barbiturates are enzyme-inducers
  • Likely require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications