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Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management > Registry Review Class - patient care extra notes > Flashcards

Registry Review Class - patient care extra notes Flashcards

1
Q

to make an informed decision, the patient needs to have what? (5)

A
  1. the nature of the trt procedure or decision
  2. expectations of trt
  3. expected outcome (likelihood of success)
  4. other options of trt
  5. risks and side effects
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2
Q

Consent is a form of communication between ________ and _________

A

patient and provider

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3
Q

Who needs to review and conduct the consent process with the patient? And why?

A

the rad onc/physician should conduct the consent process with the patient

If a rad t or a nurse does the consent, it can be questioned in a court of law – should be physician!
Physician or provider is the best person to do consent for it to be truly informed

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4
Q

An informed consent must ideally be in ______

A

writing
– “an official agreement that has been signed on paper or digitally”

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5
Q

TRUE or FALSE

In a verbal consent, the witness can be on the healthcare team, but you still want a written consent… Verbal consent can get you to next step at least… but, ideally you still want a written consent

A

TRUE

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6
Q

If consent is NOT obtained, it can be considered what?

A

battery or malpractice

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7
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

If a patient is NOT 18 years old or older… and or NOT fully mentally capable – a parent or guardian can sign (or health care proxy/or power of attorney) can sign the consent

A

TRUE

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8
Q

when should consent be obtained?

A

PRIOR to the CT sim

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

risks of radiation (even radiation from CT) must be included in the consent

A

TRUE

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10
Q

_____ consent is used in emergencies

A

implied

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11
Q

PHI is what? and what does it do?

A

Protected Health Information

it is any info used to identify a patient

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12
Q

who can we discuss patient’s info with?

A

Patient’s info (patient’s PHI, etc.) can only be discussed by those who have DIRECT care of the patient

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13
Q

when performing a case study, printing, etc. what must be removed?

A

patient’s PHI
*Protected Health Information

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14
Q

what is the biggest problem in the healthcare industry?

A

breach of confidentiality

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15
Q

If a crime is committed, can you break HIPAA to police and associated authorities?

YES or NO

A

YES

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16
Q

TRUE or FALSE

HIPAA applies to ALL healthcare workers.

-anyone who comes in contact with patients, no matter your job
-from front desk, cafeteria, to doctor

A

TRUE

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17
Q

what does AHA stand for?

A

American Hospital Association

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18
Q

a ___________ _________ ____ __________ outlines the expectations the patient has of the health care facility

A

Patient’s Bill of Rights

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19
Q

DNI stands for what? whereas DNR stands for what?

A

DNI = Do Not Intubate –> expresses the desire to avoid intubation (tube insertion) in the event of a medical emergency

DNR = Do Not Resuscitate –> expresses the desire to not have life-saving methods/measures used if patient codes (ex. CPR)

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20
Q

a living will is a type of ___________

A

Advanced Directive

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21
Q

TRUE or FALSE

you HAVE to be terminally ill to have a living will

A

FALSE

you do not have to be terminally ill to have a living will

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22
Q

TRUE or FALSE

a DNR is another type of Advanced Directive

A

TRUE

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23
Q

_____________________ = a legal document that states/documents who Medical power of attorney is

A

Health Care Proxy

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24
Q

____________________ = the person who makes the medical/healthcare decisions. And must be 18 years old or older

A

MEDICAL power of attorney

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25
Q

a _____ will should be the guide for the healthcare proxy

A

living

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26
Q

___________ = the person who makes legal decisions on behalf of patient

A

Power of attorney

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27
Q

_____________ = the moral obligations to promote the course of action that they believe is in the best interests of the patient; act in the best interest of; to do good

A

Beneficence

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28
Q

_____________ = negligence by an act, or failure to act, by healthcare provider that results in injury of death; always UNITENTIONAL

A

Malpractice

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29
Q

is malpractice ALWAYS unintentional?

YES or NO

A

YES

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30
Q

the word “_____” means “wrong”

A

tort

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31
Q

what is the word that describes an “unintentional tort”

A

negligence

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32
Q
  • Battery
  • Assault
  • False imprisonment
  • Libel
  • Slander
  • Invasion of privacy

these are all words that describe _________ _________

A

Intentional torts

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33
Q

what legal doctrine/jargon is being described below?

doctrine that states that all persons are liable for their own negligent conduct

A

personal liability

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34
Q

what legal doctrine/jargon is being described below?

“let the master answer”

A

Respondeat superior

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35
Q

what legal doctrine/jargon is being described below?

“the thing speaks for itself”

A

Res ipsa loquitor

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36
Q

what legal doctrine/jargon is being described below?

principle of law that holds a person liable for all consequences of any negligent acts to another individual to whom a duty is owed & should have been reasonably foreseen under the circumstances

A

Foreseeability

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37
Q

TRUE or FALSE

you can be forced into a clinical trial

A

FALSE

you can never be forced into a clinical trial. It is always on volunteer basis

BUT once you are in a trial, they can assign you into whichever group they feel needed

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38
Q

what material is typically used as patient identifiers for inpatients?

A

wristbands

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39
Q

to use “restraints” correctly… what must happen beforehand?

A

a physician, PA, or Nurse practitioner must order them or order a directive

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40
Q

what are the stages of grief? in order

  4. 5.
A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
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41
Q

CT will still give off radiation… is the dose high or low?

A

CTs give off a low dose of radiation. Just in the diagnostic range

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42
Q

MRIs DO or DO NOT use radiation?

A

they DO NOT. They’re magnets, they use magnetic field

43
Q

TRUE or FALSE

MRIs are always on

A

TRUE

44
Q

when transferring a patient in a wheelchair to the treatment table, where is it best to put the wheelchair?

A

parallel to the table

  • according to jess and WL
45
Q

for stretcher transfers, what should be the first step?

A

LOCKING THE WHEELS

46
Q

what are examples of ergonomic devices in the clinic?

A

hoyer lift and gait belts

47
Q

when is a gait belt better than a hoyer lift?

A

when the patient is weight bearing

48
Q

for a MINOR MEDICAL EMERGENCY is medical treatment needed? Observation?

A

medical trt is not needed, only observation

49
Q

the following are examples of Minor, Moderate, or Severe medical emergencies?

Nausea, hives, mild vomiting, weakness, warmth, pallor (pale skin)

A

MINOR

50
Q

for a SEVERE MEDICAL EMERGENCY is medical treatment needed? Observation?

A

treatment needed immediately (like Epinephrine) and continued observation

51
Q

the following are examples of Minor, Moderate, or Severe medical emergencies?

Tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypertension, dyspnea, laryngeal edema

A

MODERATE

52
Q

the following are examples of Minor, Moderate, or Severe medical emergencies?

o Anaphylactic shock – experiences respiratory arrest and vascular shock
o Convulsions, unresponsiveness, extreme hypotension

A

SEVERE

53
Q

for a MODERATE MEDICAL EMERGENCY is medical treatment needed? Observation?

A

medical trt is not needed, but must be under observation

54
Q

what is the ratio of compressions to breaths for an adult?

A

30:2

55
Q

what is the ratio of compressions to breaths for children?

A

15:2

56
Q

when should you administer CPR?

A

only when there is NO PULSE

57
Q

LAURA NAPPI CORRECTION - pg 19 #3 Injuries and Traumas

After the incident has occurred, an incident report _____ need to be filled out according to the facility’s rules

A

WILL

*it must be filled out. no option

58
Q

what is the difference between airborne and droplet transmission?

hint - comes down to size and area covered

A

airborne = smaller particles; occurs over long distances

droplet = larger particles; occurs over short distances

59
Q

where is considered NOT sterile?

A

waist level and down

60
Q

handwashing should take how long?

A

40-60 seconds

61
Q

Contrast media types & properties:

the following describes Iodinated, Barium sulfate, or Water soluble media

“a pharmacologic agent bound to molecules of iodine”

A

Water soluble

62
Q

Contrast media types & properties:

the following describes Iodinated, Barium sulfate, or Water soluble media

“positive agents; water soluble; rectal or oral to highlight GI”

A

Barium sulfate

63
Q

Contrast media types & properties:

the following describes Iodinated, Barium sulfate, or Water soluble media

“positive agents; used to enhance vascular organs & structures (usually IV)”

A

Iodinated

64
Q

Contrast media types & properties:
the following describes Iodinated - IONIC or NON-IONIC media

“High osmolality and cause more adverse reactions”

A

IONIC

65
Q

Contrast media types & properties:
the following describes Iodinated - IONIC or NON-IONIC media

“Low osmolality and cause fewer adverse reactions; More expensive”

A

NON-IONIC

66
Q

which type of contrast media is MOSTLY used in/as CT contrast?

A

water soluble media

67
Q

describe BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) levels and why it matters. Especially with regard to CT and contrast

A

waste products excreted by the kidneys

-if high = impaired kidney function
-a blood test that evaluates kidney function – if level is high, it indicates POOR kidney functions … contrast is hard on kidneys cause that is how it is filtered out

68
Q

what does BUN stand for?

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen

69
Q

contrast is hard on what organ(s) especially?

A

our kidneys

70
Q

if BUN levels are high in kidneys, what does it?

A

indicates POOR kidney functions and would be harder for patient to get contrast out of body/system

71
Q

what are the normal BUN values in adults?

A

7-20 mg

72
Q

severe reactions (allergic, etc) require _________________ kind of treatment

A

intensive and rapid treatment

73
Q

________ is another severe reaction which is loss of consciousness leading to convulsions

A

SYNCOPE

74
Q

every CT should have a basic ____ kit

A

allergic reaction

75
Q

at risk people for …xyz… people should get stool tested every __ years

A

3

76
Q

at risk people for …xyz… people should get a colonoscopy every __ years

A

10

77
Q

at risk people for …xyz… people should get a sigmoidoscopy every __ years

A

5

78
Q

when should women start getting an annual breast cancer screen mammo?

A

40-54 years old

79
Q

TRUE or FALSE

high risk smokers with risk of lung cancer should get an annual low dose CT

A

TRUE

80
Q

women aged 21-29 should get a pap smear every ____ yrs

A

3

81
Q

women aged 30-65 should get a _______ and a ____ test every 5 years!

A

pap smear and HPV test

82
Q

how often should women 30-65 yrs old get a pap smear and HPV test

A

every 5 yrs

83
Q

what does PSA stand for (2 meanings really, say both)

A

Patient Support Assembly

Prostate Specific Antigen

84
Q

_____________ is the sound you hear FIRST when using a stethoscope

A

systolic

85
Q

_____________ is the sound you hear SECOND when using a stethoscope

A

diastolic

86
Q

diastolic is the relaxation OR contraction of the heart

A

relaxation

87
Q

systolic is the relaxation OR contraction of the heart

A

contraction

88
Q

TRUE or FALSE

the pain scale is subjective

A

TRUE

89
Q

what is the most common PET scan tracer?

A

FDG

90
Q

like MRI, a diagnostic ultrasound does not use ________________

A

radiation

91
Q

what is the blood test for liver cancer?

A

AFP

92
Q

what is the blood test for ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125

93
Q

when does ovarian cancer typically appear/we can find it? Early or Late stage

A

Late

94
Q

who is the ONLY one who can approve prescription and treatment?

A

the rad onc

95
Q

BID means _____

A

twice a day

96
Q

if patient is getting radiation BID, how long must they wait before the second treatment?

the minimum wait time between BID treatments = ______

A

minimum 6 hours
**if it must happen before 6 hours, you NEED approval!

97
Q

the physician is included on a __________ charge

A

professional

98
Q

the physician is NOT included on a ____ charge

A

technical

99
Q

consults and follow-ups are a technical and professional charge, OR only professional, OR only technical?

A

only Professional

makes sense - the patient is only seeing the physician

100
Q

a vsim is a technical and professional charge, OR only professional, OR only technical?

A

technical and professional charge

101
Q

a complex charge means what devices were used?

A

personalized/custom created devices

ex. aquaplast masks, vac-locks, custom bolus, etc

102
Q

when it comes to devices, what charge trumps the others?

A

complex

(complex over simple and intermediate)

103
Q

if the patient uses an indexed device (ex. WB, breast board, belly board) but it is not personalized, what is the charge?

A

intermediate

104
Q

if a patient uses a pillow or knee wedge, what is the charge?

A

simple

Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management (14 decks)

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