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Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management > NAPPI PRACTICE EXAMS 1 & 2 - PATIENT CARE RELATED Q'S > Flashcards

NAPPI PRACTICE EXAMS 1 & 2 - PATIENT CARE RELATED Q'S Flashcards

1
Q
  1. which of the following is NOT assessed during a complete blood count blood study?

A. plasma
B. Hemoglobin
C. Hematocrit
D. Glucose

A

D. Glucose

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2
Q
  1. The legal doctrine that states the employer is liable for the employee’s negligence is known as:

A. respondeat superior
B. res ipsa loquitor
C. tort
D. res ipsa superior

A

A. respondeat superior

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3
Q
  1. All of the following are environmental factors that can cause nosocomial infections EXCEPT:

A. carpeting
B. plants
C. temperature
D. asepsis

A

D. asepsis

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4
Q
  1. what is the normal range for white blood cells?

A. 12.0-17.5 d/dL
B. 3.5-10.5 billion cells/L
C. 150,000 - 450,000 mc/L
D. 3.90 - 5.70 million mc/L

A

B. 3.5-10.5 billion cells/L

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following would give the doctor permission to perform a procedure, such as radiation therapy?

A. informed consent
B. Patient Bill of Rights
C. Respondeat superior
D. res ipsa loquitor

A

A. informed consent

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6
Q
  1. after what dose would permanent hair loss likely occur?

A. 1500 cGy
B. 2500 cGy
C. 3500 cGy
D. 4500 cGy

A

D. 4500 cGy

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7
Q
  1. if a patient is not given enough information to make a decision, this type of consent is considered:

A. written consent
B. verbal consent
C. implied consent
D. inadequate consent

A

D. inadequate consent

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8
Q
  1. the standard format used to transfer images from diagnostic imaging computers to treatment planning computers is defined by:

A. DICOM
B. PACS
C. DRR
D.EMR

A

A. DICOM

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9
Q
  1. What can be used to treat anaphylactic shock?

A. epinephrine
B. methotrexate
C. prednisone
D. amifostine

A

A. epinephrine

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following would not be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription?

A. beam energy
B. dose
C. bolus
D. monitor units

A

D. monitor units

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11
Q
  1. at what age does the American Cancer Society (ACS) suggest men and women to have a screening colonoscopy?

A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

A

C. 50

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12
Q
  1. How are tumors accurately diagnosed and staged?

A. CT simulation
B. MRI
C. Mammography
D. Biopsy

A

D. Biopsy

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following would be a violation of HIPAA?

A. libel
B. Slander
C. Negligence
D. Invasion of Privacy

A

D. Invasion of Privacy

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14
Q
  1. a common chemotherapy drug involved in the treatment of gastrointestinal cancers is:

A. methotrexate
B. carboplatin
C. 5-FU
D. adriamycin

A

C. 5-FU

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15
Q
  1. What is the appropriate way to change an error made in the patient’s treatment chart?

A. cover the error using white out and write the correct entry over it
B. draw multiple lines through the error until it is not legible and sign your name
C. draw a single line through the error and you initials
D. Do not make any changes to error

A

C. draw a single line through the error and you initials

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16
Q
  1. which of the following is considered an early effect of radiation?

A. cataracts
B. alopecia
C. fibrosis
D. leukemia

A

B. alopecia

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17
Q
  1. the cause of disease is defined by:

A. epidemiology
B. etiology
C. screening
D. incidence

A

B. etiology

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18
Q
  1. What is the most effective way to increase radiation protection?

A. decrease time
B. increase distance
C. increase shielding
D. decrease shielding

A

B. increase distance

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19
Q
  1. Regarding patient billing, “professional” charges are those that involve:

A. the radiation oncologist
B. the radiation therapist
C. the simulation
D. the treatment

A

A. the radiation oncologist

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20
Q
  1. a common chemotherapy agent used to treat Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

A

D. ABVD

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21
Q
  1. what is the normal range for platelets?

A. 12.0-17.5 g/dL
B. 3.5-10.5 billion cells/L
C. 150,000 - 450,000 mc/L
D. 3.90-5.70 million mc/L

A

C. 150,000 - 450,000 mc/L

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22
Q
  1. what does BID treatment mean?

A. two treatments in one week
B. two treatments in one day
C. three treatments in one week
D. three treatments in one day

A

B. two treatments in one day

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23
Q
  1. an alpha cradle is what type of immobilization device?

A. positioning aid
B. simple immobilization device
C. complex immobilization device

A

C. complex immobilization device

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24
Q
  1. what document defines the patient’s expectations of the hospital and gives the patient the right to influence their treatment?

A. code of ethics
B. scope of practice
C. patient’s bill of rights
d. health care proxy

A

C. patient’s bill of rights

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25
Q
  1. what does the pap smear screen for?

A. prostate cancer
B. cervical cancer
C. breast cancer
D. rectal cancer

A

B. cervical cancer

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26
Q
  1. which of the following is NOT a B symptom?

A. fever
B. night sweats
C. hives
D. weight loss

A

C. hives

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27
Q
  1. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the treatment table, the patient should hold onto the lifter’s ____

A. hands
B. arms
C. shoulders
D. neck

A

C. shoulders

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28
Q
  1. the main function of an immobilization device is to?

A. make the patient more comfortable during treatment
B. create a reproducible setup that can be maintained throughout the treatment
C. prevent the patient from falling
D. prevent the patient from talking throughout the treatment

A

B. create a reproducible setup that can be maintained throughout the treatment

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29
Q
  1. Patients experiencing extreme difficulty swallowing from Head and Neck treatments may require a _____________ to ensure they receive proper nutrition.

A. PEG tub
B. NG tube
C. PICC line
D. Catheter

A

A. PEG tub

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30
Q
  1. verbal defamation of character is:

A. slander
B. libel
C. negligence
D. assault

A

A. slander

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31
Q
  1. where is the most common location to measure a patient’s pulse?

A. apical artery
B. carotid artery
C. radial artery
D. femoral artery

A

C. radial artery

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32
Q
  1. ALARA stands for?

A. As Little as Reasonably Affordable
B. As Low as Reasonably Achievable
C. As Low as Realistically Attainable
D. As Little as Realistically Achievable

A

B. As Low as Reasonably Achievable

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33
Q
  1. a common chemotherapy combination used to treat breast cancer is

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

A

B. CMF

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34
Q
  1. Patients should be in a room with negative air pressure when they have:

A. influenza
B. tuberculosis
C. pneumonia
D. rubella

A

B. tuberculosis

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35
Q
  1. a microorganism that is the cause of an infectious disease is called:

A. pathogen
B. reservoir
C. droplet
D. antigen

A

A. pathogen

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36
Q
  1. Cancer screening tests that can detect cancer in EARLY STAGES is:

A. Sensitive
B. Specific
C. Detailed
D. Precise

A

A. Sensitive

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37
Q
  1. Immunosuppressed patients should follow what type of precaution?

A. reverse isolation precaution
B. contact precaution
C. droplet precaution
D. airborne precaution

A

A. reverse isolation precaution

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38
Q
  1. Percocet is what type of medication?

A. antiemetic
B. analgesic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. antispasmodic

A

B. analgesic

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a stage of grieving according to Elisabeth Kubler-Ross:

A. denial
B. depression
C. anger
D. annoyance

A

D. annoyance

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40
Q
  1. What document defines the patient’s expectations of the hospital and gives the patient the right to influence their treatment?

A. code of ethics
B. scope of practice
C. patient’s bill of rights
D. health care proxy

A

C. patient’s bill of rights

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41
Q
  1. an example of a hormonal agent used to treat breast cancer is?

A. doxorubicin
B. methotrexate
C. cisplatin
D. tamoxifen

A

D. tamoxifen

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42
Q
  1. Food, water, and medical equipment are examples of which mode of transmission?

A. vehicles
B. vectors
C. droplets
D. direct contact

A

A. vehicles

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43
Q
  1. a chemotherapy that can cause cardiac toxicity is?

A. Adriamycin
B. Bleomycin
C. Mitomycin
D. Actinomycin

A

A. Adriamycin

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44
Q
  1. Chest tubes should be kept at what level?

A. above patient’s chest
B. same level as patient’s chest
C. below patient’s chest
D. 18-25” above chest

A

C. below patient’s chest

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45
Q
  1. the term “assault” means:

A. harmfully touching another person
B. threatening to harm someone
C. verbally insulting someone’s character
D. writing insulting words about someone’s character

A

B. threatening to harm someone

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46
Q
  1. Viewing images after the patient has been treated is considered?

A. registration
B. reconstruction
C. Online review
D. Offline review

A

D. Offline review

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47
Q
  1. A patient who has mouth sores due to his/her treatment should eat foods that are all of the following EXCEPT:

A. soft
B. bland
C. spicy
D. room temperature

A

C. spicy

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48
Q
  1. Who is responsible for filling out the prescription for radiation therapy treatments?

A. radiation therapist
B. radiation oncologist
C. radiation physicist
D. radiation dosimetrist

A

B. radiation oncologist

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49
Q
  1. which of the following is considered a minor reaction to contrast media?

A. hypertension
B. tachycardia
C. vascular shock
D. hives

A

D. hives

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50
Q
  1. a patient is receiving a dose of 3000 cGy to the upper-abdominal region would need which of the following medications to relieve a common side effect?

A. antiemetic
B. analgesic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. anti-diarrheal

A

A. antiemetic

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51
Q
  1. Influenza can be transmitted through which mode of transmission?

A. vehicle-borne
B. vector-borne
C. airborne
D. droplet

A

D. droplet

52
Q
  1. a chemotherapy that can be used as a radiosensitizer is?

A. Cisplatin
B. Dexamethasone
C. Doxorubicin
D. Vincristine

A

C. Doxorubicin

53
Q
  1. what legal document defines the patient’s wishes when they are terminally ill?

A. power of attorney
B. health care proxy
C. living will
D. DNR

A

C. living will

54
Q
  1. a patient who is undergoing breast cancer treatments is complaining of a skin reaction after receiving 14 treatments at 180 cGy per fraction. Which option is most likely to be her reaction?

A. faint erythema
B. erythema
C. dry desquamation
D. moist desquamation

A

B. erythema

55
Q
  1. to use proper body mechanics when lifting a patient, the radiation therapist should utilize the muscles in his/her:

A. arms
B. back
C. legs
D. neck

A

C. legs

56
Q
  1. Chemotherapy administration into the spinal canal is known as:

A. intraperitoneal
B. intrathecal
C. intravenous
D. intraarterial

A

B. intrathecal

57
Q
  1. which mode of transmission is the most common way to spread infection?

A. droplet
B. airborne
C. direct-contact
D. vehicle-borne

A

C. direct-contact

58
Q
  1. a thermoplastic mold that is flexible when in hot water and then can mold around the patient’s body is also called:

A. alpha cradle
B. vac-lok
C. aquaplast
D. cerrobend

A

C. aquaplast

59
Q
  1. Nosocomial infections are infections that are acquired:

A. at the patient’s home
B. in the hospital
C. in a foreign country
D. for the second time in one month

A

B. in the hospital

60
Q
  1. which of the following is an example of sterile technique for medical equipment?

A. steam under pressure
B. boiling water
C. virucides
D. germicides

A

A. steam under pressure

61
Q

practice test 2 -
4. a patient who has a skin reaction to radiation therapy should follow all of the following EXCEPT:

A. use lotions only as prescribed
B. ventilate the area
C. wash the area with hot water and soap
D. avoid direct sunlight to the area

A

C. wash the area with hot water and soap

62
Q

practice test 2 -
9. Radiation treatments that use electrons can be billed as a:

A. simple treatment
B. intermediate treatment
C. complex treatment
D. simple simulation

A

C. complex treatment

63
Q

practice test 2-
11. a patient who has two different types of treatments at the same time, this is termed?

A. adjuvant
B. sequential
C. substantial
D. concurrent

A

D. concurrent

64
Q

practice test 2-
14. which blood examination tests the kidney and liver function?

A. TBI
B. CBC
C. BUN
D. Creatine

A

C. BUN

65
Q

practice test 2-
16. a patient uses arm-to-foot straps during a head and neck treatment in order to pull the shoulders out of the way of the treatment field. This immobilization device is considered a:

A. positioning aid
B. simple immobilization device
C. complex immobilization device
D. simple treatment

A

C. complex immobilization device

66
Q

practice test 2 -
19. what is the normal range for hemoglobin?

A. 12.0-17.5 g/dL
B. 3.5-10.5 billion cells/L
C. 150,000-450,000 mc/L
D. 3.90-5.70 million mc/L

A

A. 12.0-17.5 g/dL

67
Q

practice test 2-
21. a chemotherapy that can cause pulmonary toxicity is?

A. Adriamycin
B. Bleomycin
C. Mitomycin
D. Actinomycin

A

B. Bleomycin

68
Q

practice test 2-
24. the term used to describe how many people have a specific disease is:

A. epidemiology
B. etiology
C. specificity
D. sensitivity

A

A. epidemiology

69
Q

practice test 2-
26. Cancer is an example of which somatic effect?

A. stochastic effect
B. non-stochastic effect
C. direct effects
D. indirect effects

A

A. stochastic effect

70
Q

practice test 2-
28. Urine drainage bags should be kept at what level?

A. above level of patient’s chest
B. below level of bladder
C. above level of bladder
D. at the same level of the bladder

A

B. below level of bladder

71
Q

practice test 2-
32. If the radiation therapist restrains a patient without the appropriate approval from a physician, this is considered:

A. assault
B. false imprisonment
C. negligence
D. malpractice

A

B. false imprisonment

72
Q

practice test 2-
33. a common chemotherapy treatment used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

A

A. CHOP

73
Q

practice test 2-
36. which of the following is an example of aseptic technique for medical equipment?

A. bactericides
B. steam under pressure
C. moist heat
D. dry heat

A

A. bactericides

74
Q

practice test 2-
38. which somatic effect depends on the severity of the radiation dose?

A. stochastic effect
B. non-stochastic effect
C. direct effects
D. indirect effects

A

B. non-stochastic effect

75
Q

practice test 2-
40. all of the following are types of biopsies EXCEPT:

A. fine-needle
B. past point
C. core needle
D. incisional

A

B. past point

76
Q

practice test 2-
46. which of the following WOULD be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription?

A. bolus
B. monitor units
C. treatment position
D. immobilization device

A

A. bolus

77
Q

practice test 2-
50. the type of chemotherapy drug that has a chemical structure similar to that of mustard gas is?

A. antimetabolite
B. alkylating agent
C. antitumor antibiotic
D. nitrosoureas

A

B. alkylating agent

78
Q

practice test 2-
52. giving a malnourished patient nutrients through an IV is known as:

A. percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy
B. myelosuppression
C. nasogastric tube
D. hyperalimentation

A

D. hyperalimentation

79
Q

practice test 2-
60. Malnutrition due to illness is known as:

A. anorexia
B. cachexia
C. kwashiorkor
D. marasmus

A

B. cachexia

80
Q

practice test 2-
66. what is the appropriate ratio of compressions to breaths during CPR for an adult?

A. 15:2
B. 20:2
C. 30:2
D. 60:2

A

C. 30:2

81
Q

practice test 2-
68. which of the following would be prescribed if the patient needs an anti-inflammatory medication?

A. torecan
B. lomotil
C. hydrocortisone
D. compazine

A

C. hydrocortisone

82
Q

practice test 2-
74. what test screens for breast cancer?

A. mammography
B. pap smear
C. colonoscopy
D. PSA

A

A. mammography

83
Q

practice test 2-
76. treatment devices that can be reused for multiple patients each day, such as a pillow or wing board, can be billed as:

A. simple devices
B. intermediate devices
C. complex devices

A

A. simple devices

84
Q

practice test 2-
80. all of the following are examples of early effects of radiation EXCEPT:

A. nausea
B. fatigue
C. telangiectasis
D. erythema

A

C. telangiectasis

85
Q

practice test 2-
82. when all organisms and their spores are destroyed, this is termed:

A. asepsis
B. sterilization
C. cleansing
D. anti-bacterial

A

B. sterilization

86
Q

practice test 2-
87. list the stages of grief in order:

A. Denial, Depression, Annoyance, Acceptance
B. Bargaining, Denial, Depression, Acceptance
C. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
D. Annoyance, Depression, Bargaining, Acceptance

A

C. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

87
Q

practice test 2-
89. what is the tolerance dose to 3/3 of the brain according to Emami et al.?

A. 2300 cGy
B. 3000 cGy
C. 4500 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

A

C. 4500 cGy

88
Q

practice test 2-
94. the term “battery” means:

A. harmfully touching another person
B. threatening to harm someone
C. verbally insulting someone’s character
D. writing insulting words about someone’s character

A

A. harmfully touching another person

89
Q

practice 2-
99. what is the normal range for red blood cells?

A. 12.0-17.5 g/dL
B. 3.5-10.5 billion cells/L
C. 150,000-450,000 mc/L
D. 3.90-5.70 million mc/L

A

D. 3.90-5.70 million mc/L

90
Q

practice test 2-
102. a patient has a tumor in the central nervous system. This patient experiences symptoms like pain, problems with bowl control and bladder control. In which area of the CNS would this tumor most likely be?

A. frontal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. occipital lobe
D. spinal cord

A

D. spinal cord

91
Q

practice test 2-
103. which of the following defines the standards for patient confidentiality?

A. HIPAA
B. OSHA
C. DICOM
D. HL7

A

A. HIPAA

92
Q

practice test 2-
107. what is the minimum number of ways a patient must be identified?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

93
Q

practice test 2-
109. Which of the following is a radioprotector?

A. doxorubicin
B. amifostine
c. cyclophosphasmide
d. 5-FU

A

B. amifostine

94
Q

practice test 2-
111. what is the most efficient way to reduce the spread of infection in the healthcare setting?

A. gloves
B. gowns
C. hand washing
D. protective eyewear

A

C. hand washing

95
Q

practice test 2-
119. a common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is:

A. CMF
B. ABVD
C. MOPP
D. PLV

A

A. CMF

96
Q

practice test 2-
120. informed consent must inform the patient about all the following EXCEPT:

A. the procedure and treatment
B. Risks of having the treatment
C. alternative treatment options
D. costs of treatments

A

D. costs of treatments

97
Q

practice test 2-
122. which of the following is a radiosensitizer?

A. doxorubicin
B. ethyol
C. sulfhydryls
D. amifostine

A

A. doxorubicin

98
Q

practice test 2-
124. which test screens for prostate cancer?

A. Prostate specific antigen
B. Prostate sensitive antigen
C. Prostate Significant antigen
D. Prostate specific antitoxin

A

A. Prostate specific antigen

99
Q

practice test 2- CHECK WITH JESS
128. tuberculosis can be transmitted through which mode of transmission?

A. vehicle-borne
B. vector-borne
C. airborne
D. droplet

A

C. airborne

  • you thought droplet?
100
Q

practice test 2-
132. all of the following are contraindications for using contrast media EXCEPT:

A. patients under 50
B. patients over 50
C. patients with impaired kidney function
D. patients who have had reactions to contrast media in the past

A

A. patients under 50

101
Q

practice test 2-
137. an immobilization device that is made up of a thick plastic bag with small Styrofoam beads and uses a vacuum to shape the bag is called:

A. alpha cradles
B. vac-lok
C. aquaplast
D. cerrobend

A

B. vac-lok

102
Q

practice test 2 -
138. who should sign the patient’s chart when entering daily treatments?

A. radiation oncologist who prescribed dose
B. dosimetrist who planned the treatment
C. radiation therapists involved in that treatment
D. nurses involved in the patient’s care

A

C. radiation therapists involved in that treatment

103
Q

practice test 2-
140. flies, mosquitos, and ticks are examples of which mode of transmission?

A. vehicles
B. vectors
C. droplets
D. fomites

A

B. vectors

104
Q

practice test 2-
144. which of the following is NOT a severe reaction to contrast media?

A. anaphylactic shock
B. unresponsiveness
C. nausea
D. pallor

A

D. pallor

105
Q

practice test 2-
145. a chemotherapy that can be used as a radioprotector is?

A. amifostine
B. etoposide
C. tamoxifen
D. leuprolide

A

A. amifostine

106
Q

practice test 2-
148. who is responsible for the filling out of the patient’s prescription?

A. radiation oncologist
B. radiation physicist
C. radiation therapist
D. dosimetrist

A

A. radiation oncologist

107
Q

practice test 2-
151. the legal doctrine that states the employee is liable for themselves when they are negligent is known as:

A. respondeat superior
B. res ipsa loquitor
C. tort
D. res ipsa superior

A

B. res ipsa loquitor

108
Q

practice test 2-
155. when transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the treatment table, the wheelchair should be positioned:

A. parallel to the table
B. perpendicular to the table
C. at a 45-degree angle to the table
D. away from the table

A

A. parallel to the table

109
Q

practice test 2-
156. a belly board is used to:

A. keep the patient comfortable
B. move organs at risk out of the treatment field
C. limit patient motion
D. moves bowels into the treatment field

A

B. move organs at risk out of the treatment field

110
Q

practice test 2-
163. what is the minimum amount of hours that must pass between BID treatments?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

A

D. 6

111
Q

**practice test 2- ** CHECK WITH JESS
166. Patients with tuberculosis should follow what type of precaution?

A. reverse isolation precaution
B. contact precaution
C. droplet precaution
D. airborne precaution

A

D. airborne precaution

-droplet?

112
Q

practice test 2-
169. What is the type of condition that is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A. Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. familial adenomatous polyposis
C. Ebstein-Barr virus
D. Human Papillomavirus

A

C. Ebstein-Barr virus

113
Q

practice test 2-
171. images within the therapy department are shared and stored through:

A. DICOM
B. PACS
C. DRR
D. EMR

A

B. PACS

114
Q

practice test 2-
172. a health care proxy is someone who:

A. makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to
B. creates the treatment plan for the patients therapy
C. provides religious services to patients
D. provides counseling and information to patients and their families

A

A. makes decisions for the patient when they are not able to

115
Q

practice test 2-
175. Cancer screening tests that can determine a certain type of cancer is:

A. sensitive
B. specific
C. detailed
D. precise

A

B. specific

116
Q

practice test 2 -
177. which of the following sets the standards for handling toxic materials such as Cerrobend?

A. HIPAA
B. OSHA
C. DICOM
D. HL7

A

B. OSHA

117
Q

practice test 2-
181. which of the following is an example of how droplet infection can be spread?

A. sneeze
B. touch
C. food
D. mosquitos

A

A. sneeze

118
Q

practice test 2-
185. regarding needle safety, therapists must do all the following EXCEPT:

A. discard the needle in a puncture-resistant container
B. use a new needle for each patient
C. recap needles after use
D. report unwarranted needle sticks

A

C. recap needles after use

119
Q

practice test 2-
187. if the lower third of the esophagus receives a dose of 6500 cGy, what would most likely be the effect?

A. perforation
B. ulceration
C. obstruction
D. fistula

A

A. perforation

120
Q

practice test 2-
190. all of the following are presentations of inflammatory breast cancer EXCEPT:

A. peau d’orange
B. breast hardening
C. erythema
D. palpable mass

A

D. palpable mass

121
Q

practice test 2-
191. written defamation of character is:

A. slander
B. libel
C. negligence
D. assault

A

B. libel

122
Q

practice test 2-
193. which acute radiation syndrome would occur after a radiation dose of 5,000 cGy to the entire body?

A. cerebrovascular syndrome
B. Gastrointestinal syndrome
C. Hematopoietic syndrome
D. Plummer Vinson syndrome

A

B. Gastrointestinal syndrome

123
Q

practice test 2-
195. after a dose of 300 cGy to the testes, sterility is most likely

A. permanent
B. temporary
C. no effect
D. acute

A

B. temporary

124
Q

practice test 2-
197. Cancer screening tests that can determine a certain type of cancer is:

A. sensitive
B. specific
C. detailed
D. precise

A

B. specific

125
Q

practice test 2-
198. all of the following could be found on the treatment prescription EXCEPT:

A. total dose
B. fractionated dose
C. monitor units
D. bolus

A

C. monitor units

126
Q

practice test 2-
200. In an emergency situation a patient is unable to give consent for a procedure due to their mental state. Therefore, someone else has to make this decision for them. This type of consent is:

A. written consent
B. verbal consent
C. implied consent
D. inadequate consent

A

C. implied consent

key words = In an emergency situation

Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management (14 decks)

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