AMY HEATH REVIEW Q'S (ch 8)

Question 1

The use of verbal communication between a patient and caregiver may be affected by:
A. Patient’s hearing ability
B. Caregiver educational level
C. Patient’s ability to understand English
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. A, B and C

Answer 1

E.

Question 2

The use of facial expressions, gestures, and proxemics to communicate is categorized as:
A. Verbal communication
B. Written communication
C. Nonverbal communication
D. Physical communication

Answer 2

C. Nonverbal communication

Question 3

Race describes:
A. Learned behaviors passed on from one generation to the next in a specific society
B. Persons having similar physical characteristics
C. Definition of health and illness
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer 3

B. Persons having similar physical characteristics

Question 4

Which of the following is not affected by a patient’s cultural background?
A. Communication patterns
B. Access to healthcare
C. Method of treatment of different diseases
D. All of the above are affected

Answer 4

D. All of the above are affected

Question 5

According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, the final stage of dealing with death/loss is
A. Bargaining
B. Denial
C. Anger
D. Acceptance

Answer 5

D. Acceptance

Question 6

Which of the following behaviors are helpful when speaking with patients who are hard of hearing? (Choose all correct answers).
A. Yell at patient
B. Speak slower
C. Face patient when speaking
D. Only use written communication

Answer 6

B. Speak slower
C. Face patient when speaking

Question 7

Which group of children learns by playing?
A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. School age
D. Adolescents

Answer 7

B. Toddlers

Question 8

Decreased fear and anxiety and increased patient compliance can be achieved by:
A. Informal consent
B. Patient education
C. Joint Commission Accreditation
D. Privacy

Answer 8

B. Patient education

Question 9

When providing patient education to the patient, which of the following is not necessary?
A. Necessary preparation for procedure
B. The simulation or treatment process, including explanation of purpose of
procedure and mechanics of the procedure
C. Provider’s education and background
D. Length of the procedure

Answer 9

C. Provider’s education and background

Question 10

What is a normal rectal temperature?
A. 97.6 °F
B. 98.6 °F
C. 99.6 °F
D. 100.6 °F

Answer 10

C. 99.6 °F

Question 11

the normal oral temperature is ____ degrees F

Answer 11

98.6 degrees F

Question 12

where does an axillary temp get taken?

Answer 12

in armpit

Question 13

the normal axillary temperature is ____ degrees F

Answer 13

97.6 degrees F

Question 14

what is the normal range for respirations? per minute

Answer 14

15 to 20 breaths per minute

Question 15

If measuring a patient’s respirations, which of the following would be within normal limits?
A. 10 breaths per minute
B. 16 breaths per minute
C. 20 breaths per minute
D. 26 breaths per minute

Answer 15

B. 16 breaths per minute

Question 16

a normal pulse rate is ____ to ___ beats per minute (BPM)

Answer 16

60 to 90 BPM

Question 17

If measuring a patient’s pulse, which of the following would be within normal limits?
A. 50 beats per minute
B. 80 beats per minute
C. 50 beats per second
D. 80 beats per second

Answer 17

B. 80 beats per minute

Question 18

Blood pressure is measured using a(n):
A. Oximeter
B. Barometer
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Ecg lead

Answer 18

C. Sphygmomanometer

Question 19

diastolic pressure is _____ of LT ventricle

Answer 19

relaxation

Question 20

systolic pressure is ____ of the LT ventricle

Answer 20

contraction

Question 21

what is blood pressure measured in? (values)

Answer 21

mmHg

Question 22

A normal value for diastolic blood pressure is:
A. 30 mmHg
B. 60 mmHg
C. 90 mmHg
D. All of the above are within normal limits

Answer 22

B. 60 mmHg

Question 23

Acute side effects are those that last for ___ or less:
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 month

Answer 23

C. 6 months

Question 24

The severity of a patient’s side effects depends on:
A. Area treated
B. Volume of organ treated
C. Calendar month patient is treated in
D. A and B
E. A, B, C

Answer 24

D.

Question 25

Which of the following is not a general side effect? A. Skin reaction B. Fatigue C. Diarrhea D. Anorexia

Answer 25

C. Diarrhea -diarrhea is a specific site side effect

Question 26

Cause of skin reactions by radiation may be attributed to what? -what layer of epidermis? -talk about redness -sweat glands?

Answer 26

-damage to basal layer (stratum basale) of epidermis -redness caused by increased blood flow in healing effort -damaged sebaceous glands.

Question 27

what is stage 4 skin reaction?

Answer 27

stage 4 is marked by ulceration and necrosis

Question 28

what is stage 3 skin reaction?

Answer 28

moist desquamation

Question 29

what is stage 2 skin reaction? and what cGy does it occur at?

Answer 29

dry desquamation and it occurs at 4000-6000 cGy

Question 30

what is stage 1 skin reaction? and what cGy does it occur at?

Answer 30

stage 1 = erythema (inflammation) occurs 2000-4000 cGy

Question 31

A Stage III skin reaction would be characterized by: A. Dry desquamation B. Moist desquamation C. Necrosis D. Erythema

Answer 31

B. Moist desquamation

Question 32

what does "fibrosis" mean?

Answer 32

tissue remodeling; permanent scar tissue

Question 33

what does "necrosis" mean?

Answer 33

death of body tissue

Question 34

what does "telangiectasia" mean?

Answer 34

dilation of capillaries on skin or surface of an organ - causes spots to appear that are small red or purple clusters small dilated superficial blood vessels

Question 35

what does "lymphedema" mean?

Answer 35

swelling of leg or arm -occurs due to blockage of lymphatic system

Question 36

what does "atrophy" mean?

Answer 36

shrinkage of muscles or nerve tissues

Question 37

Which of the following is not an example of a chronic radiation side effect of the skin? A. Dry desquamation B. Fibrosis C. Lymphedema D. Telangiectasia

Answer 37

A. Dry desquamation - Late or chronic skin effects include fibrosis, atrophy, necrosis, lymphedema, and telangiectasia.

Question 38

In order to minimize skin reactions, patients undergoing radiation therapy should avoid (Choose all correct answers): A. Sun and wind exposure to treatment site B. Moisturizers containing alcohol C. Mild cleansers

Answer 38

A. Sun and wind exposure to treatment site B. Moisturizers containing alcohol

Question 39

Extreme tiredness, difficulty being able to continue normal activities of daily living or work, and muscle weakness can be described as: A. Sepsis B. Anorexia C. Fatigue D. Cachexia

Answer 39

C. Fatigue

Question 40

Lack of appetite is defined as: A. Marasmus B. Anorexia C. Kwashiorkor D. Fatigue

Answer 40

B. Anorexia

Question 41

alopecia is temporary for ___ to ___ Gy and becomes permanent for ___ to ___ Gy

Answer 41

temp for 15 to 30 Gy perm for 32 to 48 Gy

Question 42

Temporary alopecia can be seen in doses around: A. 5 Gy B. 15 Gy C. 35 Gy D. 55 Gy

Answer 42

B. 15 Gy

Question 43

Treatment of pneumonitis may include the use of: A. Antibiotics B. Antiviral drugs C. Humidifier D. Antiemetic

Answer 43

C. Humidifier

Question 44

Destruction of epithelial cells in the stomach results in ______, and begins at doses around______. A. Diarrhea, 1000–2000 cGy B. Nausea, 1000–2000 cGy C. Diarrhea, 2000–3000 cGy D. Nausea, 2000–3000 cGy

Answer 44

B. Nausea, 1000–2000 cGy -Nausea and vomiting can occur at doses of 1000–2000 cGy when radiation fields include esophagus, stomach, or other portions of the upper abdomen. This side effect is caused by destruction of stomach epithelial cells

Question 45

Which of the following is not a treatment for nausea and vomiting? A. Eating small meals B. Eating bland foods C. Eating cold foods D. Eating spicy foods

Answer 45

D. Eating spicy foods

Question 46

Destruction of the intestinal villi results in: A. Diarrhea B. Vomiting C. Erythema D. All of the above

Answer 46

A. Diarrhea

Question 47

Which of the following is not recommended for patients following a low- residue diet? A. Whole-wheat products B. Cooked vegetables C. Low-fat dairy D. Lean protein (poultry)

Answer 47

A. Whole-wheat products

Question 48

what is Leukopenia?

Answer 48

a decrease in WBCs - can lead to infections

Question 49

Myelosuppression results in __________

Answer 49

thrombocytopenia

Question 50

Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in: A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. Stem cells

Answer 50

A. Platelets -thrombocytopenia = decrease in platelets that can lead to bleeding since platelets control clotting factor

Question 51

Which of the following blood values is not in normal range? A. RBC count: 3.2 million/mm^3 B. WBC count: 7000/mm^3 C. Platelets: 400,000/mm^3 D. Hemoglobin: 14.5/100 ml

Answer 51

A. RBC count: 3.2 million/mm^3

Question 52

What term is used to describe the generalized symptom of wasting away? A. Marasmus B. Anemia C. Cachexia D. Asepsis

Answer 52

C. Cachexia

Question 53

A long-term side effect of treatment to the salivary glands is: A. Thrush B. Inflammation C. Xerostomia D. Odynophagia

Answer 53

C. Xerostomia

Question 54

what is mucositis

Answer 54

inflammation of the mucous membranes

Question 55

what is xerostomia

Answer 55

dry mouth

Question 56

Mouth changes occur between _____ and _____ cGy and can be permanent after _____ cGy

Answer 56

mouth changes occur between 1000-4000 cGy permanent after 4000 cGy

Question 57

what is thrush?

Answer 57

-a fungal (yeast) infection that can grow in your mouth, throat and other parts of your body -characterized by white patches on your mouth, tongue, or the back of your throat

Question 58

Thrush may be treated with: A. Antiemetics B. Antifungal infections C. Antibiotics D. Corticosteroids

Answer 58

B. Antifungal infections

Question 59

Kwashiorkor describes a __________ malnutrition.

Answer 59

protein malnutrition

Question 60

Marasmus is: A. General state of wasting away B. Calorie malnutrition C. Protein malnutrition D. Anemia

Answer 60

B. Calorie malnutrition

Question 61

what are the normal blood values for - Platelets

Answer 61

250,000–400,000/mm^3

Question 62

what are the normal blood values for - Hemoglobin --> in males --> in females

Answer 62

14–16.5 g/100 ml in males 12–15 g/100 ml in females

Question 63

what are the normal blood values for - Hematocrit --> in females --> in males

Answer 63

38–46 % in females 40–54 % in males

Question 64

what are the normal blood values for - WBCs

Answer 64

5000–10,000/mm^3

Question 65

what are the normal blood values for - RBCs

Answer 65

4.8–5.4 Million/mm^3

Question 66

Patients needing continuous care would have a KPS of: A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100

Answer 66

B. 50 -Karnofsky Performance Status, or KPS , can be used to identify how pain or disease effects the patient’s behavior. Normal behavior, needing NO assistance, is a KPS of 100. A KPS of 50 describes a patient who needs frequent medical care A KPS of 30 describes a patient who needs hospitalization 0 = dead

Question 67

Hospice care is indicated for patients who: A. Have less than 6 months life expectancy B. Do not require daily care C. Have financial problems D. All of the above

Answer 67

A. Have less than 6 months life expectancy

Question 68

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for a pathologic fracture? A. Blastic bone metastasis B. Lytic bone metastasis C. Brain metastasis D. Lung metastasis

Answer 68

B. Lytic bone metastasis

Question 69

When aiding an ambulatory patient to the treatment table, where should you walk? A. In front of the patient B. Behind the patient C. On the patient’s weak side D. On the patient’s strong side

Answer 69

C. On the patient’s weak side

Question 70

What device may be used to move patient who cannot stand from a wheelchair to the treatment table? A. Slider board B. Hoyer lift C. Transfer board D. Gait belt

Answer 70

B. Hoyer lift

Question 71

When patients arrive to the radiation therapy department on a cart, what device is useful to help transfer patients to the treatment table? A. Slider board B. Gait belt C. Knee pillow D. Safety assistance straps

Answer 71

A. Slider board

Question 72

When patients arrive to the radiation therapy department with an infusion pump, the bag containing the medicine should be placed: A. On the patient’s IV site B. Above the patient’s IV site C. Below the patient’s IV site D. Position of the bag does not matter

Answer 72

B. Above the patient’s IV site - Infusion catheters and pumps are used for IV delivery of chemo or other medication

Question 73

Chest tube drainage collection containers should be placed: A. On the patient’s chest B. Above the patient’s chest C. Below the patient’s chest D. Position of the container does not matter

Answer 73

C. Below the patient’s chest

Question 74

This medical intervention may be used in patients being treated with radiation to the head and neck area to ensure proper nutrition during treatment: A. Gastrostomy B. PICC Line C. Tracheostomy D. Foley catheter

Answer 74

A. Gastrostomy -Gastrostomies allow nutrition to be directly provided into the stomach. Nasogastric tubes may also be used to provide nutrition.

Question 75

Which of the following is not a reason for bladder catheterization ? A. Visualize the bladder for treatment planning B. Deliver chemotherapy for bladder cancer C. Bypass urinary obstruction D. Indicate the location of the vulva for treatment planning

Answer 75

D. Indicate the location of the vulva for treatment planning - Radiation therapists should keep the catheter and bag lower than the patient’s bladder to prevent backflow, which may cause infection.

Question 76

Which of the following is a normal reaction felt by patients after contrast administration? A. Feeling of warmth B. Headache C. Vertigo D. Nausea

Answer 76

A. Feeling of warmth

Question 77

If a patient is experiencing a mild reaction due to contrast administration, what symptoms may they have? (Choose all correct answers). A. Urticaria B. Nausea and vomiting C. Wheezing D. Chills E. Headache

Answer 77

B. Nausea and vomiting D. Chills E. Headache

Question 78

This class of medication should be on hand when administering contrast, in the event that a patient experiences an allergic reaction: A. Corticosteroid B. Antihistamine C. Antiemetic D. Diuretic

Answer 78

B. Antihistamine -Antihistamines are used for moderate allergic reactions. In the event of a severe allergic reaction, radiation therapists should have a crash cart with epinephrine and be prepared to administer CPR

Question 79

With regard to cardiopulmonary resuscitation , what does CAB stand for? A. Circulation, airway, blood pressure B. Compression, AED, breathing C. Compression, airway, breathing D. Circulation, AED, blood pressure

Answer 79

C. Compression, airway, breathing

Question 80

Which is the correct technique to clear an airway obstruction of a conscious person?

Answer 80

Heimlich maneuver

Question 81

Which is the correct technique to clear an airway obstruction of an unconscious person? A. Heimlich maneuver B. Abdominal thrusts C. Back slaps D. CPR

Answer 81

B. Abdominal thrusts

Question 82

Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident (stroke) include (Choose all correct answers): A. Numbness or weakness of the face or extremities, especially on one side of the body B. Confusion, trouble speaking or understanding C. Hypoglycemia D. Difficulty seeing in one or both eyes

Answer 82

A. Numbness or weakness of the face or extremities, especially on one side of the body B. Confusion, trouble speaking or understanding D. Difficulty seeing in one or both eyes

Question 83

If you are with a patient experiencing a seizure, what action should you not take? A. Watch patient for aspiration B. Maintain patient’s airway C. Sweep patient’s mouth to ensure nothing is in oral cavity D. Protect patient from falls

Answer 83

C. Sweep patient’s mouth to ensure nothing is in oral cavity

Question 84

Hypoglycemia means what?

Answer 84

decreased amount of sugar in blood

Question 85

Hyperglycemia means what?

Answer 85

increased sugar in the blood

Question 86

Hyperglycemia is marked by: A. Gradual onset of polydipsia and polyuria B. Cold, pale, and clammy skin C. Seizures D. Dizziness

Answer 86

A. Gradual onset of polydipsia and polyuria

Question 87

patients with active tuberculosis should have a room with what?

Answer 87

negative airflow

Question 88

A patient with active tuberculosis would arrive to the radiation oncology department under _____ precautions. A. Contact B. Airborne C. Protective D. Droplet

Answer 88

B. Airborne

Question 89

Hospital acquired infections are referred to as ______ infections. A. Nosocomial B. Autoimmune C. Bacterial D. Drug resistant

Answer 89

A. Nosocomial

Question 90

The most effective method of decreasing hospital acquired infections is: A. Asceptic technique B. Standard precautions C. Handwashing D. Contact precautions

Answer 90

C. Handwashing

Question 91

Personal protective equipment used for transmission based precautions include all of the following except: A. Goggles B. Gowns C. Gloves D. Hair coverings

Answer 91

D. Hair coverings

Question 92

Clostridium difficile (C Diff) spread via: A. Direct contact B. Droplets C. Particulate D. Airborne

Answer 92

A. Direct contact

Question 93

what does "atrophy" mean?

Answer 93

shrinkage of muscles or nerve tissues

Question 94

what does "fibrosis" mean?

Answer 94

tissue remodeling; permanent scar tissue