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Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management > AMY HEATH REVIEW Q'S (ch 8) > Flashcards

AMY HEATH REVIEW Q'S (ch 8) Flashcards

1
Q

The use of verbal communication between a patient and caregiver may be affected by:
A. Patient’s hearing ability
B. Caregiver educational level
C. Patient’s ability to understand English
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. A, B and C

A

E.

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2
Q

The use of facial expressions, gestures, and proxemics to communicate is categorized as:
A. Verbal communication
B. Written communication
C. Nonverbal communication
D. Physical communication

A

C. Nonverbal communication

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3
Q

Race describes:
A. Learned behaviors passed on from one generation to the next in a specific society
B. Persons having similar physical characteristics
C. Definition of health and illness
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

B. Persons having similar physical characteristics

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4
Q

Which of the following is not affected by a patient’s cultural background?
A. Communication patterns
B. Access to healthcare
C. Method of treatment of different diseases
D. All of the above are affected

A

D. All of the above are affected

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5
Q

According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, the final stage of dealing with death/loss is
A. Bargaining
B. Denial
C. Anger
D. Acceptance

A

D. Acceptance

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6
Q

Which of the following behaviors are helpful when speaking with patients who are hard of hearing? (Choose all correct answers).
A. Yell at patient
B. Speak slower
C. Face patient when speaking
D. Only use written communication

A

B. Speak slower
C. Face patient when speaking

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7
Q

Which group of children learns by playing?
A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. School age
D. Adolescents

A

B. Toddlers

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8
Q

Decreased fear and anxiety and increased patient compliance can be achieved by:
A. Informal consent
B. Patient education
C. Joint Commission Accreditation
D. Privacy

A

B. Patient education

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9
Q

When providing patient education to the patient, which of the following is not necessary?
A. Necessary preparation for procedure
B. The simulation or treatment process, including explanation of purpose of
procedure and mechanics of the procedure
C. Provider’s education and background
D. Length of the procedure

A

C. Provider’s education and background

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10
Q

What is a normal rectal temperature?
A. 97.6 °F
B. 98.6 °F
C. 99.6 °F
D. 100.6 °F

A

C. 99.6 °F

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11
Q

the normal oral temperature is ____ degrees F

A

98.6 degrees F

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12
Q

where does an axillary temp get taken?

A

in armpit

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13
Q

the normal axillary temperature is ____ degrees F

A

97.6 degrees F

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14
Q

what is the normal range for respirations? per minute

A

15 to 20 breaths per minute

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15
Q

If measuring a patient’s respirations, which of the following would be within normal limits?
A. 10 breaths per minute
B. 16 breaths per minute
C. 20 breaths per minute
D. 26 breaths per minute

A

B. 16 breaths per minute

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16
Q

a normal pulse rate is ____ to ___ beats per minute (BPM)

A

60 to 90 BPM

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17
Q

If measuring a patient’s pulse, which of the following would be within normal limits?
A. 50 beats per minute
B. 80 beats per minute
C. 50 beats per second
D. 80 beats per second

A

B. 80 beats per minute

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18
Q

Blood pressure is measured using a(n):
A. Oximeter
B. Barometer
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Ecg lead

A

C. Sphygmomanometer

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19
Q

diastolic pressure is _____ of LT ventricle

A

relaxation

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20
Q

systolic pressure is ____ of the LT ventricle

A

contraction

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21
Q

what is blood pressure measured in? (values)

A

mmHg

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22
Q

A normal value for diastolic blood pressure is:
A. 30 mmHg
B. 60 mmHg
C. 90 mmHg
D. All of the above are within normal limits

A

B. 60 mmHg

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23
Q

Acute side effects are those that last for ___ or less:
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 month

A

C. 6 months

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24
Q

The severity of a patient’s side effects depends on:
A. Area treated
B. Volume of organ treated
C. Calendar month patient is treated in
D. A and B
E. A, B, C

A

D.

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25
Q

Which of the following is not a general side effect?
A. Skin reaction
B. Fatigue
C. Diarrhea
D. Anorexia

A

C. Diarrhea

-diarrhea is a specific site side effect

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26
Q

Cause of skin reactions by radiation may be attributed to what?

-what layer of epidermis?
-talk about redness
-sweat glands?

A

-damage to basal layer (stratum basale) of epidermis
-redness caused by increased blood flow in healing effort
-damaged sebaceous glands.

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27
Q

what is stage 4 skin reaction?

A

stage 4 is marked by ulceration and necrosis

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28
Q

what is stage 3 skin reaction?

A

moist desquamation

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29
Q

what is stage 2 skin reaction? and what cGy does it occur at?

A

dry desquamation and it occurs at 4000-6000 cGy

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30
Q

what is stage 1 skin reaction? and what cGy does it occur at?

A

stage 1 = erythema (inflammation) occurs 2000-4000 cGy

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31
Q

A Stage III skin reaction would be characterized by:
A. Dry desquamation
B. Moist desquamation
C. Necrosis
D. Erythema

A

B. Moist desquamation

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32
Q

what does “fibrosis” mean?

A

tissue remodeling; permanent scar tissue

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33
Q

what does “necrosis” mean?

A

death of body tissue

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34
Q

what does “telangiectasia” mean?

A

dilation of capillaries on skin or surface of an organ - causes spots to appear that are small red or purple clusters

small dilated superficial blood vessels

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35
Q

what does “lymphedema” mean?

A

swelling of leg or arm
-occurs due to blockage of lymphatic system

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36
Q

what does “atrophy” mean?

A

shrinkage of muscles or nerve tissues

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37
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a chronic radiation side effect of the skin?
A. Dry desquamation
B. Fibrosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Telangiectasia

A

A. Dry desquamation

  • Late or chronic skin effects include fibrosis, atrophy, necrosis, lymphedema, and telangiectasia.
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38
Q

In order to minimize skin reactions, patients undergoing radiation therapy should avoid (Choose all correct answers):
A. Sun and wind exposure to treatment site
B. Moisturizers containing alcohol
C. Mild cleansers

A

A. Sun and wind exposure to treatment site
B. Moisturizers containing alcohol

39
Q

Extreme tiredness, difficulty being able to continue normal activities of daily living or work, and muscle weakness can be described as:
A. Sepsis
B. Anorexia
C. Fatigue
D. Cachexia

A

C. Fatigue

40
Q

Lack of appetite is defined as:
A. Marasmus
B. Anorexia
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Fatigue

A

B. Anorexia

41
Q

alopecia is temporary for ___ to ___ Gy
and becomes permanent for ___ to ___ Gy

A

temp for 15 to 30 Gy
perm for 32 to 48 Gy

42
Q

Temporary alopecia can be seen in doses around:
A. 5 Gy
B. 15 Gy
C. 35 Gy
D. 55 Gy

43
Q

Treatment of pneumonitis may include the use of:
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiviral drugs
C. Humidifier
D. Antiemetic

A

C. Humidifier

44
Q

Destruction of epithelial cells in the stomach results in ______, and begins at doses around______.
A. Diarrhea, 1000–2000 cGy
B. Nausea, 1000–2000 cGy
C. Diarrhea, 2000–3000 cGy
D. Nausea, 2000–3000 cGy

A

B. Nausea, 1000–2000 cGy

-Nausea and vomiting can occur at doses of 1000–2000 cGy when radiation fields include esophagus, stomach, or other portions of the upper abdomen.
This side effect is caused by destruction of stomach epithelial cells

45
Q

Which of the following is not a treatment for nausea and vomiting?
A. Eating small meals
B. Eating bland foods
C. Eating cold foods
D. Eating spicy foods

A

D. Eating spicy foods

46
Q

Destruction of the intestinal villi results in:
A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting
C. Erythema
D. All of the above

A

A. Diarrhea

47
Q

Which of the following is not recommended for patients following a low- residue diet?
A. Whole-wheat products
B. Cooked vegetables
C. Low-fat dairy
D. Lean protein (poultry)

A

A. Whole-wheat products

48
Q

what is Leukopenia?

A

a decrease in WBCs - can lead to infections

49
Q

Myelosuppression results in __________

A

thrombocytopenia

50
Q

Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in:
A. Platelets
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
D. Stem cells

A

A. Platelets

-thrombocytopenia = decrease in platelets that can lead to bleeding since platelets control clotting factor

51
Q

Which of the following blood values is not in normal range?
A. RBC count: 3.2 million/mm^3
B. WBC count: 7000/mm^3
C. Platelets: 400,000/mm^3
D. Hemoglobin: 14.5/100 ml

A

A. RBC count: 3.2 million/mm^3

52
Q

What term is used to describe the generalized symptom of wasting away?
A. Marasmus
B. Anemia
C. Cachexia
D. Asepsis

A

C. Cachexia

53
Q

A long-term side effect of treatment to the salivary glands is:
A. Thrush
B. Inflammation
C. Xerostomia
D. Odynophagia

A

C. Xerostomia

54
Q

what is mucositis

A

inflammation of the mucous membranes

55
Q

what is xerostomia

56
Q

Mouth changes occur between _____ and _____ cGy and can be permanent after _____ cGy

A

mouth changes occur between 1000-4000 cGy

permanent after 4000 cGy

57
Q

what is thrush?

A

-a fungal (yeast) infection that can grow in your mouth, throat and other parts of your body
-characterized by white patches on your mouth, tongue, or the back of your throat

58
Q

Thrush may be treated with:
A. Antiemetics
B. Antifungal infections
C. Antibiotics
D. Corticosteroids

A

B. Antifungal infections

59
Q

Kwashiorkor describes a __________ malnutrition.

A

protein malnutrition

60
Q

Marasmus is:
A. General state of wasting away
B. Calorie malnutrition
C. Protein malnutrition
D. Anemia

A

B. Calorie malnutrition

61
Q

what are the normal blood values for - Platelets

A

250,000–400,000/mm^3

62
Q

what are the normal blood values for - Hemoglobin

–> in males
–> in females

A

14–16.5 g/100 ml in males
12–15 g/100 ml in females

63
Q

what are the normal blood values for - Hematocrit

–> in females
–> in males

A

38–46 % in females
40–54 % in males

64
Q

what are the normal blood values for - WBCs

A

5000–10,000/mm^3

65
Q

what are the normal blood values for - RBCs

A

4.8–5.4 Million/mm^3

66
Q

Patients needing continuous care would have a KPS of:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100

A

B. 50

-Karnofsky Performance Status, or KPS , can be used to identify how pain or disease effects the patient’s behavior.
Normal behavior, needing NO assistance, is a KPS of 100.
A KPS of 50 describes a patient who needs frequent medical care
A KPS of 30 describes a patient who needs hospitalization
0 = dead

67
Q

Hospice care is indicated for patients who:
A. Have less than 6 months life expectancy
B. Do not require daily care
C. Have financial problems
D. All of the above

A

A. Have less than 6 months life expectancy

68
Q

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for a pathologic fracture?
A. Blastic bone metastasis
B. Lytic bone metastasis
C. Brain metastasis
D. Lung metastasis

A

B. Lytic bone metastasis

69
Q

When aiding an ambulatory patient to the treatment table, where should you walk?
A. In front of the patient
B. Behind the patient
C. On the patient’s weak side
D. On the patient’s strong side

A

C. On the patient’s weak side

70
Q

What device may be used to move patient who cannot stand from a wheelchair to the treatment table?
A. Slider board
B. Hoyer lift
C. Transfer board
D. Gait belt

A

B. Hoyer lift

71
Q

When patients arrive to the radiation therapy department on a cart, what device is useful to help transfer patients to the treatment table?
A. Slider board
B. Gait belt
C. Knee pillow
D. Safety assistance straps

A

A. Slider board

72
Q

When patients arrive to the radiation therapy department with an infusion pump, the bag containing the medicine should be placed:
A. On the patient’s IV site
B. Above the patient’s IV site
C. Below the patient’s IV site
D. Position of the bag does not matter

A

B. Above the patient’s IV site

  • Infusion catheters and pumps are used for IV delivery of chemo or other medication
73
Q

Chest tube drainage collection containers should be placed:
A. On the patient’s chest
B. Above the patient’s chest
C. Below the patient’s chest
D. Position of the container does not matter

A

C. Below the patient’s chest

74
Q

This medical intervention may be used in patients being treated with radiation to the head and neck area to ensure proper nutrition during treatment:
A. Gastrostomy
B. PICC Line
C. Tracheostomy
D. Foley catheter

A

A. Gastrostomy

-Gastrostomies allow nutrition to be directly provided into the stomach.
Nasogastric tubes may also be used to provide nutrition.

75
Q

Which of the following is not a reason for bladder catheterization ?
A. Visualize the bladder for treatment planning
B. Deliver chemotherapy for bladder cancer
C. Bypass urinary obstruction
D. Indicate the location of the vulva for treatment planning

A

D. Indicate the location of the vulva for treatment planning

  • Radiation therapists should keep the catheter and bag lower than the patient’s
    bladder to prevent backflow, which may cause infection.
76
Q

Which of the following is a normal reaction felt by patients after contrast administration?
A. Feeling of warmth
B. Headache
C. Vertigo
D. Nausea

A

A. Feeling of warmth

77
Q

If a patient is experiencing a mild reaction due to contrast administration, what symptoms may they have? (Choose all correct answers).
A. Urticaria
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Wheezing
D. Chills
E. Headache

A

B. Nausea and vomiting
D. Chills
E. Headache

78
Q

This class of medication should be on hand when administering contrast, in the event that a patient experiences an allergic reaction:
A. Corticosteroid
B. Antihistamine
C. Antiemetic
D. Diuretic

A

B. Antihistamine

-Antihistamines are used for moderate allergic reactions. In the event of a severe allergic reaction, radiation therapists should have a crash cart with epinephrine and be prepared to administer CPR

79
Q

With regard to cardiopulmonary resuscitation , what does CAB stand for?
A. Circulation, airway, blood pressure
B. Compression, AED, breathing
C. Compression, airway, breathing
D. Circulation, AED, blood pressure

A

C. Compression, airway, breathing

80
Q

Which is the correct technique to clear an airway obstruction of a conscious person?

A

Heimlich maneuver

81
Q

Which is the correct technique to clear an airway obstruction of an unconscious person?
A. Heimlich maneuver
B. Abdominal thrusts
C. Back slaps
D. CPR

A

B. Abdominal thrusts

82
Q

Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident (stroke) include (Choose all correct answers):
A. Numbness or weakness of the face or extremities, especially on one side of the body
B. Confusion, trouble speaking or understanding
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Difficulty seeing in one or both eyes

A

A. Numbness or weakness of the face or extremities, especially on one side of the body
B. Confusion, trouble speaking or understanding
D. Difficulty seeing in one or both eyes

83
Q

If you are with a patient experiencing a seizure, what action should you not take?
A. Watch patient for aspiration
B. Maintain patient’s airway
C. Sweep patient’s mouth to ensure nothing is in oral cavity
D. Protect patient from falls

A

C. Sweep patient’s mouth to ensure nothing is in oral cavity

84
Q

Hypoglycemia means what?

A

decreased amount of sugar in blood

85
Q

Hyperglycemia means what?

A

increased sugar in the blood

86
Q

Hyperglycemia is marked by:
A. Gradual onset of polydipsia and polyuria
B. Cold, pale, and clammy skin
C. Seizures
D. Dizziness

A

A. Gradual onset of polydipsia and polyuria

87
Q

patients with active tuberculosis should have a room with what?

A

negative airflow

88
Q

A patient with active tuberculosis would arrive to the radiation oncology department under _____ precautions.
A. Contact
B. Airborne
C. Protective
D. Droplet

A

B. Airborne

89
Q

Hospital acquired infections are referred to as ______ infections.
A. Nosocomial
B. Autoimmune
C. Bacterial
D. Drug resistant

A

A. Nosocomial

90
Q

The most effective method of decreasing hospital acquired infections is:
A. Asceptic technique
B. Standard precautions
C. Handwashing
D. Contact precautions

A

C. Handwashing

91
Q

Personal protective equipment used for transmission based precautions include all of the following except:
A. Goggles
B. Gowns
C. Gloves
D. Hair coverings

A

D. Hair coverings

92
Q

Clostridium difficile (C Diff) spread via:
A. Direct contact
B. Droplets
C. Particulate
D. Airborne

A

A. Direct contact

93
Q

what does “atrophy” mean?

A

shrinkage of muscles or nerve tissues

94
Q

what does “fibrosis” mean?

A

tissue remodeling; permanent scar tissue

Patient Care: 1. Patient Interactions and Management (14 decks)

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