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Biochem 2.0 > RBE > Flashcards

RBE Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the ff. gastrointestinal enzyme is being described correctly?

A. Lipase is useful for diagnosis of liver disease
B. SGPT levels are useful in monitoring alcoholic liver disease
C. Amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler ones
D. GGT is involved in the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate

A

C. Amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler ones

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2
Q

What do you call the energy difference between the reactants and the products?

A

Free energy of activation

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3
Q

Complete the pair analogy.

Proteolytic enzyme: zymogen; ________

A. Angiotensinogen; Angiotensin
B. Trypsin; Chrymotrypsinogen
C. Pepsin; Pepsinogen
D. Trypsinogen; Trypsin

A

C. Pepsin; Pepsinogen

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4
Q

What type of enzyme catalyzes the reaction of the conversion of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate?

A

Transferase

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5
Q

Enzymes are highly specific. To what specificity does the catalysis of hydrogen peroxide belong to?

A

Absolute

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6
Q

Which of the following is a false statement?

A. E-P is an enzyme - phosphate complex
B. Enzymes are very specific for substrates
C. Enzymes often use metal ions to assist catalysis
D. Halophilic enzymes are highly active in salt solution.

A

A. E-P is an enzyme - phosphate complex

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7
Q

What physical observation accounts for the action of catalase?

A

C. Formation of bubbles

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8
Q

The following pH levels can lead to denaturation of catalase except?

A. pH 12
B. pH 5
C. pH 2
D. pH 7

A

A. pH 12

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9
Q

Night blindness due to vitamin a deficiency

A

Nyctalopia

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10
Q

Otherwise known as Sunshine Vitamin

A

Vitamin D

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11
Q

What is the function of Vitamin K?

a. needed for proper absorption of calcium
b. exhibit an antihemorrhagic activity needed for proper blood clotting
c. needed for vision, healthy skin and mucous membranes, bones and tooth growth, immune system health
d. none of the choices

A

b. exhibit an antihemorrhagic activity needed for proper blood clotting

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12
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causing burning foot syndrome

A

Vit. B5 - Pantothenic acid

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13
Q

Deficiency of Vitamin C can cause

A

Scurvy

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14
Q

main absorption site of all vitamin

A

liver

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15
Q

the following statements are considered as fat-soluble vitamins. EXCEPT

a. requires protein carrier
b. needed in periodic dosage
c. likely to reach toxic level
d. functions as coenzymes

A

d. functions as coenzymes

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16
Q

which of the following statements are considered water soluble vitamins?

a. deposited mainly in fats
b. can be excreted easily
c. stay longer in the body
d. has higher tendency for toxicity

A

b. can be excreted easily

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17
Q

it is the deficiency of vitamin D in adults

A

osteomalacia

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18
Q

a type of anemia in which the bone marrow produces unusually large, structurally abnormal, immature red blood cells.

A

megaloblastic

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19
Q

the pyruvate is formed in the cytosol after glycolysis it then crosses two mitochondrial membranes and enters which part of the mitochondria where the oxidation occurs?

A

matrix

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20
Q

this is a biochemical process by which NADH is oxidized to NAD+ without the need for oxygen

A

fermentation

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21
Q

this is a metabolic pathway in which glycogen is synthesized from glucose 6-phosphate

A

glycogenesis

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22
Q

on the first step of glycogenesis, the formation of glucose 1-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate is catalyzed by an enzyme called phosphoglucometase. The complete conversion from 6-phosphate to 1-phosphate is a process called _______

A

Isomerization

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23
Q

during glycogenesis, in the formation of UDP-glucose (uridine diphosphate glucose), glucose 1-phosphate must be activated before it can be added to growing chains of glycogen. For this to be possible, a high-energy activator must be added. What is the activator compounds?

A

Uridine triphosphate

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24
Q

in the oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway, how many NADPH molecules are produced per molecule of glucose 6-phosphate?

A

2

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25
Q

Urea is the final product of protein metabolism. Uric acid is the final product of purine oxidation in the body.

A
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26
Q

Test for bile pigments is also called the ______

A

Smith’s test

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27
Q

Benedict’s test is based on the reduction of alkaline solution of cupric ions to cuprous oxide. Diabetes insipidus is a condition whereby the body cannot normally utilize sugar ad consequently a large amount is excreted in the urine

A
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28
Q

test for ketone bodies is also called the _______

A

Gunning’s test

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29
Q

urine creatinine comes from creatinine of the bones. In test for creatinine during urinalysis, a yellow color is formed.

A
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30
Q

one molecule of glycerol is produced after a complete hydrolysis of a triacylglycerol. The glycerol then enters the bloodstream, travelling to the liver or kidneys, and eventually converted to which glycolysis intermediates?

A

Glucose 6-phosphate

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31
Q

It refers to the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols stored in the adipose tissue, followed by release into the blood stream of the fatty acids where glycerol is produced

A

Triacylglycerol mobilization

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32
Q

Hormone sensitive lipase needed for triacylglycerol mobilization is activated by

A

cAMP

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33
Q

A lipoprotein that transport tags from intestinal cells, via the lymphatic system, to the bloodstream.

A

Chylomicron

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34
Q

in the oxidation of fatty acids, carnitine molecule shuttles activated fatty acid molecules across the _______

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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35
Q

where does ketogenesis primarily occurs?

A

liver mitochondria

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36
Q

Which of the following describes the first step of triacylglycerol mobilization?

A. phosphorylation of a primary hydroxyl group of a glycerol
B. oxidation of the secondary alcohol group of glycerol
C. activation of fatty acid by forming a bond with a coenzyme A
D. Transport of fatty acid into the mitochondrial matrix

A

A. phosphorylation of a primary hydroxyl group of a glycerol

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37
Q

What carbon is oxidized rom the carboxyl end of an acyl CoA molecule during B-oxidation?

A

B-carbon

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38
Q

What is the oxidizing agent in the first dehydrogenation step in B-oxidation?

A

FAD

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39
Q

Where the urea cycle occurs

A

Liver

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40
Q

The process by which amino groups are removed from amino acids to a keto acid

A
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41
Q

A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert

A. Phenol into ketones
B. Phenylalanine to lysine
C. Phenylalanine to tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine to isoleucine

A

C. Phenylalanine to tyrosine

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42
Q

Which of these directly donates a nitrogen atom for the formation of urea during the urea cycle?

A. Adenine
B. Creatinine
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamate

A

C. Aspartate

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43
Q

The two fuels for the urea cycle are

A

Carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate

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44
Q

Name the type of cell in which synthesis of the urea cycle takes place

A
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45
Q

Which of these is hereditary disease caused due to an error in amino acid metabolism?

A. albinism
B. homocystinuria
C. phenylketonuria
D. branched chain ketoaciduria

A

C. phenylketonuria

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46
Q

Maple syrup urine disease results from an inborn error in the metabolism of these amino acids…

A

Leucine, isoleucine and valine

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47
Q

glutamate is metabolically converted to a-ketoglutamate and NH4+ by a process described as

A
48
Q

The life span of red blood cell is about four months. Old red blood cells are broken down in the spleen, lungs, and liver.

A

First is true, second is false

49
Q

What color is produced if unsaturated fatty acid is added with tincture of iodine?

A
50
Q

Are all saponifiable lipids, except;

A. triacylglycerides
B. biological waxes
C. Phospholipids
D. Cholesterol

A

D. Cholesterol

51
Q

This test yields a brick red precipitate with the addition of bismuth subnitrate and potassium iodide. Also, this is a test for Choline.

A

Kraut’s Test

52
Q

One of the two sulfur-containing amino acids has a nonpolar thioether group in its side chain

A

Methionine

53
Q

Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called ______

A

Essential amino acid

54
Q

Which of the following are the branched-chain amino acids responsible for the characteristic “sweet smell” of the urine in patients with “Maple Syrup Urine Disease”?

A. LIV
B. LAV
C. KAV
D. KIV

A
55
Q

Which of the fibrous proteins is an important structural component of arterial blood vessels and ligaments?

A

Elastin

56
Q

A small peptide hormone that regulates the excretion of water by the kidneys and also affects blood pressure.

A. Enkephalins
B. Vasopressin
C. SIADH
D. Oxytocin

A

B. Vasopressin

57
Q

_____ is a mixture of two proteins, glutenin and gliadin

A

Gluten

58
Q

_____ is an immune reaction to eating gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye

A
59
Q

______ is also caused by trichomonads, a group of parasitic protozoans, specifically Trichomonas vaginalis.

A
60
Q

this alcohol concentration have greater germicidal effects

A
61
Q

he discovered nucleic acids in 1869 while studying the nuclei of white blood cells.

A

Friedrich Miescher

62
Q

The following are correct descriptions for B-DNA, EXCEPT FOR

A. its major groove goes wide and deep
B. It has 10 base pairs per helical turn
C. Its helix turn goes left
D. Its minor groove goes narrow and deep

A

C. Its helix turn goes left

63
Q

The two strands of DNA are running in a ______ position.

A. Parallel
B. Same
C. Antiparallel
D. Both A and C

A
64
Q

The sugar involved in DNA

A. Ribose
B. Xylose
C. Glucose
D. Deoxyribose

A

D. Deoxyribose

65
Q

This is the base sequence for the start codon

A

AUG

66
Q

Start codon stands for what amino acids

A

Met

67
Q

this enzyme causes unwinding of DNA double-helix structure under replication

A

DNA helicase

68
Q

This type of mutation is a change in one DNA base pair that results in the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein made by a gene.

A

Missense mutation

69
Q

which of the ff. are purine bases?

A. Adenine and thymine
B. Adenine and guanine
C. Cytosine and thymine
D. Cytosine and uracil

A

B. Adenine and guanine

70
Q

These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA replication.

A

Primer

71
Q

T/F: Missense is a change in amino acid sequence specified by codon. Frame shift mutation is the addition/deletion of nucleotide.

A
72
Q

All are types of nitrogen bases except:

A. T
B. C
C. A
D. Y

A

D. Y

73
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Central dogma is the proposed flow of genetic information from RNA to DNA to protein.

A

False

74
Q

Chromosomal mutation which involves reinsertion of a broken chromosomal segment in reverse order.

A

Inversion

75
Q

True or False:

Pair of nitrogen bases: adenine is always paired with cytosine and guanine and is always paired with thymine.

A

False

76
Q

series of biochemical reactions in which electrons and hydrogen ions from NADH and FADH2 are passed to intermediate carriers and then ultimately react with molecular oxygen to produce water.

A

Electron transport chain

77
Q

how many molecules of pyruvate produced in glycolysis?

A

2

78
Q

Citric acid cycle occurs in ____

A

mitochondria

79
Q

biochemical process by which food molecules through hydrolysis, are broken down into simpler chemical units that can be used by cells for their metabolic needs.

A

Digestion

80
Q

primary energy carriers in metabolic pathways.

A

ATP

81
Q

which of the ff statements about metabolism is CORRECT?

A. metabolism is the sum total of all the biochemical reactions that take place in a living organism.
B. anabolic reaction sequences usually produce energy
C. a metabolic pathway may only be cyclic in which a series of reaction sequences usually produce energy
D. the process of polysaccharide digestion is an anabolic process.

A

A. metabolism is the sum total of all the biochemical reactions that take place in a living organism.

82
Q

In which of the ff. listings of citric acid cycle intermediates are the compounds listed in the order in which they are encountered in a turn of the cycle?

A. citrate, oxaloacetate, fumarate
B. isocitrate, succinyl CoA, oxaloacetate
C. fumarate, malate, alpha-ketoglutarate
D. oxaloacetate, succinate, citrate

A
83
Q

At which protein complex site in the electron transport chain does proton pumping occur?

A. protein complex I
B. protein complex II
C. protein complex III
D. both I and III

A

D. both I and III

84
Q

the total ATP produced (new version 1.5 or 2.5 equivalent) of the entire metabolic reactions of 1 molecule of glucose.

A

32

85
Q

Odd man out. Choose the wrong pair here.

A. Complex I: NADH-coenzyme Q reductase
B. Complex II: Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase
C. Complex III: ATP Synthase complex
D. Complex IV: Cytochrome C oxidase

A

C. Complex III. ATP Synthase complex

86
Q

Which of the following statement describe an anabolic reaction?

A. releases energy
B. proteins becoming amino acids
C. glucose forming glyxgen
D. none of the choices

A

Glucose forming glycogen

87
Q

which of the following event represents an absorptive state?

A. aka fasting state
B. release of insulin initiating hepatic absorption of glucose
c. blood glucose level drops as absorbed and used by the cell
d. body rely initially on stored glycogen

A

B. release of insulin initiating hepatic absorption of glucose

88
Q

the postabsorptive state relies on stores of ______ in the _______.

A

Glycogen, liver

89
Q

Salivary amylase, in breaking polysaccharides like starch, is active at which part of the digestive system.

A
90
Q

which of the ff statement does NOT represent the state of starvation?

a. deprived of nourishment for an extended period
b. conservation of amino acids for proteins
c. use of ketone bodies of energy
d. survival mode
e. nota

A

b. conservation of amino acids for proteins

91
Q

the primary site for carbohydrate is located in the small intestine. In this phase of carbohydrate digestion, the enzyme a-amylase aids digestion again. What organ does the a-amylase enzyme come from?

A

pancreas

92
Q

the primary site for carbohydrate is located in the small intestine. In this phase of carbohydrate digestion, the enzyme a-amylase aids digestion again. What organ does the a-amylase enzyme come from?

A

pancreas

93
Q

in the first step of the six-carbon stage of glycolysis, phosphorylation of glucose occurs to yield glucose-6-phosphate with the help of what enzyme?

A

Hexokinase

94
Q

in step 8 of glycolysis, during the isomerization of 3-phosphoglycerate, the phosphate group is moved from C3 to C2. What enzyme catalyzes this process.

A

Phosphoglyceromutase

95
Q

what is the end-product of glycolysis in aerobic conditions?

A

acetyl CoA

96
Q

the branch of science that explored the chemical processes within and related to living organisms

A

Biochemistry

97
Q

organelle that is present and used for protein synthesis

A

ribosome

98
Q

nucleolus is present in both animal and plant cell. Cilia and Filaments is present in both animal and plant cell.

A
99
Q

building block of carbohydrates

A

monosaccharides

100
Q

also known as galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency

A

galactosemia

101
Q

_____ are stereoisomers of cyclized monosaccharides molecules differing only in the configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl carbon

A

epimers

102
Q

which of the ff statements is/are true?

a. amylose is a long, unbranched polymer with a-1,4 bonds
b. amylopectin has both a-1,4 and a-1,6 bonds
c. starch consists of a greater proportion of amylopectin than amylose
d. all of the choices

A
103
Q

which of the ff is a homopolymer of N-acetyl-B-D-glucosamine whose best-known function is in invertebrate animals?

a. xylan
b. peptidoglycan
c. hyaluronic acid
d. chitin

A

c. hyaluronic acid

104
Q

which of the ff. accurately describes Barfoed’s test?

a. general test for carbohydrates
b. test for ketosis
c. specific test for galactose
d. test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides

A

d. test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides

105
Q

also known as kowarsky test

A

Osazone formation test

106
Q

this test is specific for pentoses and the compounds containing pentoses and thus useful for the determination of pentose sugars.

A

Bial’s Orcinol

107
Q

Benedict’s reagent is composed of:

A

Copper sulfate pentahydrate, sodium carbonate and sodium citrate

108
Q

the diff. between Benedict’s and Barfoed’s test reagent lies in the pH of the solution used. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. benedict’s test is maintained in acidic conditions and barfoed’s test is maintained in basic conditions
b. beneditc’s test is maintaned in basic conditions
c. both are maintained in neutral conditions
d. aota

A
109
Q

these are organic compounds found in the living organism that is insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar solvents?

A
110
Q

all are functions of lipids except:

a. they serve as thermal insulators
b. they are essential in small amounts for the proper functioning of human body
c. they are structural components of the cell membranes
d. serves as precursor for hormones

A
111
Q

T or F:

saturated fatty acids is also knwon as “bad fat”. While monounsaturated fats are called “good fat”

A

Both are true

112
Q

which of the ff choices does not have the right pairing?

a. membrane lipid: eicosanoids
b. messenger lipid: sex hormones
c. energy storage lipid: triacylglyceroll
d. emulsification lipid: bile acids

A

a. membrane lipid: eicosanoids

113
Q

a disease characterized by accumulation of galactocerebrosides with mental and motor deterioration and blindness and deafness

A

Krabbe disease

114
Q

saponification is the hydrolysis or oils under basic conditions to afford glycerol and the salt of the corresponding fatty acid. all are formed or precipitated except for:

a. sodium chloride
b. sodium stearate
c. sodium oleate
d. sodium palmitate

A
115
Q

In acrolein test for lipids, what odor is observed?

A

Pungent odor

Biochem 2.0 (10 decks)

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