RBC and Bleeding, Lung and Pleura, Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Differentials for microcytic anemia (MCV <80 fL)

A

TAILS
*Thalassemia
*Anemia of chronic inflammation
*Iron deficiency anemia
*Lead poisoning
*Sideroblastic anemia

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2
Q

Splenomegaly in the case of hemolytic anemia can be seen in what type of hemolysis?

A

*Extravascular hemolysis
*Chronic hemolysis

For intravascular and acute, usually hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria due to hemoglobin being liberated inside the blood vessel (soon be cleared by kidney)

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3
Q

Defect in hereditary spherocytosis

A

Intrinsic - defect in membrane skeleton (spectrin, ankyrin, Band 3, Band 4.2) making them less deformable and easily lysed in spleen due to entrapment there

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4
Q

Etiology of G6PD

A

Intrinsic - G6PD deficiency –> ↓ NADPH –> ↓ reduced glutathione –> ↑ RBC susceptibility to oxidative stress

Triggers: infections, drugs, foods

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5
Q

Cell findings in G6PD

A

Heinz bodies (precipitated denatured Hb) - asplenic
Bite cells - intact spleen
Spherocytes

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6
Q

Etiology of Sickle cell disease

A

Autosomal recessive (SA is asymptomatic, SS is symptomatic)

Intrinsic: 6th codon of B-globin chain has point mutation (glutamate –> valine) –> hemoglobin S (HbS)

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7
Q

Situations favoring sickling of RBCs in Sickle cell disease

A

↓ intracellular pH
↓ O2 tension

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8
Q

Lab findings in Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Microcytic anemia
Target cell
Sickle cell
↓ HbA
↑ HbS

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9
Q

Thalassemia general etiology and pathogenesis

A

Etiology
↓ Globin chains –> ↓ Hb synthesis –> anemia

Pathogenesis
↓ in one globin chain –> excess of other globin chain –>precipitate inclusions –> membrane damage –> apoptosis within marrow –> anemia

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10
Q

Thalassemia morphology and lab:
CBC:
PBS:
Skull X-ray:
Others:

A

CBC: Microcytic hypochromic
PBS:Poikilocytosis, anisocytosis, Target cells
Skull xray: Crew cut appearance
Secondary hemochromatosis (liver, pancreas, heart)

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11
Q

Etiology:
Beta Thalassemia
Alpha Thalassemia

A

Beta thalassemia:
B-globin mutations (2 copies in Chromosome 11)

Alpha thalassemia:
A-globin gene deletions (4 copies in Chromosome 16)

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12
Q

Beta thalassemia that is transfusion dependent

A

Beta thalassemia major (2 mutated)

*Beta thalassemia intermedia (variable mutated), transfusion in special situations
*Beta thalassemia minor (1 mutated), asymptomatic or mild

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13
Q

Alpha thalassemia trait, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

2

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14
Q

HbH, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

3
(B4)

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15
Q

Hydrops fetalis, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

4
(γ4)

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16
Q

When does anemia occur in those with Beta thalassemia? How about Alpha thalassemia

A

Beta thalassemia: 6-9 months after birth (shift from HbF –> HbA)
Alpha thalassemia: At birth (need of alpha globin chains even for HbF)

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17
Q

Why is Alpha thalassemia less severe than Beta thalassemia?

A

Because it only misses B-globin chains (and γ-globin chains) which are more soluble than a chains –> lesser inclusions –> ↓ membrane damage –> ↓ apoptosis in marrow –> less severe anemia

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18
Q

Defect in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

A

PIGA mutations –> ↓ GPI anchor –> ↓ CD55, CD59, C8 binding protein –> ↑ susceptibility to complement mediated lysis

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19
Q

Antibody in Warm-Antibody Type Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A

IgG active at 37C

*Associated with SLE, drugs, CLL

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20
Q

Antibody in Cold Agglutinin Disease

A

IgM active at <37C

*Associated with infections of Mycoplasma pneumoniae, CMV, EBV, HIV, and CLL

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21
Q

Antibody in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

A

IgG Anti P (Donath-Landsteiner antibody)

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22
Q

Coomb’s test that detects antibodies present in patient’s serum

A

Indirect Coombs’ Test
Used for compatibility testing, bloodbank etc.

*Direct Coombs’ Test detects antibodies attached to RBCs
ex: Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

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23
Q

Type of hemolysis in Cell finding in Hemolytic Anemia 2ndary to red cell trauma

A

Intravascular due to sheer stress

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24
Q

Cell finding in Hemolytic Anemia 2ndary to red cell trauma

A

Schistocytes (fragmented red cell)
Echinocytes (Burr cell)

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25
Q

General pathogenesis of megaloblastic anemia

A

Impaired DNA synthesis –> ineffective hematopoiesis –> premature death of precursor cells –> Peripheral blood cytopenias

*Morphology: Hypercellular marrow with megaloblastoid changes

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26
Q

Chem finding in Vitamin B12 deficiency (Pernicious anemia)

A

↑ Homocysteine
↑ Methylmalonate

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27
Q

Between Vitamin B12 deficiency and Vitamin B9 deficiency, __________________ has neurologic symptoms

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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28
Q

Chem finding in Vitamin B9 deficiency

A

↑ Homocysteine
NORMAL Methylmalonate

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29
Q

Iron studies: IDA

A

↓ Fe
↑ TIBC
↓ Ferritin

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30
Q

Iron studies: Anemia of Chronic Inflammation

A

↓ Fe
↓ TIBC
↑ Ferritin

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31
Q

Normal values
MCV
MCH
MCHC

A

MCV: 80-100
MCH: 26-32
MCHC: 32-36

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32
Q

Variability in red cell size

A

Anisocytosis

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33
Q

Variability in red cell shape

A

Poikilocytosis

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34
Q

Etiology and pathogenesis of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

A

Deficient ADAMTS13 —> inc vWF polymers —> inc platelet activation —> inc thrombosis —> microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

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35
Q

Clinical features of TTP

A

FATRN
Fever
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal failure
Neurologic deficits

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36
Q

Etiology of ITP

A

Anti GpIIB/IIIA and Gp1b/IX IgG

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37
Q

HUS pathogenesis

A

Typical: E. Coli O157:H7 (Shiga-like toxin)
Atypical: complement activation inhibitors deficiency

*thrombocytopenia, anemia, renal failure
*Normal ADAMTS13 levels

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38
Q

DISORDER OF PLT FXN: Autosomal recessive inherited GpIIB/IIIa deficiency (problem in plt aggregation)
*inc BT, N PC

A

Glanzmann Thrombastenia

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39
Q

DISORDER OF PLT FXN: Autosomal recessive inherited GPIB/IX deficiency (problem in plt adhesion)
*inc BT, dec PC

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome (BSS)/Giant Platelet Syndrome

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40
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand Disease
(Autosomal dominant)
vWF factor deficiency —> FVIII deficiency
*inc BT, inc aPTT, normal PT

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41
Q

Most common hereditary disease associated with life-threatening complications

A

Hemophilia
(X-linked recessive)
A: Factor VIII deficiency
B: Xmas dse; Factor IX deficiency
C: Factor XI deficiency
Normal BT and PT, inc aPTT

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42
Q

Treatmed for vWD

A

Desmopressin
Factor VIII replacement

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43
Q

Heyde syndrome triad

A

Aortic stenosis
GI bleeding
Acquired vWD

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44
Q

DIC + Giant Hemangiomas

A

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

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45
Q

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage in meningococcemia

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

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46
Q

Acute DIC manifestation

A

Bleeding

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47
Q

Chronic DIC manifestation

A

Thrombosis

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48
Q

Most common indication for lung transplantation

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

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49
Q

Masson bodies

A

Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia

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50
Q

Particle size most dangerous for pneumoconiosis

A

1-5 um (smaller particles can reach distal airways)

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51
Q

Exposure to what element causes silicosis

A

Silica (Quartz)
*building
*road demolition
*stone carvers
*jewellers

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52
Q

Exposure to roof insulation predisposes to

A

Asbestos

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53
Q

Silicosis affects the ________ lobes of the lungs while asbestosis affects the __________ lobes of the lungs

A

Upper; lower

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54
Q

Laminated concretions seen in sarcoidosis

A

Schaumann bodies

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55
Q

Stellate inclusions seen in sarcoidosis

A

Asteroid bodies

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56
Q

Most common organs involved in sarcoidosis

A

Lymph nodes (hilar and mediastinal) > lung

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57
Q

A lung condition that can look like pneumonia but does not resolve with antibiotics

A

Acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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58
Q

Macrophages with dusty brown pigment seen in smoking-related interstitial diseases (Desquamative interstitial pneumonia and respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial lung disease)

A

Smoker’s macrophages

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59
Q

WHO classification of pulmonary HTN secondary to autoimmune dse (BMPR2 mutations)

A

Group 1

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60
Q

WHO classification of pulmonary HTN secondary to unclear and multifactorial mechanisms

A

Group 5

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61
Q

Pulmonary hypertension has a mean pulmonary artery pressure of _________ mmHg at rest

A

> = 25 mmHg

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62
Q

Most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbations of COPD, otitis media and pink eye in children

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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63
Q

Bacterial cause of pneumonia in the elderly, and 2nd most common cause of acute exacerbations of COPD

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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64
Q

Secondary bacterial pneumonia post-viral respiratory illnesses (measles and influenza)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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65
Q

Most common cause of gram negative beacterial pneumonia, in chronic alcoholics, and with currant jelly like sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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66
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are heavy
and boggy; Vascular
engorgement, intra-alveolar
fluid with few neutrophils,
numerous bacteria

A

Congestion

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67
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are red, firm,
airless with a liver-like
consistency. (+) intra alveolar
PMNs, RBCs, fibrin

A

Red hepatization

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68
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are grayish brown lobe, progressive RBC disintegration, with fibrinosuppurative exudate

A

Gray hepatization

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69
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where exudate is broken down by enzymatic digestion into granular, semifluid debris

A

Resolution

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70
Q

Microscopic finding of the
lungs in bronchopneumonia

A

Neutrophilic rich exudate within airways

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71
Q

Most common symptoms of lung carcinoma

A

Cough > Wt loss > Chest pain > Dyspnea

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72
Q

Distant spread of lung carcinoma organs affected

A

ALBB
Adrenals
Liver
Brain
Bone

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73
Q

Most common mutations in nonsmokers with adenocarcinoma

A

EGFR

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74
Q

Adenocarcinoma mutation with worst prognosis

A

KRAS

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75
Q

IHC stain in lung adenocarcinoma

A

(+) TTF-1, Napsin A

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76
Q

Lung carcinomas that have a central site of predilection

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Carcinoid/endocrine tumor

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77
Q

Lung carcinomas that have a peripheral site of predilection

A

Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Carcinoid/endocrine tumor

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78
Q

Mutations in Squamous cell carcinoma of lung

A

TP53, CDKN2A, FGFR-1

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79
Q

IHC stain in squamous cell carcinoma of lung

A

(+) p40, p63

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80
Q

Mutations in Small cell carcinoma of lung

A

(+) TP53, RB

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81
Q

Lung carcinomas with salt and pepper chromatin

A

Small cell carcinoma (inc mitosis)
Carcinoid/neuroendocrine tumor (dec mitosis)

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82
Q

Carcinoids arise from

A

Kulchitsky cells (neuroendocrine cells on basement membrane of bronchi/bronchioles)

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83
Q

A tumor that encases the lung

A

Diffuse pleural mesothelioma

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84
Q

> 95% of adult hemoglobin is
composed of this type

A

HbA1/HbA (Adult
hemoglobin): α2β2

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85
Q

Type of hemolytic anemia
that occurs due to inherent
defects in red cells

A

Intrinsic hemolysis

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86
Q

Type of hemolysis that occurs
in the spleen

A

Extravascular hemolysis

87
Q

Clinical features observed in
intravascular hemolysis

A

Hemoglobinemia,
Hemoglobinuria,
Hemosiderinuria

88
Q

Viral infection associated
with aplastic crisis

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

89
Q

Most likely diagnosis in a
patient presenting with
jaundice and gallstones; Lab
findings include ↑ MCHC, ↑
RBC osmotic fragility

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

90
Q

Most common trigger of red
cell hemolysis in G6PD
deficiency

91
Q

Precipitated denatured
hemoglobin seen in G6PD
deficiency

A

Heinz bodies

92
Q

Having G6PD deficiency
and/or sickle cell trait is
protective against which
parasitic infection

93
Q

Pattern of inheritance of
sickle cell anemia

A

Autosomal recessive

94
Q

Etiology of sickle cell anemia

A

Point mutation in the β-
globin gene (glu→val)

95
Q

Most common cause of
morbidity and mortality in
sickle cell anemia

A

Vaso-occlusive (Pain)
crises

96
Q

Autosplenectomy causes
increased susceptibility to
which type of organisms

A

encapsulated organisms (S.
pneumoniae and H.
influenzae)

97
Q

Beta-thalassemia syndrome
with 2 mutated β globin
genes in chromosome 11

A

β- thalassemia major

98
Q

Alpha-thalassemia syndrome
with 3 deleted α-globin gene
mutations

A

HbH disease

99
Q

Alpha-thalassemia syndrome
with 4 deleted α-globin gene
mutations

A

Hydrops fetalis

100
Q

Red cell surface proteins
absent in patients with
paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria which
increases susceptibility to
complement-mediated lysis

A

CD55, CD59

101
Q

Most common cause of
disease-related death in PNH

A

Venous thrombosis

102
Q

Most common form of
immunohemolytic anemia;
Associated with autoimmune
diseases (SLE), Lymphoid
neoplasms (CLL)

A

Warm Autoimmune
Hemolytic Anemia
(WAIHA)

103
Q

Type of antibody in WAIHA

A

IgG active at 37°C

104
Q

Infections associated with
cold agglutinin disease

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae,
EBV, CMV, HIV

105
Q

Type of antibody in CAD

A

IgM active below 37°C

106
Q

Disease-causing antibody in
paroxysmal cold
hemoglobinuria, which is
common in children postviral
infection

A

IgG anti-P (Donath-
Landsteiner antibody)

107
Q

Possible deficient vitamins in
patients with megaloblastic
anemia

A

Vitamin B12, B9

108
Q

Gastrectomy and
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis causes vitamin B12
deficiency due to the absence
of

A

Intrinsic factor

109
Q

Parasite that competes with
vitamin B12 absorption

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

110
Q

Features that differentiate
Vitamin B12 deficiency from
Vitamin B9 deficiency

A

(+) neurologic symptoms
due to subacute combined
degeneration of spinal cord
+ ↑ methylmalonate
(normal in Vit B9
deficiency)

111
Q

DMARD used in the
management of RA that
causes Vitamin B9 deficiency

A

Methotrexate (a folate
antagonist)

112
Q

Most common nutritional
disorder in the world

A

Iron deficiency anemia

113
Q

Peptide hormone increased
in anemia of chronic disease
that prevents mobilization of
stored iron

114
Q

BMA: Hypocellular marrow
with fat cells and scattered
lymphocytes and plasma
cells; CBC:Pancytopenia with
normocytic, normochromic
anemia

A

Aplastic anemia

115
Q

Most common cause of
aplastic anemia

116
Q

(+) Parvovirus B19
infection/autoimmune
disease; BMA: Absent
erythroblasts with normal
granulocytic and
megakaryocytic lineages

A

Pure red cell aplasia

117
Q

Space-occupying lesions
displace bone marrow
elements

A

Myelophthisic anemia

118
Q

Most common cause of secondary
myelophthisic anemia

A

Metastasis

119
Q

A 5-year-old patient presents
with multiple petechiae. He
had a URTI 3 days ago and
has no significant medical
history. CBC: Low platelets

A

Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP)

120
Q

Etiology of immune
thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Anti-GPIIb-IIIa and GPIb-IX
(80%) IgG

121
Q

Form of ITP that is more
common in adults and is
associated with SLE, HIV, CLL

A

Chronic ITP

122
Q

Thrombotic disease that
occurs due to decreased
ADAMTS13 level or activity

A

Thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
(TTP)

123
Q

Action of ADAMTS12

A

Degrades von Willebrand
factor (vWF) multimers

124
Q

Causative agent of typical
hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

E. coli O157:H7

125
Q

Autosomal recessive
inherited GPIb/IX deficiency;
defective platelet adhesion

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
/ Giant Platelet Syndrome

126
Q

Autosomal recessive
inherited GPIIb/IIIa
deficiency; defective platelet
aggregation

A

Glanzmann
Thrombasthenia

127
Q

Most common inherited
bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand Disease

128
Q

Clinical and laboratory
features of VWD

A

Mucocutaneous>Internal
bleeding, ↑ BT, ↑ aPTT,
Normal PT

129
Q

Most common hereditary
disease associated with lifethreatening
bleeding

A

Hemophilia

130
Q

Christmas Disease

A

Hemophilia B (Factor IX
deficiency)

131
Q

Most common adverse
transfusion reaction

A

Febrile non-hemolytic
anemia

132
Q

Most common reaction in
platelet transfusions

A

Allergic reactions

133
Q

Transfusion-transmitted
infections are more common
in this blood product due to
its storage at room
temperature

A

Platelet concentrate

134
Q

Type of atelectasis due to
airway obstruction

A

Resorption atelectasis

135
Q

Type of atelectasis associated
with fluid, air, or mass inside
the pleural cavity

A

Compression atelectasis

136
Q

Type of atelectasis that occurs
as a result of
pulmonary/pleural fibrosis

A

Contraction atelectasis

137
Q

Abrupt onset of hypoxemia
and bilateral pulmonary
edema in the absence of heart
failure

A

Acute lung injury

138
Q

Histologic hallmark for the
acute phase of acute
respiratory distress
syndrome

A

Diffuse Alveolar Damage

139
Q

Irreversible enlargement of
airspaces distal to terminal
bronchiole

140
Q

Type of emphysema
associated with smoking

A

Centriacinar

141
Q

Type of emphysema
associated with α-1-
antitrypsin deficiency

142
Q

Type of emphysema
associated with spontaneous
pneumothorax in young
adults

A

Distal acinar (Paraseptal)

143
Q

Persistent cough with sputum
production for at least 3
months in at least 2
consecutive years in the
absence of any other cause

A

Chronic bronchitis

144
Q

Ratio of thickness of the
mucus gland layer to the wall
thickness

A

Reid index (N = 0.4)

145
Q

Chronic inflammatory airway
disease that produces
episodic variable expiratory
airflow obstruction

146
Q

Extruded mucus plugs seen in
sputum examination of
asthmatic patients

A

Curschmann’s spiral

147
Q

Microscopic crystals made up
of galectin-10 from
eosinophils

A

Charcot-Leyden crystals

148
Q

A known cystic fibrosis
patient presents with severe,
persistent cough with foulsmelling
mucopurulent
sputum. Episodes of
hemoptysis were also noted.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Bronchiectasis

149
Q

Bronchiectasis, Sinusitis, Situs
inversus, Sperm dysmotility

A

Kartagener syndrome

150
Q

Clinicopathologic syndrome
marked by progressive
interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
and respiratory failure; (+)
Honeycomb fibrosis

A

Idiopathic pulmonary
fibrosis (IPF)

151
Q

Most important
environmental factor of IPF

A

Cigarette smoking

152
Q

Black discoloration of the
bronchi due to carbon
deposits; accentuated in coal
workers’ pneumoconiosis

A

Anthracosis

153
Q

Most common
pneumoconiosis and chronic
occupational disease
worldwide; (+) Eggshell
calcifications in lymph nodes

154
Q

Hallmark of silicosis

A

Whorled collagen fibers
surrounded by dust-laden
macrophages

155
Q

Most common manifestation
of asbestosis

A

Pleural plaques

156
Q

Golden brown rods with
translucent core containing
asbestos coated with an ironprotein
complex

A

Asbestos bodies

157
Q

X-ray finding in sarcoidosis

A

Bilateral hilar adenopathy

158
Q

WHO classification of
pulmonary HTN secondary to
thromboembolism

159
Q

Most common cause of
community- acquired acute
pneumonia and lobar
pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

160
Q

Bacteria associated with
hospital-acquired infections,
cystic fibrosis and
neutropenic patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

161
Q

Viral pneumonia linked to
Parkinson’s disease later in
life

A

Influenza virus type A

162
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are heavy
and boggy; Vascular
engorgement, intra-alveolar
fluid with few neutrophils,
numerous bacteria

A

Congestion

163
Q

Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are red, firm,
airless with a liver-like
consistency. (+) intra alveolar
PMNs, RBCs, fibrin

A

Red Hepatization

164
Q

Microscopic finding of the
lungs in viral pneumonia

A

Interstitial mononuclear
inflammation

165
Q

Most common cause of lung
abscess

A

Aspiration

166
Q

Most common primary lung
tumor

A

Lung carcinoma

167
Q

Type of lung carcinoma
associated with
paraneoplastic syndromes;
strongest association with
smoking

A

Small cell carcinoma

168
Q

Most common histologic type
of lung cancer; most common
type in never smokers;
peripheral in location

A

Adenocarcinoma

169
Q

Type of lung cancer that is
central in location; (+)
keratinization, keratin pearls,
intercellular bridges

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

170
Q

IHC stains positive in
carcinoid tumor

A

Synaptophysin,
Chromogranin

171
Q

Cannon-ball lesions or
multiple discrete lesions in
the lung is typical of

A

Metastatic neoplasm

172
Q

Most common cause of noninflammatory
transudative
effusions

A

Congestive heart failure

173
Q

Mechanism of pleural effusion
in CHF

A

↑Capillary hydrostatic
pressure

174
Q

Type of effusion associated
with radiation, autoimmune
disease, uremia

A

Serous, serofibrinous,
fibrinous

175
Q

Type of effusion associated
with thoracic duct trauma

176
Q

Pneumothorax sufficient to
cause circulatory collapse due
to compression of mediastinal
structures

A

Tension pneumothorax

177
Q

Type of pneumothorax that
occur due to rupture of
subpleural blebs in young
patients

A

Spontaneous idiopathic
pneumothorax

178
Q

Most common pleural tumors

A

Secondary tumors (common
sources: lung, breast)

179
Q

Most common cause of tooth
loss < 35 years old

A

Dental caries

180
Q

Associated conditions with
recurrent/persistent
aphthous ulcers

A

Celiac disease,
Inflammatory bowel
disease, Behçet disease,
immunocompromised

181
Q

Most common fungal
infection of oral cavity

A

Candida albicans

182
Q

White pseudomembrane that
can be scraped off

183
Q

A white patch or plaque that
cannot be scraped off and
cannot be characterized
clinically or pathologically as
any other disease

A

Leukoplakia

184
Q

Most common head and neck
cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

185
Q

Etiology of oral cavity SCCa

A

Tobacco, Alcohol, Betel
chewing, Sunlight, Pipe
smoking

186
Q

Most common site of local
metastasis of oral cavity SCCa

A

Cervical lymph nodes

187
Q

Etiology of oropharyngeal
SCCa

A

High-risk HPV

188
Q

Odontogenic cysts located in
impacted/unerupted tooth

A

Dentigirous cyst

189
Q

Condition associated with
multiple odontogenic
keratocyst

A

Gorlin syndrome (Nevoid
basal cell carcinoma
syndrome)

190
Q

Odontogenic cyst associated
with history of dental
caries/trauma; location: apex
of non-viable tooth

A

Radicular cyst

191
Q

Most common odontogenic
tumor

192
Q

A patient presents with a
mass on the right mandible
in the posterior molar area.
Biopsy: epithelial cells
palisading around a stellate
reticulum.

A

Ameloblastoma

193
Q

Most common cause of
bacterial
pharyngitis/tonsillitis

A

Group A beta-hemolytic
streptococci (GABHS)

194
Q

An adolescent male presents
with recurrent epistaxis and
nasal obstruction. A mass
was seen in the posterior
roof of the nasal cavity

A

Sinonasal tract
angiofibroma

195
Q

Virus associated with
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(NPCA)

A

Epstein-Barr virus

196
Q

Most common location of
NPCA

A

Rosenmuller fossa

197
Q

Most radiosensitive type of
NPCA

A

Undifferentiated NPCA

198
Q

Laryngeal lesion associated
with voice abuse

A

Reactive nodules

199
Q

Most common benign
laryngeal epithelial tumor

A

Squamous papilloma

200
Q

Etiology of laryngeal
papilloma

A

Low-risk HPV (6 and 11)

201
Q

Common bacterial causes of
acute otitis media

A

S. pneumoniae, H.
influenzae, M. catarrhalis

202
Q

Origin of branchial cleft cyst

A

2nd branchial arch
remnant

203
Q

Most common cause of
xerostomia

A

Drugs (Anticholinergics,
Antihistamines,
Antipsychotics,
Antidepressants)

204
Q

Most common inflammatory
salivary gland lesion

205
Q

Salivary gland lesions that
occurs following sublingual
duct damage

206
Q

Most common viral
sialadenitis

207
Q

Bacterial sialadenitis can
occur in the presence of

A

Sialolithiasis

208
Q

Most common salivary gland
tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma or
benign mixed tumor

209
Q

Salivary gland tumor
associated with smoking;
Morphology: papillary
structures with central
lymphoid stroma covered by
double layer of oncocytic
cells

A

Warthin Tumor

210
Q

Most common primary
malignant salivary gland
tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma

211
Q

Most common location of
pleomorphic adenoma,
mucoepidermoid carcinoma,
and Warthin tumor

A

Parotid gland

212
Q

A cancer arising from a
primary or recurrent
pleomorphic adenoma

A

Carcinoma ex pleomorphic
adenoma

213
Q

Most common location of
adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

Minor (palatine) glands

214
Q

Most common form of
adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

Cribriform