RBC and Bleeding, Lung and Pleura, Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Differentials for microcytic anemia (MCV <80 fL)

A

TAILS
*Thalassemia
*Anemia of chronic inflammation
*Iron deficiency anemia
*Lead poisoning
*Sideroblastic anemia

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2
Q

Splenomegaly in the case of hemolytic anemia can be seen in what type of hemolysis?

A

*Extravascular hemolysis
*Chronic hemolysis

For intravascular and acute, usually hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria due to hemoglobin being liberated inside the blood vessel (soon be cleared by kidney)

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3
Q

Defect in hereditary spherocytosis

A

Intrinsic - defect in membrane skeleton (spectrin, ankyrin, Band 3, Band 4.2) making them less deformable and easily lysed in spleen due to entrapment there

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4
Q

Etiology of G6PD

A

Intrinsic - G6PD deficiency –> ↓ NADPH –> ↓ reduced glutathione –> ↑ RBC susceptibility to oxidative stress

Triggers: infections, drugs, foods

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5
Q

Cell findings in G6PD

A

Heinz bodies (precipitated denatured Hb) - asplenic
Bite cells - intact spleen
Spherocytes

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6
Q

Etiology of Sickle cell disease

A

Autosomal recessive (SA is asymptomatic, SS is symptomatic)

Intrinsic: 6th codon of B-globin chain has point mutation (glutamate –> valine) –> hemoglobin S (HbS)

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7
Q

Situations favoring sickling of RBCs in Sickle cell disease

A

↓ intracellular pH
↓ O2 tension

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8
Q

Lab findings in Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Microcytic anemia
Target cell
Sickle cell
↓ HbA
↑ HbS

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9
Q

Thalassemia general etiology and pathogenesis

A

Etiology
↓ Globin chains –> ↓ Hb synthesis –> anemia

Pathogenesis
↓ in one globin chain –> excess of other globin chain –>precipitate inclusions –> membrane damage –> apoptosis within marrow –> anemia

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10
Q

Thalassemia morphology and lab:
CBC:
PBS:
Skull X-ray:
Others:

A

CBC: Microcytic hypochromic
PBS:Poikilocytosis, anisocytosis, Target cells
Skull xray: Crew cut appearance
Secondary hemochromatosis (liver, pancreas, heart)

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11
Q

Etiology:
Beta Thalassemia
Alpha Thalassemia

A

Beta thalassemia:
B-globin mutations (2 copies in Chromosome 11)

Alpha thalassemia:
A-globin gene deletions (4 copies in Chromosome 16)

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12
Q

Beta thalassemia that is transfusion dependent

A

Beta thalassemia major (2 mutated)

*Beta thalassemia intermedia (variable mutated), transfusion in special situations
*Beta thalassemia minor (1 mutated), asymptomatic or mild

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13
Q

Alpha thalassemia trait, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

2

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14
Q

HbH, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

3
(B4)

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15
Q

Hydrops fetalis, how many alpha globin gene deletions

A

4
(γ4)

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16
Q

When does anemia occur in those with Beta thalassemia? How about Alpha thalassemia

A

Beta thalassemia: 6-9 months after birth (shift from HbF –> HbA)
Alpha thalassemia: At birth (need of alpha globin chains even for HbF)

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17
Q

Why is Alpha thalassemia less severe than Beta thalassemia?

A

Because it only misses B-globin chains (and γ-globin chains) which are more soluble than a chains –> lesser inclusions –> ↓ membrane damage –> ↓ apoptosis in marrow –> less severe anemia

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18
Q

Defect in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

A

PIGA mutations –> ↓ GPI anchor –> ↓ CD55, CD59, C8 binding protein –> ↑ susceptibility to complement mediated lysis

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19
Q

Antibody in Warm-Antibody Type Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A

IgG active at 37C

*Associated with SLE, drugs, CLL

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20
Q

Antibody in Cold Agglutinin Disease

A

IgM active at <37C

*Associated with infections of Mycoplasma pneumoniae, CMV, EBV, HIV, and CLL

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21
Q

Antibody in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

A

IgG Anti P (Donath-Landsteiner antibody)

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22
Q

Coomb’s test that detects antibodies present in patient’s serum

A

Indirect Coombs’ Test
Used for compatibility testing, bloodbank etc.

*Direct Coombs’ Test detects antibodies attached to RBCs
ex: Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

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23
Q

Type of hemolysis in Cell finding in Hemolytic Anemia 2ndary to red cell trauma

A

Intravascular due to sheer stress

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24
Q

Cell finding in Hemolytic Anemia 2ndary to red cell trauma

A

Schistocytes (fragmented red cell)
Echinocytes (Burr cell)

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25
General pathogenesis of megaloblastic anemia
Impaired DNA synthesis --> ineffective hematopoiesis --> premature death of precursor cells --> Peripheral blood cytopenias *Morphology: Hypercellular marrow with megaloblastoid changes
26
Chem finding in Vitamin B12 deficiency (Pernicious anemia)
↑ Homocysteine ↑ Methylmalonate
27
Between Vitamin B12 deficiency and Vitamin B9 deficiency, __________________ has neurologic symptoms
Vitamin B12 deficiency
28
Chem finding in Vitamin B9 deficiency
↑ Homocysteine NORMAL Methylmalonate
29
Iron studies: IDA
↓ Fe ↑ TIBC ↓ Ferritin
30
Iron studies: Anemia of Chronic Inflammation
↓ Fe ↓ TIBC ↑ Ferritin
31
Normal values MCV MCH MCHC
MCV: 80-100 MCH: 26-32 MCHC: 32-36
32
Variability in red cell size
Anisocytosis
33
Variability in red cell shape
Poikilocytosis
34
Etiology and pathogenesis of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
Deficient ADAMTS13 —> inc vWF polymers —> inc platelet activation —> inc thrombosis —> microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
35
Clinical features of TTP
FATRN Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Renal failure Neurologic deficits
36
Etiology of ITP
Anti GpIIB/IIIA and Gp1b/IX IgG
37
HUS pathogenesis
Typical: E. Coli O157:H7 (Shiga-like toxin) Atypical: complement activation inhibitors deficiency *thrombocytopenia, anemia, renal failure *Normal ADAMTS13 levels
38
DISORDER OF PLT FXN: Autosomal recessive inherited GpIIB/IIIa deficiency (problem in plt aggregation) *inc BT, N PC
Glanzmann Thrombastenia
39
DISORDER OF PLT FXN: Autosomal recessive inherited GPIB/IX deficiency (problem in plt adhesion) *inc BT, dec PC
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome (BSS)/Giant Platelet Syndrome
40
Most common inherited bleeding disorder
Von Willebrand Disease (Autosomal dominant) vWF factor deficiency —> FVIII deficiency *inc BT, inc aPTT, normal PT
41
Most common hereditary disease associated with life-threatening complications
Hemophilia (X-linked recessive) A: Factor VIII deficiency B: Xmas dse; Factor IX deficiency C: Factor XI deficiency Normal BT and PT, inc aPTT
42
Treatmed for vWD
Desmopressin Factor VIII replacement
43
Heyde syndrome triad
Aortic stenosis GI bleeding Acquired vWD
44
DIC + Giant Hemangiomas
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
45
Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage in meningococcemia
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
46
Acute DIC manifestation
Bleeding
47
Chronic DIC manifestation
Thrombosis
48
Most common indication for lung transplantation
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
49
Masson bodies
Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia
50
Particle size most dangerous for pneumoconiosis
1-5 um (smaller particles can reach distal airways)
51
Exposure to what element causes silicosis
Silica (Quartz) *building *road demolition *stone carvers *jewellers
52
Exposure to roof insulation predisposes to
Asbestos
53
Silicosis affects the ________ lobes of the lungs while asbestosis affects the __________ lobes of the lungs
Upper; lower
54
Laminated concretions seen in sarcoidosis
Schaumann bodies
55
Stellate inclusions seen in sarcoidosis
Asteroid bodies
56
Most common organs involved in sarcoidosis
Lymph nodes (hilar and mediastinal) > lung
57
A lung condition that can look like pneumonia but does not resolve with antibiotics
Acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis
58
Macrophages with dusty brown pigment seen in smoking-related interstitial diseases (Desquamative interstitial pneumonia and respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial lung disease)
Smoker's macrophages
59
WHO classification of pulmonary HTN secondary to autoimmune dse (BMPR2 mutations)
Group 1
60
WHO classification of pulmonary HTN secondary to unclear and multifactorial mechanisms
Group 5
61
Pulmonary hypertension has a mean pulmonary artery pressure of _________ mmHg at rest
>= 25 mmHg
62
Most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbations of COPD, otitis media and pink eye in children
Haemophilus influenzae
63
Bacterial cause of pneumonia in the elderly, and 2nd most common cause of acute exacerbations of COPD
Moraxella catarrhalis
64
Secondary bacterial pneumonia post-viral respiratory illnesses (measles and influenza)
Staphylococcus aureus
65
Most common cause of gram negative beacterial pneumonia, in chronic alcoholics, and with currant jelly like sputum
Klebsiella pneumoniae
66
Stage of lobar pneumonia where the lungs are heavy and boggy; Vascular engorgement, intra-alveolar fluid with few neutrophils, numerous bacteria
Congestion
67
Stage of lobar pneumonia where the lungs are red, firm, airless with a liver-like consistency. (+) intra alveolar PMNs, RBCs, fibrin
Red hepatization
68
Stage of lobar pneumonia where the lungs are grayish brown lobe, progressive RBC disintegration, with fibrinosuppurative exudate
Gray hepatization
69
Stage of lobar pneumonia where exudate is broken down by enzymatic digestion into granular, semifluid debris
Resolution
70
Microscopic finding of the lungs in bronchopneumonia
Neutrophilic rich exudate within airways
71
Most common symptoms of lung carcinoma
Cough > Wt loss > Chest pain > Dyspnea
72
Distant spread of lung carcinoma organs affected
ALBB Adrenals Liver Brain Bone
73
Most common mutations in nonsmokers with adenocarcinoma
EGFR
74
Adenocarcinoma mutation with worst prognosis
KRAS
75
IHC stain in lung adenocarcinoma
(+) TTF-1, Napsin A
76
Lung carcinomas that have a central site of predilection
Squamous cell carcinoma Small cell carcinoma Carcinoid/endocrine tumor
77
Lung carcinomas that have a peripheral site of predilection
Adenocarcinoma Large cell carcinoma Carcinoid/endocrine tumor
78
Mutations in Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
TP53, CDKN2A, FGFR-1
79
IHC stain in squamous cell carcinoma of lung
(+) p40, p63
80
Mutations in Small cell carcinoma of lung
(+) TP53, RB
81
Lung carcinomas with salt and pepper chromatin
Small cell carcinoma (inc mitosis) Carcinoid/neuroendocrine tumor (dec mitosis)
82
Carcinoids arise from
Kulchitsky cells (neuroendocrine cells on basement membrane of bronchi/bronchioles)
83
A tumor that encases the lung
Diffuse pleural mesothelioma
84
>95% of adult hemoglobin is composed of this type
HbA1/HbA (Adult hemoglobin): α2β2
85
Type of hemolytic anemia that occurs due to inherent defects in red cells
Intrinsic hemolysis
86
Type of hemolysis that occurs in the spleen
Extravascular hemolysis
87
Clinical features observed in intravascular hemolysis
Hemoglobinemia, Hemoglobinuria, Hemosiderinuria
88
Viral infection associated with aplastic crisis
Parvovirus B19 infection
89
Most likely diagnosis in a patient presenting with jaundice and gallstones; Lab findings include ↑ MCHC, ↑ RBC osmotic fragility
Hereditary Spherocytosis
90
Most common trigger of red cell hemolysis in G6PD deficiency
Infection
91
Precipitated denatured hemoglobin seen in G6PD deficiency
Heinz bodies
92
Having G6PD deficiency and/or sickle cell trait is protective against which parasitic infection
Malaria
93
Pattern of inheritance of sickle cell anemia
Autosomal recessive
94
Etiology of sickle cell anemia
Point mutation in the β- globin gene (glu→val)
95
Most common cause of morbidity and mortality in sickle cell anemia
Vaso-occlusive (Pain) crises
96
Autosplenectomy causes increased susceptibility to which type of organisms
encapsulated organisms (S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae)
97
Beta-thalassemia syndrome with 2 mutated β globin genes in chromosome 11
β- thalassemia major
98
Alpha-thalassemia syndrome with 3 deleted α-globin gene mutations
HbH disease
99
Alpha-thalassemia syndrome with 4 deleted α-globin gene mutations
Hydrops fetalis
100
Red cell surface proteins absent in patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria which increases susceptibility to complement-mediated lysis
CD55, CD59
101
Most common cause of disease-related death in PNH
Venous thrombosis
102
Most common form of immunohemolytic anemia; Associated with autoimmune diseases (SLE), Lymphoid neoplasms (CLL)
Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (WAIHA)
103
Type of antibody in WAIHA
IgG active at 37°C
104
Infections associated with cold agglutinin disease
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, EBV, CMV, HIV
105
Type of antibody in CAD
IgM active below 37°C
106
Disease-causing antibody in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, which is common in children postviral infection
IgG anti-P (Donath- Landsteiner antibody)
107
Possible deficient vitamins in patients with megaloblastic anemia
Vitamin B12, B9
108
Gastrectomy and autoimmune atrophic gastritis causes vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of
Intrinsic factor
109
Parasite that competes with vitamin B12 absorption
Diphyllobothrium latum
110
Features that differentiate Vitamin B12 deficiency from Vitamin B9 deficiency
(+) neurologic symptoms due to subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord + ↑ methylmalonate (normal in Vit B9 deficiency)
111
DMARD used in the management of RA that causes Vitamin B9 deficiency
Methotrexate (a folate antagonist)
112
Most common nutritional disorder in the world
Iron deficiency anemia
113
Peptide hormone increased in anemia of chronic disease that prevents mobilization of stored iron
Hepcidin
114
BMA: Hypocellular marrow with fat cells and scattered lymphocytes and plasma cells; CBC:Pancytopenia with normocytic, normochromic anemia
Aplastic anemia
115
Most common cause of aplastic anemia
Drugs
116
(+) Parvovirus B19 infection/autoimmune disease; BMA: Absent erythroblasts with normal granulocytic and megakaryocytic lineages
Pure red cell aplasia
117
Space-occupying lesions displace bone marrow elements
Myelophthisic anemia
118
Most common cause of secondary myelophthisic anemia
Metastasis
119
A 5-year-old patient presents with multiple petechiae. He had a URTI 3 days ago and has no significant medical history. CBC: Low platelets
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
120
Etiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura
Anti-GPIIb-IIIa and GPIb-IX (80%) IgG
121
Form of ITP that is more common in adults and is associated with SLE, HIV, CLL
Chronic ITP
122
Thrombotic disease that occurs due to decreased ADAMTS13 level or activity
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
123
Action of ADAMTS12
Degrades von Willebrand factor (vWF) multimers
124
Causative agent of typical hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. coli O157:H7
125
Autosomal recessive inherited GPIb/IX deficiency; defective platelet adhesion
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome / Giant Platelet Syndrome
126
Autosomal recessive inherited GPIIb/IIIa deficiency; defective platelet aggregation
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
127
Most common inherited bleeding disorder
Von Willebrand Disease
128
Clinical and laboratory features of VWD
Mucocutaneous>Internal bleeding, ↑ BT, ↑ aPTT, Normal PT
129
Most common hereditary disease associated with lifethreatening bleeding
Hemophilia
130
Christmas Disease
Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency)
131
Most common adverse transfusion reaction
Febrile non-hemolytic anemia
132
Most common reaction in platelet transfusions
Allergic reactions
133
Transfusion-transmitted infections are more common in this blood product due to its storage at room temperature
Platelet concentrate
134
Type of atelectasis due to airway obstruction
Resorption atelectasis
135
Type of atelectasis associated with fluid, air, or mass inside the pleural cavity
Compression atelectasis
136
Type of atelectasis that occurs as a result of pulmonary/pleural fibrosis
Contraction atelectasis
137
Abrupt onset of hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary edema in the absence of heart failure
Acute lung injury
138
Histologic hallmark for the acute phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome
Diffuse Alveolar Damage
139
Irreversible enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchiole
Emphysema
140
Type of emphysema associated with smoking
Centriacinar
141
Type of emphysema associated with α-1- antitrypsin deficiency
Panacinar
142
Type of emphysema associated with spontaneous pneumothorax in young adults
Distal acinar (Paraseptal)
143
Persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years in the absence of any other cause
Chronic bronchitis
144
Ratio of thickness of the mucus gland layer to the wall thickness
Reid index (N = 0.4)
145
Chronic inflammatory airway disease that produces episodic variable expiratory airflow obstruction
Asthma
146
Extruded mucus plugs seen in sputum examination of asthmatic patients
Curschmann's spiral
147
Microscopic crystals made up of galectin-10 from eosinophils
Charcot-Leyden crystals
148
A known cystic fibrosis patient presents with severe, persistent cough with foulsmelling mucopurulent sputum. Episodes of hemoptysis were also noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Bronchiectasis
149
Bronchiectasis, Sinusitis, Situs inversus, Sperm dysmotility
Kartagener syndrome
150
Clinicopathologic syndrome marked by progressive interstitial pulmonary fibrosis and respiratory failure; (+) Honeycomb fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
151
Most important environmental factor of IPF
Cigarette smoking
152
Black discoloration of the bronchi due to carbon deposits; accentuated in coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
Anthracosis
153
Most common pneumoconiosis and chronic occupational disease worldwide; (+) Eggshell calcifications in lymph nodes
Silicosis
154
Hallmark of silicosis
Whorled collagen fibers surrounded by dust-laden macrophages
155
Most common manifestation of asbestosis
Pleural plaques
156
Golden brown rods with translucent core containing asbestos coated with an ironprotein complex
Asbestos bodies
157
X-ray finding in sarcoidosis
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
158
WHO classification of pulmonary HTN secondary to thromboembolism
Group 4
159
Most common cause of community- acquired acute pneumonia and lobar pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae
160
Bacteria associated with hospital-acquired infections, cystic fibrosis and neutropenic patients
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
161
Viral pneumonia linked to Parkinson's disease later in life
Influenza virus type A
162
Stage of lobar pneumonia where the lungs are heavy and boggy; Vascular engorgement, intra-alveolar fluid with few neutrophils, numerous bacteria
Congestion
163
Stage of lobar pneumonia where the lungs are red, firm, airless with a liver-like consistency. (+) intra alveolar PMNs, RBCs, fibrin
Red Hepatization
164
Microscopic finding of the lungs in viral pneumonia
Interstitial mononuclear inflammation
165
Most common cause of lung abscess
Aspiration
166
Most common primary lung tumor
Lung carcinoma
167
Type of lung carcinoma associated with paraneoplastic syndromes; strongest association with smoking
Small cell carcinoma
168
Most common histologic type of lung cancer; most common type in never smokers; peripheral in location
Adenocarcinoma
169
Type of lung cancer that is central in location; (+) keratinization, keratin pearls, intercellular bridges
Squamous cell carcinoma
170
IHC stains positive in carcinoid tumor
Synaptophysin, Chromogranin
171
Cannon-ball lesions or multiple discrete lesions in the lung is typical of
Metastatic neoplasm
172
Most common cause of noninflammatory transudative effusions
Congestive heart failure
173
Mechanism of pleural effusion in CHF
↑Capillary hydrostatic pressure
174
Type of effusion associated with radiation, autoimmune disease, uremia
Serous, serofibrinous, fibrinous
175
Type of effusion associated with thoracic duct trauma
Chylous
176
Pneumothorax sufficient to cause circulatory collapse due to compression of mediastinal structures
Tension pneumothorax
177
Type of pneumothorax that occur due to rupture of subpleural blebs in young patients
Spontaneous idiopathic pneumothorax
178
Most common pleural tumors
Secondary tumors (common sources: lung, breast)
179
Most common cause of tooth loss < 35 years old
Dental caries
180
Associated conditions with recurrent/persistent aphthous ulcers
Celiac disease, Inflammatory bowel disease, Behçet disease, immunocompromised
181
Most common fungal infection of oral cavity
Candida albicans
182
White pseudomembrane that can be scraped off
Thrush
183
A white patch or plaque that cannot be scraped off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease
Leukoplakia
184
Most common head and neck cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
185
Etiology of oral cavity SCCa
Tobacco, Alcohol, Betel chewing, Sunlight, Pipe smoking
186
Most common site of local metastasis of oral cavity SCCa
Cervical lymph nodes
187
Etiology of oropharyngeal SCCa
High-risk HPV
188
Odontogenic cysts located in impacted/unerupted tooth
Dentigirous cyst
189
Condition associated with multiple odontogenic keratocyst
Gorlin syndrome (Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome)
190
Odontogenic cyst associated with history of dental caries/trauma; location: apex of non-viable tooth
Radicular cyst
191
Most common odontogenic tumor
Odontoma
192
A patient presents with a mass on the right mandible in the posterior molar area. Biopsy: epithelial cells palisading around a stellate reticulum.
Ameloblastoma
193
Most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis/tonsillitis
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS)
194
An adolescent male presents with recurrent epistaxis and nasal obstruction. A mass was seen in the posterior roof of the nasal cavity
Sinonasal tract angiofibroma
195
Virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPCA)
Epstein-Barr virus
196
Most common location of NPCA
Rosenmuller fossa
197
Most radiosensitive type of NPCA
Undifferentiated NPCA
198
Laryngeal lesion associated with voice abuse
Reactive nodules
199
Most common benign laryngeal epithelial tumor
Squamous papilloma
200
Etiology of laryngeal papilloma
Low-risk HPV (6 and 11)
201
Common bacterial causes of acute otitis media
S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
202
Origin of branchial cleft cyst
2nd branchial arch remnant
203
Most common cause of xerostomia
Drugs (Anticholinergics, Antihistamines, Antipsychotics, Antidepressants)
204
Most common inflammatory salivary gland lesion
Mucocele
205
Salivary gland lesions that occurs following sublingual duct damage
Ranula
206
Most common viral sialadenitis
Mumps
207
Bacterial sialadenitis can occur in the presence of
Sialolithiasis
208
Most common salivary gland tumor
Pleomorphic adenoma or benign mixed tumor
209
Salivary gland tumor associated with smoking; Morphology: papillary structures with central lymphoid stroma covered by double layer of oncocytic cells
Warthin Tumor
210
Most common primary malignant salivary gland tumor
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
211
Most common location of pleomorphic adenoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma, and Warthin tumor
Parotid gland
212
A cancer arising from a primary or recurrent pleomorphic adenoma
Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
213
Most common location of adenoid cystic carcinoma
Minor (palatine) glands
214
Most common form of adenoid cystic carcinoma
Cribriform