Male and Female Genital Tract, Breast Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of
hydronephrosis in infants
and children

A

Ureteropelvic junction
obstruction

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2
Q

Most common and serious
congenital anomaly of the
urinary bladder

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

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3
Q

Sequelae of bladder
exstrophy

A

Infections, Colonic
glandular metaplasia, ↑
risk of Adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

Partial patency of the
urachus result in the
formation of

A

Urachal cyst

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5
Q

Cancer associated with
urachal cyst and intestinal
metaplasia of the urinary
bladder

A

Adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

Most common cause of acute
cystitis

A

Coliforms (E. coli, Proteus,
Klebsiella, Enterobacter)

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7
Q

Viruses associated with
hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Adenovirus, BK virus

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8
Q

Commonly associated drug
with hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

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9
Q

Polypoid cystitis is
commonly associated with

A

Indwelling catheter use

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10
Q

Type of urinary bladder
cancer linked to Schistosoma
haematobium infection

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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11
Q

Most common bladder tumor

A

Urothelial tumors

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12
Q

Most important risk factor
for urothelial tumor
formation

A

Smoking

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13
Q

A 4-year-old female presents
with painless hematuria,
frequency and recurrent UTI.
Imaging revealed
hydronephrosis and a grapelike
lesion inside the urinary
bladder. What is the most
likely initial diagnosis?

A

Embryonal
rhabdomyosarcoma
(Sarcoma botyroides)

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14
Q

Most common urinary
bladder sarcoma in adults

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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15
Q

Non-infectious urethritis
associated with
conjunctivitis and arthritis

A

Reactive arthritis (Reiter
syndrome)

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16
Q

Common infectious etiology
of urethritis

A

N. gonorrhoeae, C.
trachomatis, Ureaplasma
urealyticum

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17
Q

Type of carcinoma seen in
the proximal urethra

A

Urothelial carcinoma

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18
Q

Type of carcinoma seen in
the distal urethra

A

HPV-related Squamous cell
carcinoma

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19
Q

Abnormal opening on the
ventral shaft of the penis

A

Hypospadia

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20
Q

Associated disease with
hypospadia

A

Cryptorchidism

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21
Q

Abnormal opening on the
dorsal shaft of the penis

A

Epispadia

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22
Q

Associated disease with
epispadia

A

Exstrophy of the bladder

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23
Q

Long-term consequence of
phimosis and balanoposthitis

A

↑ risk for penile cancer

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24
Q

Etiology of condyloma
acuminatum or genital warts

A

Low-risk HPVs (HPV 6 >
HPV 11)

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25
Q

Perinuclear cytoplasmic
vacuolization of squamous
epithelial cells; indicative of
HPV infection

A

Koilocytosis/Koilocytic
change

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26
Q

HPV-related penile
intraepithelial neoplasia
(PeIN)

A

Bowen disease, Bowenoid
papulosis

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27
Q

PeIN associated with older
men. Lesion is solitary.

A

Bowen disease

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28
Q

PeIN associated with
younger men. Lesions are
multiple..

A

Bowenoid papulosis

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29
Q

High-risk HPV types

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, and 33

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30
Q

HPV oncogenic viral product
that inactivates p53

A

E6

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31
Q

HPV oncogenic viral product
that inactivates RB and
increases p16

A

E7

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32
Q

Surrogate marker of HPV
infection

A

p16

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33
Q

Most common site of arrest
in cryptorchidism

A

Inguinal canal

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34
Q

Type of cancer associated
with cryptorchidism

A

Testicular germ cell tumors
on BOTH testes

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35
Q

Common etiology of
epididymitis and orchitis in
childhood

A

Gram-negative rods

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36
Q

Common etiology of
epididymitis and orchitis in
childhood

A

E. coli, Pseudomonas

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37
Q

Epididymo-orchitis pattern
of involvement in
tuberculosis

A

Epididymis→Testis

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38
Q

Epididymo-orchitis pattern
of involvement in syphilis

A

Testis→Epididymis

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39
Q

Adolescents with a bell
clapper deformity of the
testis is at risk for this
urologic emergency

A

Testicular torsion

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40
Q

Most common cause of
painless testicular
enlargement

A

Tumors

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41
Q

Most common testicular
tumor

A

Germ cell tumors (GCT)

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42
Q

Most common GCT

A

Seminoma

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43
Q

Prognosis of seminomatous
GCTs

A

Favorable (radio- and
chemosensitive)

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44
Q

Primary route of metastasis
of non-seminomatous GCTs

A

Hematogenous

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45
Q

Tumor marker used to assess
testicular tumor burden

A

Lactate dehydrogenase
(LDH)

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46
Q

Most common testicular GCT
in infants and children up to
3 years

A

Yolk sac tumor

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47
Q

Central capillary surrounded
by tumor cells within a space
lined by tumor cells; seen in
yolk sac tumor

A

Schiller-Duval bodies

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48
Q

Elevated tumor marker in
choriocarcinoma

A

Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG)

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49
Q

Most important predictor of
biologic behavior of teratoma

A

Age (prepubertal male -
benign; postpubertal -
malignant)

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50
Q

Sex-cord stromal tumor that
can elaborate androgens and
estrogens

A

Leydig cell tumor

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51
Q

Eosinophilic, rod-shaped
inclusions seen in the
microscopy of Leydig cell
tumors

A

Crystalloids of Reinke

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52
Q

Most common testicular
tumor in men > 60 years

A

Testicular lymphoma

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53
Q

A 50-year-old male presents
with fever, chills, dysuria. PE
showed tender, boggy
prostate on DRE. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute bacterial prostatitis

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54
Q

Most common form of
prostatitis

A

Chronic abacterial
prostatitis

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55
Q

Most common benign
prostatic disease in men > 50
years old

A

Nodular prostatic
hyperplasia (NPH)

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56
Q

Ultimate mediator of
prostatic growth formed by
Type 2 5-α-reductase

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

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57
Q

Most common site of nodular
prostatic hyperplasia

A

Transition zone, Inner
periurethral zone

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58
Q

Risk factors for prostatic
adenocarcinoma

A

Advancing age, androgen
excess, race (African
Americans, family history
in 1st degree relatives,
inherited mutations,diet
(Charred meats, animal fat)

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59
Q

Most common site of
prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

Peripheral zone

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60
Q

Gleason pattern with discrete
prostatic glands

A

Gleason pattern 3

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61
Q

Gleason pattern with no
gland formation observed

A

Gleason pattern 5

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62
Q

Computation of Gleason
score

A

Most dominant pattern +
2nd most dominant pattern

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63
Q

Prostatic adenocarcinoma
produce blastic lesions on
the bones by spreading
hematogenously via the

A

Batson plexus

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64
Q

Sites of distant metastasis of
prostate cancer in decreasing
order of frequency
(hematogenous route)

A

Lumbar spine, proximal
femur, pelvis, thoracic
spine, ribs

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65
Q

Screening for prostate
cancers starts at age

A

45

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66
Q

Morphologically normal
spermatozoa percentage less
than reference value

A

Teratozoospermia

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67
Q

Sperm motility less than
reference value

A

Asthenozoospermia

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68
Q

Recommendation for a >75
y.o. patient with PSA >4
ng/mL and suspicious DRE

A

Biopsy

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69
Q

Reference range of PSA

A

0-4 ng/mL

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70
Q

Most serious complication of
gonorrhea in women

A

Pelvic inflammatory
disease (PID)

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71
Q

Risk factors associated with
polymicrobial cause of PID

A

Induced abortion,
dilatation and curettage,
and surgical procedures

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72
Q

Complications of chronic PID

A

Infertility and tubal
obstruction, ectopic
pregnancy, pelvic pain,
and intestinal
obstruction

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73
Q

Age at which a Bartholin cyst is
biopsied to rule out malignancy

A

> 40 years

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74
Q

Stage of syphilis where
condyloma lata appear

A

Secondary syphilis

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75
Q

Most common histologic type
of carcinoma in the vulva

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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76
Q

Etiology of septate vagina

A

Failure of Mullerian duct
fusion

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77
Q

Septate vagina and vaginal
adenosis are associated with in
utero exposure to which drug

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

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78
Q

Most common malignant
tumors of the vagina originate
from the

A

Cervix

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79
Q

Most common site of primary
squamous cell carcinoma of the
vagina

A

Posterior wall at
ectocervicovaginal
junction

80
Q

Vaginal mass with grape-like
clusters protruding from the
vaginal orifice of an infant

A

Sarcoma botyroides

81
Q

Most common site of squamous
intraepithelial lesion (SIL)

A

Transformation zone

82
Q

Basaloid cells and mitosis
within lower 1/3 of epithelium,
Koilocytic atypia

A

Low-grade SIL/Cervical
Intraepithelial Neoplasia
(CIN) 1

83
Q

A 50-year-old female presents
with post-coital bleeding. On
examination, a finger-like mass
was seen on the cervical
introitus. Biopsy showed
fibrovascular stroma lined by
endocervical epithelium. What
is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Endocervical polyp

84
Q

Basaloid cells and mitosis to
upper 2/3 of epithelium

85
Q

Full thickness basaloid cell
proliferation and mitosis

86
Q

CIN classified as high-grade SIL

87
Q

80% of cervical carcinomas are
of this histologic type

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

88
Q

Most common cause of death cervical ca

A

Complications of urinary
tract obstruction

89
Q

Cellular infiltrates identified in
chronic endometritis

A

Plasma cells

90
Q

Ectopic endometrial tissue
outside the uterus

A

Endometriosis

91
Q

Endometrial tissue in deep
myometrium

A

Adenomyosis

92
Q

Cyst filled with old menstrual
blood due to ectopic
endometrial implants in the
ovaries

A

Chocolate cyst or ovarian
endometrioma

93
Q

A patient on tamoxifen
presents with AUB. D&C was
performed. Pathology report
showed cystically dilated
glands in fibrous stroma.

A

Endometrial polyp

94
Q

Etiology of endometrial
hyperplasia without atypia

A

Prolonged estrogen
stimulation

95
Q

Etiology of atypical
endometrial hyperplasia and
endometrioid carcinoma

A

PTEN loss/mutation

96
Q

Most common invasive cancer
of the FGT

A

Endometrial carcinoma

97
Q

Type I endometrial carcinoma
histologic type/s

A

Endometrioid

98
Q

Type II endometrial carcinoma
histologic type/s

A

Serous, Clear cell,
Carcinosarcoma

99
Q

Most common histologic type
of endometrial carcinoma

A

Endometrioid carcinoma

100
Q

Endometrioid carcinoma
associations

A

Age 55-65 years, ↑
Estrogen, Hypertension,
DM, Obesity

101
Q

Serous carcinoma associations

A

Age 65-75 years,
Atrophic uterus, Thin
physique

102
Q

Most common tumor in women

103
Q

Diagnostic triad for uterine
leiomyosarcoma

A

Marked cell atypia,
tumor cell necrosis,
increased mitosis

104
Q

Most common site of tubal
pregnancy

105
Q

Serous tubal intraepithelial
carcinoma (STIC) is a precursor
to

A

Ovarian high-grade
serous carcinoma

106
Q

A 30-year-old patient
complains of menstrual
irregularities, hirsutism and
acne. TVS showed bilaterally
enlarged ovaries with multiple
small follicles. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Polycystic ovarian
syndrome or Stein-
Leventhal syndrome

107
Q

Most common ovarian tumors

A

Surface epithelial tumors

108
Q

Most commonly benign surface
epithelial tumors

A

Serous, mucinous

109
Q

Most commonly malignant
surface epithelial tumors

A

Endometrioid

110
Q

Elevated tumor markers in
surface epithelial tumors

A

CA-125 and HE4

111
Q

Most common histologic type
of ovarian cancer

A

High-grade serous
carcinoma

112
Q

Mutated genes associated with
ovarian serous carcinoma

A

BRCA1, BRCA2

113
Q

Protective factors for ovarian
serous carcinoma

A

40-59 years with OCP
intake or tubal ligation

114
Q

Ovarian tumor with
transitional/urothelial-like
epithelium in a fibrous stroma

A

Brenner tumor

115
Q

Tumors associated with
dermoid cysts and Brenner
tumor

A

Mucinous carcinoma

116
Q

Accumulation of mucinous
material within the
abdominopelvic cavity due to
mucin-secreting tumor cells

A

Pseudomyxoma
peritonei

117
Q

Ovarian counterpart of
seminoma

A

Dysgerminoma

118
Q

GCT predominant in children
and young women

A

Immature teratomas,
Yolk sac tumor

119
Q

GCT predominant in
reproductive age

A

Mature cystic teratomas,
Dysgerminomas

120
Q

Most common ovarian GCT

A

Mature cystic teratoma

121
Q

A subtype of teratoma
characterized by a cystic mass
lined by skin-like structures

A

Dermoid cyst

122
Q

Grading of immature teratoma
is based on the amount of

A

Neuroepithelium

123
Q

A patient with mature cystic
teratoma presents with
psychosis and seizures. What is
the paraneoplastic syndrome
associated with this tumor?

A

Anti-NMDA receptor
encephalitis

124
Q

A postmenopausal woman
presents with AUB and a large
adnexal mass. She
consequently underwent
surgery. Pathology report
showed round/oval cells with
scant cytoplasm and nuclear
grooves (coffee bean nuclei).

A

Granulosa cell tumor

125
Q

Most metastatic tumors to the
ovary come from primary
tumors of

A

Mullerian origin (uterus,
fallopian tube,
contralateral ovary,
pelvic peritoneum)

126
Q

Signet ring cell carcinoma from
GIT metastatic to both ovaries

A

Krukenberg tumor

127
Q

Abnormal gestations
characterized by hydropic villi
chorionic villi with
trophoblastic proliferation

A

Hydatidiform mole

128
Q

Karyotype of partial mole

A

Triploid (Diandric
triploidy - 2 Sperm + 1
Ovum)

129
Q

Karyotype of complete mole

A

Paternal-only diploidy

130
Q

Embryo/fetus, amnion, and
fetal RBCs are only present in

A

Partial Mole

131
Q

Uterine size larger for dates,
hCG levels >100,000 mIU/mL
and higher rate of subsequent
gestational trophoblastic
neoplasia

A

Complete Mole

132
Q

Ovarian cysts associated with
hydatidiform mole due to
elevated hCG

A

Theca-lutein cysts

133
Q

Most common gestational
trophoblastic neoplasm

A

Gestational
choriocarcinoma

134
Q

Distant sites of metastasis of
gestational choriocarcinoma

A

Lungs > Vagina > Brain >
Liver > Bone > Kidney

135
Q

Cells that are histologically
absent in invasive carcinomas
of the breast

A

Myoepithelial cells

136
Q

A postpartum, nursing mother
developed fever accompanied
by pain and erythema of her
right breast. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Acute mastitis

137
Q

Fat necrosis of the breast
occurs following a

A

History of breast
trauma/surgery

138
Q

Fat necrosis occurs due to the
saponification of fat by this
enzyme

A

Tissue/blood lipase

139
Q

A patient with Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis complains of a
palpable left breast mass.
Biopsy showed lymphocytic
infiltrates and ductal and
lobular atrophy.

A

Lymphocytic mastopathy

140
Q

Proliferative breast diseases
without atypia

A

Usual ductal hyperplasia,
sclerosing adenosis,
complex sclerosing
lesion

141
Q

Cell adhesion molecule absent
in atypical lobular hyperplasia
or lobular neoplasia

A

E-cadherin

142
Q

Papillary fronds covered by
epithelial and myoepithelial
cells, growing within a dilated
duct; presents with bloody
nipple discharge

A

Intraductal papilloma

143
Q

Histologic subtype of ductal
carcinoma in-situ (DCIS) that
has abundant central luminal
necrosis

A

Comedo DCIS

144
Q

Malignant epithelial cells in the
nipple-areola epidermis;
presents with eczematous
nipple lesion; associated with
invasive cancer or DCIS

A

Paget Disease of the
Breast

145
Q

Most common and deadly
malignancy of women globally

A

Invasive Breast
Carcinoma

146
Q

Most common genes implicated
for single gene familial breast
cancers (80-90%)

A

BRCA1, BRCA2

147
Q

Gene more associated with
ovarian cancer and triplenegative
breast cancer

148
Q

Gene associated with male
breast cancer

149
Q

Overexpression of this gene
implies poorer prognosis but is
more amenable to treatment
with trastuzumab

150
Q

Most common type of invasive
breast carcinoma (IBC)

A

Invasive breast
carcinoma of no special
type

151
Q

Special type of IBC with
discohesive cells assuming a
single file or ‘Indian filing’

A

Invasive lobular
carcinoma

152
Q

Type of breast carcinoma
where tumor cells plug dermal
lymphatics producing a peau
d’orange appearance

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

153
Q

Most important prognostic
factor of IBC in the absence of
distant metastasis

A

Lymph node metastasis

154
Q

Most common benign tumor of
the female breast

A

Fibroadenoma

155
Q

Breast tumor composed of the
proliferation of both epithelial
and stromal components with
leaf-like fronds protruding into
cystically dilated spaces

A

Phyllodes tumor

156
Q

Most common breast sarcoma

A

Angiosarcoma

157
Q

Excess estrogen in males
produces this
unilateral/bilateral swelling of
the areola

A

Gynecomastia

158
Q

Most important cause of
gynecomastia

A

Liver cirrhosis

159
Q

Chromosomal disorder
associated with male breast
cancer

A

Klinefelter syndrome

160
Q

Germ Cell Neoplasia in Situ associated mutation

A

Isochrome 12p
(KIT mutation also)

161
Q

Michaelis Gutmann Bodies

A

Malakoplakia

162
Q

Cystitis Cystica vs. glandularis: precursor to adenocarcinoma

A

Cystitis glandularis
(Colonic/cuboidal-columnar epithelium)

163
Q

Keratinizing vs. Non keratinizing squamous metaplasia: squamous cell ca of bladder (S. haematobium)

A

Keratinizing squamous metaplasia

164
Q

Non-invasive urothelial papillary tumor mutations

165
Q

Non-invasive urothelial flat tumor mutations

166
Q

Urothelial carcinoma in situ has a ____________ spread

A

Pagetoid
*scattered malignant cells in normal epithelium

167
Q

2ndary urothelial tumors usually arise from these sites

A

CUPL
*Cervix
*Uterus
*Prostrate
*Lymphomas

168
Q

Smegma in uncircumcised males precipitate this condition

A

Balanoposthitis (inflamed glans and prepuce)

169
Q

HPV oncogenic viral product E6 inactivates ________ and stimulates ___________

A

p53; telomerase

170
Q

HPV oncogenic viral product E7 increases ________ and inactivates ___________

171
Q

Bell-clapper deformity

A

Inc testicular mobility —> inc risk for testicular torsion

172
Q

Golden period for testicular torsion

173
Q

Seminoma IHC

A

(+) KIT
(+) Oct 3/4
(-) cytokeratin

174
Q

Nonseminoma (Embryonal) IHC

A

(+) Oct 3/4
(+) Cytokeratin
(+) CD30
(-) KIT

175
Q

Schiller Duval Bodies

A

Yolk Sac tumor of testis

176
Q

Crystalloids of Reinke

A

Leydig cell tumor of testis

177
Q

Hormonally silent testicular tumor, only shows testicular enlargement

A

Sertoli cell tumor of testis

178
Q

Corpora amylacea is seen in

A

Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia

179
Q

Most common genetic alteration in prostatic (acinar) adenocarcinoma

A

ETV1-TMPRSS2

180
Q

Subepithelial condensation of tumor cells in sarcoma botryoides

A

Cambian layer

181
Q

Cells susceptible to HPV infection

A

*Immature squamous basal cells
*Endometrial glandular epithelial cells

182
Q

Mutations in endometrial glands
*physiologic peculiarity

A

KRAS
PIK3CA
ARID1A

183
Q

Atypical endometrial hyperplasia mutations

A

PTEN loss —> PIK3K/AKT pathway disinhibition

184
Q

Serous carcinoma mutation

185
Q

Lynch syndrome is characterized by, and mutation is

A

*microsatellite instability
*MLH1 loss

186
Q

Serous tubal intraepithelial carciboma (STIC) mutation

187
Q

Serous carcinoma risk factors and morphology

A

Nulliparity, fam hx, BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene
(+) Psamomma bodies

188
Q

Mucinous adenocarcinoma usually arise from

A

Dermoid cyst
Brenner tumor

189
Q

Pseudomyxoma peritonei (mucinous carcinoma) can happen in these organ involvements

A

Ovary
Appendix

190
Q

Ovarian carcinomas associated with endometriosis

A

Clear cell
Endometroid

191
Q

Neuroepithelial rosette

A

Immature teratoma

192
Q

Psychiatric natured disorder in Immature teratoma

A

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

193
Q

Monodermal teratoma that has thyroid tissue, thus can cause hyperthyroidism

A

Struma ovarii

194
Q

Call exner bodies & coffee bean nuclei

A

Granulosa cell tumors

195
Q

Characteristic UTZ finding in Complete H-mole

A

Snowstorm appearance

196
Q

Meigs syndrome components

A

Ovarian fibroma
Ascites
Pleural effusion

197
Q

Blue dome cyst

A

Fibrocystic changes