Gastrointestinal Tract And Kidney Flashcards

1
Q

Double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia
*distended stomach + distended proximal portion of duodenum separated by pyloric valve

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2
Q

Failure of cloacal membrane to involution

A

Imperforate anus

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3
Q

Diaphragmatic hernia type: Bochdalek

A

Posterolateral left sided defect

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4
Q

Diaphragmatic hernia type: Morgagni

A

Anteromedial defect

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5
Q

Ectopic gastric tissue in upper third of esophagus

A

Inlet patch

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6
Q

Most common type of
tracheoesophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia

A

Type C (distal TEF with
proximal esophageal
atresia)

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7
Q

A neonate presents with
recurrent vomiting. Maternal
history: polyhydramnios;
Imaging: double-bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

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8
Q

Most common congenital
intestinal atresia

A

Imperforate anus

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9
Q

Sequela of herniation
abdominal contents into
thoracic cavity in
diaphragmatic hernia

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

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10
Q

Herniation of visceral organs
(intestines, liver) enclosed in
a sac through a large
umbilical ring

A

Omphalocele

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11
Q

Herniation of visceral organs
(intestines) directly into the
amniotic cavity, (-) sac

A

Gastroschisis

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12
Q

Functional tissues in unusual
locations, which can cause
disease

A

Ectopia/heterotopia

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13
Q

Most common true
diverticulum and congenital
anomaly of the GI tract

A

Meckel diverticulum

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14
Q

Rule of 2 in Meckel
diverticulum

A

Most symptomatic < 2 y.o.,
within 2 feet from ileocecal
valve, 2 inches in length,
M:F (2:1), present in 2% of
population

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15
Q

(+) recurrent non-bilious
vomiting, regurgitation; (+)
olive-shaped abdominal
mass

A

Congenital Hypertrophic
Pyloric Stenosis

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16
Q

Antibiotic associated with
congenital hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis

A

Macrolides

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17
Q

Absence of ganglion cells in
the affected GI tract segment;
constricted diseased segment
+ dilated normal proximal
segment

A

Hirschsprung disease

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18
Q

Most common esophageal
functional obstruction

A

Nutcracker esophagus

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19
Q

A patient presents with
dysphagia. Barium studies
reveal a corkscrew esophagus

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm

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20
Q

False diverticula above the
upper esophageal sphincter,
(+) halitosis, regurgitation

A

Zenker or
Pharyngoesophageal
diverticulum

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21
Q

Triad of dysphagia, irondeficiency
anemia, upper
esophageal webs

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

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22
Q

A patient presents with
dysphagia. Manometry
reveals incomplete LES
relaxation, ↑ LES sphincter
tone, aperistalsis

A

Achalasia

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23
Q

Etiopathogenesis of primary
achalasia

A

Degeneration of nitric
oxide-producing neurons

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24
Q

Parasitic infection that can
cause secondary achalasia

A

Trypanosoma cruzi
infection

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25
Q

Intestinal metaplasia within
the esophageal epithelium
(squamous → columnar with
goblet cells)

A

Barrett esophagus

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26
Q

A patient presents with
hematemesis, severe
vomiting/retching following
binge drinking.

A

Mallory-Weiss Tear

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27
Q

Spontaneous rupture of the
esophagus resulting into
leakage of contents into the
mediastinum → mediastinitis
(chest pain)

A

Boerhaave syndrome

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28
Q

Most common cause of
esophageal varices

A

Liver cirrhosis due
alcoholic liver disease

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29
Q

Most dreaded complication
of esophageal varices

A

Bleeding

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30
Q

Usual site of esophageal
squamous cell carcinoma

A

Middle third

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31
Q

Risk factors for esophageal
squamous b cell carcinoma

A

↓ Fruit/Vegetable diet, Hot
drinks, HPV, Caustic injury,
Achalasia, Plummer-Vinson
syndrome

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32
Q

Usual site of esophageal
adenocarcinoma

A

Distal third

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33
Q

Risk factors for esophageal
adenocarcinoma

A

Chronic GERD, Smoking,
Radiation

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34
Q

Pathogenesis of NSAID induced
gastritis

A

↓ Synthesis of mucosal
protective prostaglandins

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35
Q

Proximal duodenal ulcers in
burns

A

Curling ulcers

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36
Q

Esophageal, gastric, and
duodenal ulcers in patients with
↑ intracranial pressure (ICP)

A

Cushing ulcers

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37
Q

Most common organism
associated with chronic
gastritis, peptic ulcer disease,
and gastric cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori

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38
Q

Enzyme produced by H.
pylori that increases
ammonia production which
raises intragastric pH

A

Urease

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39
Q

Conditions associated with
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis

A

Type 1 DM, Hashimoto
thyroiditis, Addison
disease, Graves disease

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40
Q

Antibodies present in
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis

A

Antibodies against H+-K+-
ATPase (proton pump) and
intrinsic factor (IF)

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41
Q

Most common complication
of peptic ulcer disease

A

Bleeding

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42
Q

Most common gastric
malignancy

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

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43
Q

A diffusely infiltrative type of
gastric cancer marked by
thickened, rigid gastric wall
with flattened rugae

A

Linitis plastica

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44
Q

Only malignancy that can be
cured by antibiotics

A

MALT Lymphoma (H. pylori
eradication)

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45
Q

Most common site of
neuroendocrine neoplasms

A

GIT, particularly small
intestine

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46
Q

Most common abdominal
mesenchymal tumor

A

Gastrointestinal stromal
tumor (GIST)

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47
Q

Origin of GIST

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

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48
Q

Overall most common cause
of intestinal obstruction

A

Hernia

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49
Q

Most common cause of
intestinal obstruction in
children <2 years

A

Intussusception

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50
Q

Usual sites of ischemic bowel
diseases

A

Colon (watershed areas:
splenic flexure,
rectosigmoid)

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51
Q

Most important risk factor
for thrombosis in ischemic
bowel disease

A

Atherosclerosis

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52
Q

A patient presents with
chronic diarrhea, worsened
by gluten intake. Intestinal
biopsy: villous atrophy +
crypt hyperplasia

A

Celiac disease

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53
Q

Pruritic blistering lesion
associated with celiac disease

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

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54
Q

Hallmark of Crohn Disease

A

Non-caseating granulomas

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55
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease
with marked pseudopolyp
formation, higher malignant
potential and toxic
megacolon incidence

A

Ulcerative colitis

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56
Q

Role of smoking and
appendectomy in Crohn
disease

A

Increases risk

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57
Q

False diverticula in the
sigmoid colon that presents
with painless lower GI bleed;
common in elderly
population

A

Diverticular disease

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58
Q

Type of colorectal adenoma
with highest malignant
potential

A

Villous adenoma

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59
Q

Most important
characteristic that relates to
malignancy risk of colorectal
adenoma

A

Size (>4cm)

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60
Q

Autosomal dominant
condition associated with
>100 colorectal polyps and
mutation in APC, “gatekeeper
of colonic neoplasia”

A

Familial adenomatous
polyposis

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61
Q

Extracolonic tumors seen in
Lynch syndrome

A

Endometrial, Ovarian,
Urothelial, Pancreatic,
Brain, Skin

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62
Q

(+) Mucocutaneous
pigmentation, (+) Multiple
hamartomatous GI polyps

A

Peutz-Jegher syndrome

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63
Q

Most common malignancy of
the GI tract

A

Colorectal adenocarcinoma

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64
Q

Laterality of colon cancer
that presents as polypoid
exophytic mass, and irondeficiency
anemia

A

Right-sided

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65
Q

Laterality of colon cancer
that presents as annular
“napkin-ring” constriction,
changes in bowel habits due
to obstruction, and apple
core deformity in barium
studies

A

Left-sided

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66
Q

Most common site of distant
metastasis from colon cancer

A

Liver

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67
Q

Functional GI disorder
characterized by recurrent
sharp, fleeting anorectal pain

A

Proctalgia fugax

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68
Q

Most common cause of
appendicitis

A

Fecalith

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69
Q

Most common appendiceal
tumor

A

Carcinoid tumor

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70
Q

Malignant clinical syndrome
characterized by mucinous
ascites secondary to a
mucinous neoplasm in the
appendix or ovaries

A

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

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71
Q

Pathologic effects of
reversible injury to the liver

A

Steatosis, Cholestasis,
Ballooning

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72
Q

Deeply eosinophilic
apoptotic bodies seen in viral
hepatitis

A

Acidophil body

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73
Q

Acidophil bodies in Yellow fever
patients

A

Councilman body

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74
Q

Liver enzyme specific to the
liver

A

Alanine transaminase
(ALT)

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75
Q

Most severe form of liver
disease (80-90%
parenchymal loss)

A

Liver failure

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76
Q

Most common drug causing
acute liver failure

A

Acetaminophen

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77
Q

Microscopic finding in liver
cirrhosis

A

Parenchymal nodules
surrounded by dense
bands of fibrosis (scarring)

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78
Q

Signs of hyperestrogenemia
in cirrhosis

A

Palmar erythema, Spider
angioma, Gynecomastia in
males

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79
Q

Most common intrahepatic
cause of portal HTN

80
Q

Etiology of hepatic
encephalopathy

A

Impaired detoxification of
NH3

81
Q

Hyperdynamic circulation
causes renal hypoperfusion
→ RAAS activation →
Systemic vasoconstriction
→↓GFR

A

Hepatorenal Syndrome

82
Q

Most common cause of
chronic viral hepatitis

A

Hepatitis C virus

83
Q

Histologic hallmark of HBV

A

Ground glass hepatocytes

84
Q

Histologic findings of the
liver in HCV infection

A

Lymphoid
aggregates/follicles, Bile
duct injury, Steatosis

85
Q

Duration of chronic hepatitis
infection

A

> 6 months

86
Q

A teenage woman presents
with fatigue and jaundice.
She is a non-alcoholic
drinker. Labs: (-) hepatitis
profile, ↑ IgG, AST, ALT. Liver
biopsy reveals fibrosis,
lymphocytes + plasma cells
within hepatocytes, rosette
formation of hepatocytes
around dilated canaliculi

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

87
Q

Conditions associated
autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1 DM, Thyroiditis,
Celiac sprue

88
Q

Diagnostic antibodies in type
1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

vANA, Anti-Smooth muscle
actin (Anti-SM/SMA), Antisoluble
liver antigen/liverpancreas
antigen (Anti-
SLA/LPA), Antimitochondrial
(AMA)

89
Q

Diagnostic antibodies in type
2 autoimmune hepatitis

A

cAnti-liver kidney
microsome-1 (Anti-LKM-1)
against CYP2D6, Anti-liver
cytosol-1 (Anti-ACL-1)

90
Q

Classic triad of
hemochromatosis

A

Cirrhosis, diabetes
mellitus, skin pigmentation
“bronze skin

91
Q

Protein that binds copper;
low in Wilson Disease (mutation in ATP7B)

A

Ceruloplasmin

92
Q

Green to brown deposits in
descemet membrane in
corneal limbus in Wilson
disease patients

A

Kayser-Fleischer ring

93
Q

Most common diagnosed
inherited hepatic disorder in
infants and children

A

α-1-antitrypsin
deficiency

94
Q

Cancer associated with
Wilson disease, hereditary
hemochromatosis, alpha-1-
antitrypsin deficiency

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

95
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
with autosomal recessive
pattern of inheritance

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome,
Rotor syndrome

96
Q

MRP2 mutation with dark
discoloration of the liver

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

97
Q

Enzyme that is absent or
deficient in unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia

98
Q

Charcot triad in ascending
cholangitis

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

99
Q

Persistent jaundice beyond
14-21 days after birth

A

Neonatal cholestasis

100
Q

Autoimmune cholangiopathy
associated with Sjögren
syndrome, Hashimoto
Thyroiditis, scleroderma

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis
(PBC)

101
Q

Autoantibody positive in
95% of PBC patients

102
Q

Autoimmune cholangiopathy
associated with IBD (UC)

A

Primary sclerosing
cholangitis (SPC)

103
Q

Autoantibody positive in
65% of PSC patients

104
Q

Radiologic finding in PSC

A

Beading of contrast
medium

105
Q

Characteristic microscopic
finding of bile ducts in PSC

A

Onion-skin fibrosis and
stricture

106
Q

Congenital dilatation of the
common bile duct

A

Choledochal cysts

107
Q

Disorder characterized by
hepatic vein outflow
obstruction either
thrombotic or nonthrombotic
in origin

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

108
Q

Benign hepatic tumor with
well-circumscribed,
unencapsulated, with central
stellate scar

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia

109
Q

Conditions associated with
hepatocellular adenoma

A

Obesity, metabolic
syndrome, OCP and
anabolic steroid use

110
Q

Most common primary liver
malignancy

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma
(HCC)

111
Q

Tumor marker for HCC

A

α-fetoprotein (AFP)

112
Q

Most common location of
extrahepatic
cholangiocarcinoma

A

Junction of right and left
hepatic ducts (Klatskin
tumor)

113
Q

Most common malignant
tumor of the liver

A

Metastatic tumors

114
Q

Most common benign liver tumor

A

Cavernous hemangioma

115
Q

Most common liver tumor of
early childhood

A

Hepatoblastoma

116
Q

Most common biliary tract
disease

A

Cholelithiasis

117
Q

Risk factors for cholelithiasis

A

Female sex, Estrogen
exposure, Obesity, Rapid
weight loss, Advancing age

118
Q

Etiology of pigment stones

A

Hemolysis, Ileal
dysfunction/bypass, Biliary
tract infections (E. coli,
Ascaris, Clonorchis)

119
Q

Most common cause of acute
and chronic cholecystitis

A

Gallstones

120
Q

Mucosal outpouching GB in
chronic cholecystitis

A

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

121
Q

Extensive dystrophic
calcification of the GB wall

A

Porcelain gallbladder

122
Q

Most important risk factor
for gallbladder carcinoma

A

Gallstones

123
Q

Most common congenital
anomaly of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic divisum

124
Q

Patients with pancreatic
divisum are at risk for

A

Chronic pancreatitis

125
Q

Metabolic disorders that
cause acute pancreatitis

A

↑ Triglycerides,
Hypercalcemia

126
Q

A more specific marker for
acute pancreatitis

127
Q

Most common cause of
chronic pancreatitis

A

Long-term alcohol abuse

128
Q

Clinical features associated
with chronic pancreatitis

A

Abdominal pain, pancreatic
insufficiency -
malabsorption, diabetes
mellitus

129
Q

Most common outcome of
pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Regression

130
Q

Most common location of
pancreatic adenocarcinoma

131
Q

Most important
environmental risk factor for
pancreatic adenocarcinoma

132
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome
associated with pancreatic
adenocarcinoma

A

Trousseau syndrome
(migratory superficial vein
thrombophlebitis)

133
Q

Tumor marker elevated in
pancreatic adenocarcinoma

134
Q

Hematuria, azotemia,
variable proteinuria, edema,
and hypertension

A

Nephritic syndrome

135
Q

> 3.5 g/day proteinuria,
hypoalbuminemia,
hyperlipidemia, lipiduria

A

Nephrotic syndrome

136
Q

Azotemia→Uremia
progressing for months to
years

A

Chronic renal failure

137
Q

Most common cause of
nephritic syndrome in
children

A

Post-streptococcal acute
glomerulonephritis

138
Q

Electron microscopy finding
in PSGN

A

Subepithelial humps on
GBM

139
Q

Antibody tests used to aid in
the diagnosis of PSGN

A

Antistreptolysin O
(pharyngeal infection),
anti-DNase B (pyoderma)

140
Q

Syndrome of progressive loss
of renal function
characterized by nephritic
syndrome often with severe
oliguria

A

Rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis
(RPGN)

141
Q

Hallmark of RPGN in light
microscopy

A

Crescents - proliferating
parietal epithelial cells +
Infiltrating leukocytes

142
Q

Etiology of Type I RPGN

A

anti-GBM antibodies

143
Q

Etiology of Type II RPGN

A

Immune complexmediated

144
Q

Etiology of Type III RPGN

145
Q

A 20-year-old male smoker
presents with hemoptysis
and hematuria. Lab findings
include elevated creatinine,
urea; (+) anti-GBM antibodies

A

Goodpasture syndrome

146
Q

Most common cause of
nephrotic syndrome in
children

A

Minimal change disease
(MCD)

147
Q

Alternative term for MCD
attributed to the lipid and
protein-laden proximal
tubule cells

A

Lipoid nephrosis

148
Q

Conditions associated with
MCD in adults

A

Lymphoma, leukemia

149
Q

Drugs associated with
membranous nephropathy

A

Penicillamine, Captopril,
Gold, NSAIDs

150
Q

Infections associated with
membranous nephropathy

A

Chronic HBV, HCV, Syphilis,
Schistosomiasis, Malaria

151
Q

Electron microscopy findings
in membranous nephropathy

A

Spike and Dome
appearance: Subepithelial
deposits EM along GBM;
Effacement of foot
processes

152
Q

Most common cause of
nephrotic syndrome in adults
in the US

A

Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis

153
Q

Also known as “dense deposit
disease” due to the
permeation of extremely
electron-dense structure in
the lamina densa

A

Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis type II

154
Q

Most common type of
glomerulonephritis
worldwide; Clinical features
include hematuria during or
immediately after a GIT/GUT
infection

A

IgA nephropathy

155
Q

Alternative term for IgA
nephropathy

A

Berger disease

156
Q

A child presents with
hematuria, joint pains,
abdominal pain, and purpuric
rash on buttocks and
extensor surfaces of arms and
legs. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
(HSP)

157
Q

A male patient presents with
hematuria, sensorineural
deafness, and lens
dislocation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Alport Syndrome

158
Q

Characteristic electron
microscopy finding of the
kidney in Alport syndrome

A

Basket weave appearance
of GBM: Pronounced
splitting and lamination of
lamina densa

159
Q

Most common cause of acute
kidney injury

A

Acute tubular
injury/necrosis

160
Q

Endogenous substances that
can cause toxic acute tubular
necrosis (ATN)

A

Hemoglobin, Myoglobin, Ig
light chains, Bilirubin

161
Q

Distribution of necrosis and
length of affected segment in
ischemic ATN

A

Patchy, short

162
Q

Distribution of necrosis and
length of affected segment in
toxic ATN

A

Extensive, long

163
Q

Affected segments in
ischemic ATN

A

Proximal straight tubule,
ascending limb of Henle’s
loop

164
Q

Affected segments in toxic
ATN

A

Proximal convoluted
tubule, ascending limb of
Henle’s loop

165
Q

A patient was treated with oral
TMP-SMX for her UTI. On day 8 of
treatment, she developed fever,
maculopapular rash, and
eosinophilia. Creatinine was 1.9
mg/dL (baseline SCr 0.7 mg/dL).
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute drug-induced
interstitial nephritis

166
Q

Drugs associated with acute
drug-induced interstitial
nephritis

A

Sulfonamides,
Methicillin/Ampicillin,
Rifampin, Thiazides,
NSAIDs, allopurinol,
cimetidine, checkpoint
inhibitors

167
Q

Most common causative
agent of UTI

A

Eschierichia coli

168
Q

Tubular changes seen in
chronic pyelonephritis

A

Thyroidization and
atrophy

169
Q

Etiology of nephrosclerosis or
sclerosis of renal
arterioles/small arteries

A

Advancing age,
Hypertension, Diabetes
mellitus

170
Q

Extravasation of plasma
proteins and basement
membrane matrix deposition

A

Hyalinization

171
Q

Most common cause of renal
artery stenosis

A

Atherosclerosis

172
Q

Most likely cause of renal
artery stenosis in a 30-yearold
female

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

173
Q

Most common etiology of
renal infarct

A

Embolism (from cardiac
mural thrombus)

174
Q

Type of infarct observed in
ischemia of the kidneys

A

White infarct

175
Q

Blood vessel compressed in
Nutcracker Syndrome

A

Left renal vein

176
Q

Blood vessels compressing
the left renal vein in
Nutcracker Syndrome

A

Superior mesenteric artery
(anterior), abdominal
aorta (posterior)

177
Q

Anomalies associated with
autosomal dominant
polycystic kidney disease
(ADPKD)

A

Liver cysts, Intracranial
berry aneurysms, Mitral
valve prolapse

178
Q

Most common cause of death
in ADPKD patients

A

Coronary or Hypertensive
heart disease

179
Q

Anomalies associated with
autosomal recessive
polycystic kidney disease
(ARPKD)

A

Congenital hepatic fibrosis
in patients who survive
infancy

180
Q

Most common cause of death
in ARPKD patients

A

Renal failure in infancy

181
Q

Clinical feature/s of bilateral
partial urinary tract
obstruction

A

Impaired urine
concentrating ability
(Nocturia, Polyuria),
Hypertension

182
Q

Clinical feature/s of bilateral
complete urinary tract
obstruction

A

Oliguria, Anuria

183
Q

Most common type of urolith

A

Calcium stones

184
Q

Most important determinant
of urolith formation

A

Supersaturation

185
Q

Type of renal stone formed in
basic pH, has a coffin-lid
appearance and is associated
with Proteus infection

A

Magnesium Ammonium
Phosphate (Struvite)
stones

186
Q

Type of renal stone occupying
the renal pelvis or calyces

A

Staghorn calculi

187
Q

Renal stones formed in acidic
pH

A

Calcium oxalate, Uric acid,
Cystine stones

188
Q

Type of renal stone associated
with diseases with rapid cell
turnover such as leukemia

189
Q

Most common malignant
tumor of the kidneys

A

Renal cell carcinoma

190
Q

Classic triad of renal cell
carcinoma

A

Hematuria, Flank Pain,
Mass

191
Q

Most important risk for for
renal cell carcinoma

192
Q

> 50% of renal cell carcinoma
cases metastasize in which organ

193
Q

Most common histologic type
of renal cell carcinoma;
associated with Von Hippel-
Lindau

A

Clear Cell Renal cell
carcinoma

194
Q

Psammoma bodies may be
present in this histologic type
of renal cell carcinoma

A

Papillary Renal cell
carcinoma

195
Q

histologic type of renal cell carcinoma associated with Burt Hogg disease

A

Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma

196
Q

Sites of histologic types of renal cell carcinomas

A

Clear cell - proximal tubule cells
papillary - distal tubule cells
Chromophobe - intercalated cells of collecting ducts