Peripheral Nerves & Skeletal Muscles, CNS, Eyes Flashcards

1
Q

A 30-year-old male patient
presents with symmetric
ascending paralysis and
areflexia following a history of
diarrhea. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome
(GBS)

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2
Q

Microbial infections associated
with GBS

A

Campylobacter jejuni,
CMV, EBV, and
Mycoplasma

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3
Q

CSF finding in GBS

A

Albuminocytologic
dissociation - ↑ CSF
protein
without significant ↑ in
inflammatory cells

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4
Q

Most common chronic acquired
inflammatory
peripheral neuropathy

A

Chronic inflammatory
demyelinating
polyradiculoneuropathy

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5
Q

Most common cause of
peripheral neuropathy

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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6
Q

Characteristic pattern of
involvement in diabetic
neuropathy

A

Distal symmetric sensory
polyneuropathy (Glove
and stocking pattern)

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7
Q

Accumulating substance that
causes osmotic damage in
diabetic neuropathy

A

Sorbitol

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8
Q

Most common inherited
peripheral neuropathies

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth
disease

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9
Q

Autoantibodies linked to
myasthenia gravis (MG)

A

Antibodies to
postsynaptic ACh
receptor

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10
Q

Thymic abnormalities
associated with myasthenia
gravis

A

Thymic hyperplasia,
thymoma

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11
Q

Electrophysiology finding in
MG

A

↓ response with repeated
stimulation

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12
Q

Autoantibodies linked to
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic
syndrome (LEMS)

A

Antibodies to
presynaptic Ca channel

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13
Q

Lung cancer associated with
LEMS

A

Neuroendocrine lung
carcinoma

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14
Q

Electrophysiology finding in
LEMS

A

↑ response with repeated
stimulation

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15
Q

Most common inflammatory
myopathy in children

A

Dermatomyositis

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16
Q

Dermatomyositis in adults
usually occur as a form

A

Paraneoplastic disorder

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17
Q

Morphologic hallmark of
dermatomyositis

A

Perifascicular atrophy

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18
Q

Lilac-colored rash on upper
eyelids

A

Heliotrope rash

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19
Q

Dusky red patches on knuckles,
elbows, and knees

A

Gottron papules

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20
Q

Autoantibodies associated with
Gottron papules and heliotrope
rash

A

Anti-Mi2

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21
Q

Autoantibodies associated with
interstitial lung disease,
Nonerosive arthritis, Skin rash
(“mechanic’s hands”)

A

Anti-Jo1

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22
Q

Similar symmetric proximal
muscle weakness involvement
with dermatomyositis but
absent cutaneous
manifestations

A

Polymyositis

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23
Q

Genetic mutation in Duchenne
muscular dystrophy (DMD)

A

Total absence of
dystrophin
(Deletion/Frameshift)

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24
Q

Genetic mutation in Becker
muscular dystrophy

A

Truncated version of
dystrophin (↓ activity)

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25
Q

Enzyme elevated in early
stages of DMD but decreased in
the late stages

A

Creatine kinase

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26
Q

Etiology of schwannoma

A

NF2 loss

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27
Q

Type of schwannoma located in
the cerebellopontine angle,
attached to vestibular branch
of CN VIII

A

Vestibular schwannoma

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28
Q

Cell-dense area of palisading
spindle cell fascicles in
schwannoma

A

Antoni A

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29
Q

Cell-poor areas with prominent
myxoid stroma

A

Antoni B

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30
Q

Most common peripheral nerve
sheath tumors

A

Neurofibroma

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31
Q

Etiology of neurofibroma

A

NF1 loss

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32
Q

Etiology of neurofibromatosis
type 1

A

(Neurofibromin, Ch17)
loss → ↑ RAS signaling

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33
Q

Etiology of neurofibromatosis
type 2

A

NF2 (Merlin, Ch22) loss

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34
Q

Malignant peripheral nerve
sheath tumors, optic nerve
gliomas, pheochromocytoma,
Lisch nodules, Cafe au lait spots

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

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35
Q

Schwannoma, meningioma,
ependymoma

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

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36
Q

Earliest morphologic marker of
neuronal cell death or acute
neuronal injury

A

Red neurons

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37
Q

Most important pathologic
marker of CNS injury

A

Gliosis - astrocytic
hyperplasia and
hypertrophy

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38
Q

Type of cerebral edema
observed in infection,
inflammation and tumors
occurring due to increased
vascular permeability

A

Vasogenic edema

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39
Q

Type of cerebral edema
observed in generalized
hypoxic injury where the ionic
balance of cells are disrupted

A

Cytotoxic edema

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40
Q

Type of hydrocephalus which
occurs due to ↓ CSF resorption
by arachnoid granulations i.e.,
in healed subarachnoid
hemorrhage

A

Communicating
hydrocephalus

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41
Q

Type of hydrocephalus when a
focal obstruction within the
ventricular system is present

A

Noncommunicating
hydrocephalus

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42
Q

Cerebral artery compressed in
subfalcine herniation

A

Anterior cerebral artery

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43
Q

Neurovascular structures
compressed in transtentorial
(uncal) herniation

A

Ipsilateral CN III and
Posterior cerebral artery
(PCA), and cerebral
peduncle

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44
Q

Linear/Flame-shaped
hemorrhagic lesions in
midbrain/pons

A

Duret hemorrhages

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45
Q

Compression of this structure
in tonsillar herniation causes
cardiac and respiratory
depression

A

Brainstem

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46
Q

Most common CNS
malformation

A

Spinal dysraphism (Spina
bifida)

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47
Q

Deficiency of this vitamin is a
known risk factor for NTDs

A

Folic acid

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48
Q

Extension of spinal cord and
meninges through a vertebral
column defect

A

Myelomeningocele

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49
Q

Most common site of
encephalocele

A

Occiput

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50
Q

This cranial dysraphism occurs
due to a failure in the closure of
the anterior neural tube

A

Anencephaly

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51
Q

Incomplete separation of
cerebral hemispheres across
midline

A

Holoprosencephaly

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52
Q

Absence of white matter
bundles that carry cortical
projections from one
hemisphere to another

A

Agenesis of corpus
callosum

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53
Q

Small posterior fossa causing
downward extension of
cerebellar tonsils and medulla
through the foramen magnum

A

Chiari II Malformation
(Arnold-Chiari)

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54
Q

Low-lying cerebellar tonsils
through foramen magnum

A

Chiari I Malformation

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55
Q

Hypoplasia/agenesis of the
vermis resulting in cystic
enlargement of 4th ventricle

A

Dandy-Walker
malformation

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56
Q

Fluid-filled cavity in the inner
portion of the cord

A

Syringomyelia

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57
Q

Most common route of CNS
infection

A

Hematogenous

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58
Q

Viruses with retrograde spread
in the nervous system

A

Rabies, VZV

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59
Q

Most common cause of acute
pyogenic meningitis overall

A

S. pneumoniae

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60
Q

Common etiologies of acute
pyogenic meningitis in
newborns

A

Group B streptococci, S.
pneumoniae, L.
monocytogenes, E. coli

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61
Q

Common etiologies of acute
pyogenic meningitis in teen and
young adults

A

N. meningitidis, S.
pneumonia

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62
Q

Most identifiable agent of acute
aseptic meningitis

A

Enteroviruses

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63
Q

CSF protein and mononuclear
cells are markedly elevated in
this type of meningitis

A

Tuberculous meningitis

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64
Q

Risk factors for brain abscess
formation

A

Acute bacterial
endocarditis, Congenital
heart disease (R→L
shunts), Chronic
pulmonary infections,
Immunosuppression

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65
Q

Morphologic findings in
meningovascular neurosyphilis

A

Obliterative endarteritis,
Perivascular plasma
cells, Gummas

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66
Q

Virus associated with
hemorrhagic necrotizing
encephalitis of the temporal
lobe

A

HSV

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67
Q

Virus associated with
microcephaly, periventricular
calcification

A

CMV

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68
Q

Cytoplasmic, round,
eosinophilic inclusions in
pyramidal neurons of the
hippocampus and Purkinje
cells of the cerebellum in rabies
infection

A

Negri bodies

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69
Q

Most common cryptococcal
infection in immunosuppressed
patients

A

C. neoformans

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70
Q

Location of skull fracture
associated with Raccoon sign
and CSF rhinorrhea

A

Anterior skull base

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71
Q

Location of skull fracture
associated with CN III, IV, V, VI
injuries, Carotid injury

A

Central skull base

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72
Q

Most common type of skull
fracture

A

Temporal fracture

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73
Q

Mastoid hematoma

A

Battle sign

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74
Q

Rapid neurologic deterioration
with lucid intervals

A

Epidural hematoma

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75
Q

Blood vessel lacerated in
epidural hematoma

A

Middle meningeal artery

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76
Q

CT scan finding in epidural
hematoma

A

Lentiform hyperdense
lesion

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77
Q

Blood vessel lacerated in
subdural hematoma

A

Bridging veins

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78
Q

CT scan finding in subdural
hematoma

A

Crescent-shaped
hyperdense lesion

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79
Q

Above which cervical vertebra is
respiratory compromise expected
in cases of spinal cord injury

A

C4

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80
Q

Neurons most susceptible to
ischemic injury

A

Pyramidal neurons of
Hippocampus (Area CA1: Sommer sector),
Cerebellar Purkinje cells,
Pyramidal neurons in cerebral cortex (Layers III and IV)

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81
Q

Most common location of
watershed infarcts in global
cerebral ischemia

A

ACA-MCA border

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82
Q

Most common site of deep
parenchymal hemorrhage

A

Putamen

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83
Q

Etiology of lobar hemorrhage

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy – Amyloid (Aβ) deposits in vascular wall

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84
Q

Most common type of
intracranial aneurysm; Most
common cause of spontaneous
subarachnoid hemorrhage
(SAH)

A

Saccular “Berry” Aneurysm

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85
Q

Most common site of berry
aneurysm

A

Circle of Willis – ACA-ACoA junction (40%)

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86
Q

Associated conditions with berry aneurysm

A

ADPKD, Ehler-Danlos (Type IV), NF1, Marfan, Fibromuscular dysplasia,
Coarctation of aorta

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87
Q

Most common clinically
significant vascular
malformation

A

Arteriovenous
malformation

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88
Q

Usual site of AV malformation

A

MCA territory

89
Q

A patient presents with
multiple neurologic deficits
separated in time and space
and optic neuritis; Lesions are multiphasic; CSF findings
include moderate pleocytosis,
mildly ↑ protein, ↑ IgG. What is
the most likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple sclerosis

90
Q

CSF electrophoresis finding in
multiple sclerosis

A

Oligoclonal IgG bands

91
Q

Partial seizure that starts with
one group of muscles then
spreads “marches” to other
groups of muscles

A

Jacksonian march

92
Q

Disease associated with rapid
correction of hyponatremia that leads to quadriplegia and “locked in syndrome”

A

Cerebral pontine myelinolysis

93
Q

Most common prion disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

94
Q

Central core with radiating
spicules of amyloid seen in the
cerebellum of CJD patients

A

Kuru plaques

95
Q

Most common cause of
dementia in older adults

A

Alzheimer disease (AD)

96
Q

Associations with Alzheimer
disease

A

Trisomy 21,
apoE (ε4) allele (Ch19)

97
Q

Focal spherical collections of
dilated, tortuous axonal or
dendritic process around a central
amyloid core; Specific for AD

A

Neuritic plaques (Aβ)

98
Q

Basophilic fibrillary structures;
Not specific for AD but
correlates better with degree of
dementia

A

Neurofibrillary tangles (Ta)

99
Q

A patient presents with
diminished facial expression,
slow movement, stooped
posture, festinating gait,
rigidity, pill-rolling tremor.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Parkinson disease

100
Q

Most important risk factor for
Parkinson disease

A

Gaucher disease
(Glucocerebrosidase)

101
Q

Cytoplasmic, eosinophilic,
round to elongated inclusions
with a dense core and
surrounding pale halo seen in
Parkinson disease

A

Lewy body (α-synuclein)

102
Q

Parkinsonism + dementia +
visual hallucination

A

Dementia with Lewy
bodies

103
Q

Trinucleotide repeated or
expanded in Huntington
disease

A

CAG expansion on Huntingtin (HTT) gene) (Ch4)

104
Q

Most common immediate cause
of death

105
Q

Vitamin deficiency in Wernicke
encephalopathy and Korsakoff
syndrome

106
Q

Triad of ataxia, confusion,
ophthalmoplegia

A

Wernicke
encephalopathy

107
Q

Triad of confabulation,
hallucination, amnesia

A

Korsakoff syndrome

108
Q

Most common group of
primary brain tumors

109
Q

Most common primary malignant
brain tumor in adults

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

110
Q

Brain glioma with fried egg
appearance of the tumor cells
and chicken-wire appearance
of the vasculature

A

Oligodendroglioma

111
Q

Etiology of oligodendroglioma

A

IDH1 or IDH2 mutation
AND 1p/19q codeletion

112
Q

Most common type of glioma

A

Astrocytoma

113
Q

Most common glioma in
children; (+) Rosenthal fibers; Well-circumscribed cystic lesion w/ mural nodule

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

114
Q

Perivascular pseudorosettes
are seen in which brain tumor

A

Ependymoma

115
Q

2nd most common primary
malignant tumor in children; (+)
Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; (+)
Drop metastasis

A

Medulloblastoma

116
Q

Most common CNS neoplasm in
adults

A

Metastasis

117
Q

Most common CNS neoplasm in
immunocompromised
individuals

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

118
Q

Optic nerve tumors causing
proptosis of the eye

A

Glioma, meningioma

119
Q

Most common primary tumor
of the orbit

A

Vascular tumors

120
Q

Granulomatous lesion of the
eyelid due to sebaceous gland
drainage obstruction

121
Q

Most common malignancy of
the eyelid

A

Basal cell carcinoma

122
Q

Submucosal conjunctival
elevations in sun-exposed
areas of conjunctiva

A

Pinguecula, pterygium
(grows onto cornea)

123
Q

Common site of conjunctival
tumors

124
Q

Condition associated with blue
sclerae

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

125
Q

Cone-shaped cornea associated
with Down syndrome, Marfan
syndrome, atopy

A

Keratoconus

126
Q

Drug associated with cataract
formation

A

Corticosteroids

127
Q

Metabolic disease associated
with cataract formation

A

Galactosemia, DM,
Wilson disease

128
Q

Type of glaucoma wherein the
iris adheres to the trabecular
meshwork, obstructing the
outflow of aqueous humor

A

Angle-closure glaucoma

129
Q

Most common form of
glaucoma

A

Primary open-angle
glaucoma

130
Q

Inflammation within vitreous
humor

A

Endophthalmitis

131
Q

Inflammation of retina, choroid,
sclera

A

Panophthalmitis

132
Q

Autoimmune disorders
associated with uveitis

A

Reactive arthritis, Behçet
syndrome, Juvenile
idiopathic arthritis

133
Q

Most common intraocular
malignancy in adults

A

Choroidal metastasis

134
Q

Most common primary
intraocular malignancy in
adults

A

Uveal melanoma

135
Q

Type of retinal detachment
with full-thickness retinal
defect

A

Rhegmatogenous

136
Q

Infarcts from choroidal vessel
damage in hypertensive
retinopathy

A

Elschnig spots

137
Q

Copper/silver wiring in
hypertensive retinopathy

A

Retinal arteriosclerosis

138
Q

Most common retinal vascular
disease

A

Diabetic retinopathy

139
Q

Earliest sign of nonproliferative
diabetic retinopathy

A

Microaneurysms

140
Q

Neovascularization is present
in these vascular disease of the
retina

A

Proliferative diabetic
retinopathy, ischemic
retinal vein occlusion,
retinopathy of prematurity, wet age-
related macular degeneration

141
Q

A patient presents with sudden
onset unilateral blindness.
Fundoscopy showed diffuse
retinal pallor and cherry red
spot in the macula. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A

Central retinal artery
occlusion

142
Q

Type of age-related macular
degeneration where Drusen
spots or Bruch membrane
deposits are seen

A

Dry/Atrophic age-related
macular degeneration

143
Q

Most common primary
intraocular malignancy in
infants and young children

A

Retinoblastoma

144
Q

Characteristic spoke-and-wheel
shaped cell formation seen in
retinoblastoma

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner
Rosettes

145
Q

Atrophic, internally
disorganized; often called as
end-stage eye

A

Phthisis bulbi

146
Q

Chromosome where the RB
gene is located

A

Chromosome 13

147
Q

Bilateral edema of the optic
nerve or papilledema is a sign of

A

Increased intracranial
pressure

148
Q

Onion bulb formation

A

Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyradicular Neuropathy (CIDP)

149
Q

Types of Charcot Marie Tooth Dse

A

CMT1A: Demyelination
CMT2A: axonal
CMT1X: X-linked

150
Q

Heliotrope rash and Gottron papules

A

Dermatomyositis (Anti-Mi2 antibody)

151
Q

Anti Jo1 dermatomyositis & associated condition

A

Interstitial lung dses
Skin rash (mechanic hands)
Nonerosive arthritis

152
Q

Anti-P155/P140 dermatomyositis

A

Paraneoplastic, juvenile cases

153
Q

Hallmark of dermatomyositis

A

Perifascicular atrophy

154
Q

Random patchy atrophy, endomysial inflammation (CD8+)

A

Polymyositis

155
Q

Antibody in inclusion body myositis

A

Anti-cytosolic 5’ nucleotidase (cN1A)

156
Q

Polymyositis + rimmed vacuoles

A

Inclusion body myositis

157
Q

Weakness sites in Inclusion Body Myositis

A

Quadriceps
Distal upper extremity
Esophageal
Pharyngeal

158
Q

Gower sign

A

Muscular dystrophy

159
Q

Etiology of Schwanomma

160
Q

Verocay bodies

A

Schwanomma

161
Q

IHC of schwanomma

162
Q

IHC of neurofibroma

A

S100 - Schwann
CD34 - Stromal

163
Q

Shredded carrot appearance of Stromal collagen

A

Neurofibroma

164
Q

Multinodular “bag of worms”

A

Plexiform intraneural neurofibroma

165
Q

Infiltrative (+) Pseudo Meissner corpuscles

A

Diffuse cutaneous neurofibromas

166
Q

Alternating hypo and hypercellular areas of spindle cell fascicles (Marbled tapestry appearance)

A

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor

167
Q

Divergent differentiation
Malignant Triton Tumor

A

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor

168
Q

Neurofibromatosis 1 etiology

A

NF1 (Neurofibromin (Ch17) loss –> ↑ RAS signaling

169
Q

Neurofibromatosis 2 etiology

A

NF2 (Merlin, Ch 22) loss

170
Q

NF1 important components

A

Neurofibromas
MPNSTs
Pheochromocytoma
Lisch nodules
Cafe au lait spots

171
Q

NF2 important components

A

Bilateral 8th nerve schwanomma
Multiple meningioma
Intraspinal ependymoma

172
Q

Compressed structures in Subfalcine herniation

A

ACA
Corpus callosum

173
Q

Compressed structures in transtentorial (uncal herniation)

A

PCA
Cerebral peduncle
CNIII (Ipsilateral)

174
Q

Compressed structures in tonsillar herniation

175
Q

Duvet hemorrhages

A

Linear frame shaped hemorrhagic lesions in midbrain/pons

176
Q

Holoprosencephaly is associated with Trisomy ___________; features are __________________

A

13; cyclopia, arrhinencephaly

177
Q

Clinical feature of syringomyelia

A

Isolated loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities (cape-like distribution)

178
Q

Charcot joint

A

loss of pain/sensation that leads to joint/skin damage in tabes dorsalis neurosyphilis

179
Q

(+) Organism in expanded Virchow-Robin spaces, (-) inflammation and gliosis

A

Parenchymal invasion by Cryptococcus neoformans (also cause chronic meningocele)

180
Q

Retracted yellowish brown plaque seen in morphology of old parenchymal injury

A

Plaque jaune –> may become eliptogenic foci

181
Q

AVM mutation

182
Q

AVM morphology

A

Enlarged abnormal vessels separated by gliotic tissue; high flow lesions

183
Q

Cavernous malformation morphology

A

Distended loosely organized back to back vascular channels, (-) intervening brain tissue; low flow lesion

184
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Focal cerebral ischemia

A

Basal nuclei
Hemispheric white matter
Brainstem

185
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Global cerebral ischemia (watershed infarct)

A

ACA-MCA border

186
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Deep parenchymal hemorrhage

A

Basal nuclei
Thalamic vessels
Putamen

187
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Lobar hemorrhage

A

leptomeningeal
cortical
cerebellar

188
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Saccular berry aneurysm

A

ACA-ACoA junction

189
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: AVM

A

MCA territory (SAH and/or brain vessels

190
Q

Usual vessel bleed site: Cavernous malformation

A

Cerebellum
Pons
Subcortical areas

191
Q

Neuromyelitis optica antibody

A

Aquaporin 4 ab

192
Q

3 morphologic findings in neurodegenerative diseases

A

Neuronal loss
gliosis
inclusions

193
Q

Morphology of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

A

Spongiform transformation of cerebral cortex and deep grey matter structures, Cerebellar kuru plaques

194
Q

Frontotemporal atrophy in Pick disease manifests morphologically as

A

Wafer-thin knife edge gyri

195
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Friedrich ataxia

A

GAA expansion in frataxin gene (Ch9)

196
Q

Affected organs in Friedrich ataxia (due to ↓ frataxin)

A

Brain
Cardiac
Pancreas (Beta cells)

197
Q

Etiopathogenesis of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A

Mutations in Cu Zn Superoxide dismutase, TDP43 and FUS –> leads to upper and lower motor neuron degeneration

198
Q

Bunina bodies (PAS + autophagic vacuoles

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

199
Q

Progression of muscular weakness in ALS

A

Extremities –> Respiratory –> EOMs

200
Q

Alzheimer Type II cells in cortex, basal nuclei, subcortical grey matter

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

201
Q

Etiology of astrocytoma, IDH-mutant

A

IDH1 and IDH2 missense mutation

202
Q

Etiology of glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype

A

EGFR, TERT, +7/-10 chromosome copy number alterations

203
Q

ADULT TYPE DIFFUSE GLIOMAS: necrosis and/or microvascular proliferation

A

Glioblastoma IDH-wildtype

204
Q

ADULT TYPE DIFFUSE GLIOMAS: pseudopalisading and microvascular proliferation

A

Astrocytoma IDH mutant

205
Q

Homozygous loss of what gene automatically classifies a diffuse glioma as CNS WHO Grade 4?

A

CDKN2A/2B loss

206
Q

Molecular subtype of medulloblastoma that has the best prognosis

A

WNT-activated

207
Q

Site/imaging of meningioma

A

Extra-axial dural based solid mass w/ dural tail

208
Q

Common genetic anomaly in meningioma

209
Q

Important components of Tuberous Sclerosis Complex

A

Cortical tubers
Subependymal giant cell
Astrocytoma
Renal angiomatous lipoma
Cardiac rhabdomyosarcoma

210
Q

Structures affected in external hordeolum

A

Eyelash follicle
Glands of Zeiss and Moll

211
Q

Precursors of ocular actinic damage-related malignancies

A

Squamous cell carcinoma and melanoma

212
Q

Uveal melanoma etiologic genes

A

GNAQ
GNA11
BAP1 (Ch3) loss

213
Q

Cotton wool spots and cytoid bodies

A

Hypertensive retinopathy (Retinal arteriosclerosis)

214
Q

Hollenhorst plaques

A

Retinal Artery Occlusion

215
Q

Blood and thunder appearance

A

Retinal vein occlusion

216
Q

Most common intraocular malignancy in adults

A

Choroidal metastasis

217
Q

Most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults

A

Uveal melanoma

218
Q

Retinoblastoma gene affectation